SUD Flashcards

(225 cards)

1
Q

A 52-year-old man with alcohol dependence is admitted for detoxification. Blood tests show raised AST and ALT suggesting hepatic impairment.

Which benzodiazepine is most appropriate for use in this patient?

A. Chlordiazepoxide
B. Diazepam
C. Alprazolam
D. Lorazepam
E. Flunitrazepam

A

2️⃣ ✅ Correct answer

Lorazepam

3️⃣ Clear, exam-focused explanation

Why lorazepam is correct:
• Metabolised via glucuronidation (phase II)
• Does NOT rely on hepatic oxidation
• No active metabolites
• Safer in liver impairment

Why others are wrong:

• Chlordiazepoxide / Diazepam
→ Long-acting
→ Hepatic oxidation (phase I)
→ Active metabolites → accumulation → hepatic encephalopathy risk

• Alprazolam
→ Hepatically metabolised
→ Not preferred in liver disease

• Flunitrazepam
→ Long-acting, high potency
→ Accumulates → unsafe

4️⃣ 📘 NICE / ICD-11 / Maudsley / BNF rules

• Maudsley / BNF:
→ In liver impairment → use LOT drugs
→ Lorazepam, Oxazepam, Temazepam

• Alcohol withdrawal:
→ Benzodiazepines first-line
→ Choice depends on liver function

Exam is testing → Management (drug choice in hepatic impairment)

5️⃣ ⭐ High-yield facts to memorise

• “LOT = safer in Liver”
→ Lorazepam
→ Oxazepam
→ Temazepam

• Phase I metabolism (oxidation) = impaired in liver disease
• Phase II (glucuronidation) = preserved longer

• Long-acting benzos:
→ Diazepam
→ Chlordiazepoxide

• Risk in liver disease:
→ Sedation
→ Encephalopathy

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2
Q

A 60-year-old man with chronic alcohol dependence is diagnosed with Korsakoff’s syndrome. He has severe anterograde amnesia but intact attention.

Which of the following cognitive tests is least likely to be impaired?

A. Abbreviated Mental Test
B. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
C. Digit span
D. MMSE
E. WAIS

A

2️⃣ ✅ Correct answer

Digit span

3️⃣ Clear, exam-focused explanation

Why digit span is correct:
• Tests attention + working memory
• These are relatively preserved in Korsakoff’s

Core deficit in Korsakoff’s:
→ Episodic memory (anterograde amnesia)

Why others are wrong:

• AMT / MMSE
→ Include memory recall → impaired

• WAIS
→ Global cognitive testing → reduced scores

• MMPI
→ Personality + validity scales
→ Affected by cognitive impairment + chronic alcoholism

4️⃣ 📘 NICE / ICD-11 / Maudsley / BNF rules

• ICD-11: Korsakoff syndrome
→ Severe anterograde amnesia
→ Confabulation
→ Relative preservation of attention

• Caused by:
→ Thiamine deficiency

Exam is testing → Neuropsychological profile

5️⃣ ⭐ High-yield facts to memorise

• Korsakoff’s =
→ Anterograde amnesia
→ Confabulation
→ Executive dysfunction

• Brain areas:
→ Mammillary bodies
→ Thalamus

• Digit span =
→ Attention / working memory

• Memory tests impaired:
→ Recall tasks
→ New learning

• Can partially improve with abstinence

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3
Q

A 45-year-old man with a history of substance dependence is currently prescribed naltrexone.

This medication is most effective in preventing relapse in which substance use disorder?

A. Alcohol
B. Amphetamine
C. Cocaine
D. Ecstasy
E. Cannabis

A

2️⃣ ✅ Correct answer

Alcohol

3️⃣ Clear, exam-focused explanation

Why alcohol is correct:
• Naltrexone = opioid receptor antagonist
• Reduces:
→ Craving
→ Reward from alcohol
• Evidence-based for relapse prevention in alcohol dependence

Why others are wrong:

• Amphetamine / Cocaine / Ecstasy
→ No established role for naltrexone
→ Different neurochemical pathways (dopamine-driven)

• Cannabis
→ No role for naltrexone

4️⃣ 📘 NICE / ICD-11 / Maudsley / BNF rules

• NICE CG115 (Alcohol-use disorders):
→ Offer naltrexone or acamprosate for relapse prevention
• Duration:
→ At least 6 months

Exam is testing → Management (relapse prevention)

5️⃣ ⭐ High-yield facts to memorise

• Naltrexone = opioid antagonist (μ-receptor)
• Reduces reward, not withdrawal
• Alternatives:
→ Acamprosate
→ Disulfiram

• Contraindications:
→ Acute hepatitis
→ Opioid use (precipitates withdrawal)

• Must be opioid-free before starting

6️⃣ ⚠️ Common MRCPsych exam traps

• Confusing with opioid dependence (methadone/buprenorphine) ❌
• Thinking it treats withdrawal instead of relapse ❌
• Choosing stimulants (cocaine/amphetamines) ❌

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4
Q

A neonate born to a mother who used substances during pregnancy presents with mild tremors, irritability, and requires excessive soothing and handling.

Withdrawal from which substance is most associated with increased need for handling in neonates?

A. Nicotine
B. Cocaine
C. Benzodiazepines
D. Cannabis
E. Alcohol

A

✅ Correct answer

Nicotine

Why nicotine is correct:
• Causes subtle neonatal withdrawal features
• Leads to poor self-regulation
• Classic feature = increased need for handling/soothing
• Often under-recognised → very examable

Why others are wrong:

• Cocaine
→ Irritability + high-pitched cry
→ NOT classically “needs handling”

• Benzodiazepines
→ Hypotonia
→ Sedation / respiratory depression
→ Opposite picture

• Cannabis
→ No well-defined withdrawal syndrome

• Alcohol
→ Severe withdrawal (seizures, autonomic instability)
→ Not subtle behavioural soothing need

📘 NICE / ICD-11 / Maudsley / BNF rules

• Neonatal withdrawal depends on maternal substance exposure
• Nicotine → behavioural dysregulation (not severe NAS)
• Not all substances cause classic NAS

Exam is testing → Substance-specific neonatal withdrawal features

⭐ High-yield facts to memorise

• Nicotine withdrawal =
→ Irritability
→ Tremors
→ ↑ need for handling

• Opioid withdrawal (compare) =
→ High-pitched cry
→ Sweating
→ Diarrhoea

• Benzodiazepine exposure =
→ Floppy baby (hypotonia)

• Cocaine =
→ Neurobehavioural instability

• Cannabis =
→ Minimal / unclear neonatal effects

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5
Q

42-year-old woman presents to A&E with irritability, agitation, and impulsive aggression. She has a long history of daily high-potency cannabis (skunk) use but stopped abruptly 3 days ago. There is no evidence of psychosis or delirium.

Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacological management?

A. Cannabinoids
B. Antipsychotics
C. Mood stabilisers
D. Benzodiazepines
E. Antidepressants

A

✅ Correct answer

Benzodiazepines

•	Cannabis withdrawal syndrome → agitation, irritability, insomnia
•	Benzodiazepines:
- Provide short-term symptomatic relief of agitation/anxiety
- Commonly used in clinical practice (even if evidence is limited)

Why others are wrong:
• Cannabinoids
Not standard in UK practice
No NICE recommendation for substitution therapy
• Antipsychotics
Used only if psychosis present
Not first-line for simple withdrawal agitation
• Mood stabilisers
No role in acute withdrawal
• Antidepressants
Delayed onset → useless acutely

⭐ High-yield facts to memorise
• Cannabis withdrawal onset: 24–72 hours
• Peak: ~1 week
• Symptoms:
Irritability
Anxiety
Insomnia
↓ appetite
• No licensed pharmacological treatment in UK
• Benzodiazepines = pragmatic short-term option

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6
Q

According to large follow-up studies, what is the most important mediator of violence in patients with mental illness?

A. Lack of formal education
B. Substance abuse
C. Recent discharge from a mental health unit
D. Presence of strangers in the neighbourhood
E. Cognitive impairment

A

2️⃣ ✅ Correct answer

Substance abuse

3️⃣ Clear, exam-focused explanation

Why substance abuse is correct:
• Strongest and most consistent predictor of violence
• Applies to:
→ General population
→ Psychiatric populations

• Mental illness alone → small increase in risk
• Risk rises significantly when substance misuse is present

Why others are wrong:

• Lack of education
→ Weak association

• Recent discharge
→ Risk factor, but NOT the strongest

• Strangers nearby
→ Not a recognised predictor

• Cognitive impairment
→ May contribute but not primary mediator

4️⃣ 📘 NICE / ICD-11 / Maudsley / BNF rules

• Violence risk assessment includes:
→ Substance misuse
→ Past violence
→ Psychosis (esp. persecutory delusions)

• Evidence shows:
→ Substance misuse = key modifiable risk factor

Exam is testing → Risk assessment (forensic psychiatry)

5️⃣ ⭐ High-yield facts to memorise

• Substance misuse = strongest predictor of violence
• Alcohol particularly high risk
• Psychosis + substance misuse = very high risk
• Past violence = best predictor of future violence
• Risk is multifactorial

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7
Q

In alcohol-related dementia, the most common radiological finding is:

A. Generalised cortical atrophy
B. Frontal lobe infarct
C. White matter lesions
D. Demyelination of corpus callosum
E. Third ventricle enlargement

A

✅ Correct answer

Generalised cortical atrophy

3️⃣ Clear, exam-focused explanation

Why this is correct:
• Chronic alcohol use →
→ Diffuse brain damage

➡️ MRI/CT shows:
👉 Generalised cortical atrophy (often frontal predominance)

🔥 Key insight:

👉 Alcohol damages:
• Frontal lobes → executive dysfunction
• Limbic system → memory

⭐ High-yield facts

• Alcohol → frontal atrophy
• Memory impairment may improve with abstinence
• Confabulation = Korsakoff
• Wernicke triad:
→ ataxia + confusion + ophthalmoplegia

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8
Q

💊 NALTREXONE

A

✅ Key features:
• Opioid receptor antagonist (μ antagonist)
• Used for relapse prevention after detox

💡 Explanation

👉 Blocks opioid receptors → no euphoric effect if opioids taken

👉 ONLY used:
• After complete detoxification
• Otherwise → precipitates withdrawal ⚠️

🔥 High-yield

• Not for withdrawal management
• Requires opioid-free period (7–10 days)
• Also used in alcohol dependence

⚠️ Exam trap

❌ Giving during active use → precipitated withdrawal

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9
Q

💊 METHADONE

A

✅ Key features:
• Full μ-opioid agonist
• Used for substitution therapy / maintenance

💡 Explanation

👉 Long-acting opioid → stabilises patient
👉 Prevents withdrawal + reduces cravings

🔥 High-yield

• First-line for maintenance
• Daily supervised dosing initially
• Risk: QT prolongation ⚠️

⚠️ Exam trap

❌ Not “detox only” → used long-term
❌ Higher overdose risk than buprenorphine

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10
Q

💊 BUPRENORPHINE

A

✅ Key features:
• Partial μ-opioid agonist
• Safer (ceiling effect → lower overdose risk)

💡 Explanation

👉 Partial agonist:
• Enough to prevent withdrawal
• BUT limits respiratory depression

👉 Often combined with:
• Naloxone (Suboxone) → reduces misuse

🔥 High-yield

• First-line alternative to methadone
• Preferred if overdose risk
• Faster detox than methadone

⚠️ Exam trap

❌ Can precipitate withdrawal if given too early
👉 Start when mild withdrawal present

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11
Q

A patient presents with symptoms of opioid withdrawal. Which is an early sign?

A. Nausea
B. Stomach cramps
C. Anxiety
D. Cold turkey
E. Diarrhoea

A

✅ Correct answer: C. Anxiety

💡 Explanation

👉 Opioid withdrawal has a clear timeline:

🟢 EARLY symptoms (6–12 hours for heroin)
• Anxiety ✅
• Agitation
• Muscle aches
• Yawning
• Sweating
• Runny nose (rhinorrhoea)
• Lacrimation

🔴 LATE symptoms
• Nausea / vomiting
• Diarrhoea
• Abdominal cramps
• Goosebumps
• Strong cravings

🔥 High-yield facts

• Early = autonomic + psychological
• Late = GI symptoms
• Not life-threatening (unlike alcohol withdrawal)

⚠️ Exam traps

❌ Diarrhoea → late
❌ Nausea → late
❌ “Cold turkey” → not a symptom

🎯 Examiner logic

👉 If they ask EARLY → pick:
👉 Anxiety / yawning / sweating

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12
Q

50-year-old man with alcohol dependence presents with confusion and difficulty walking. What treatment is required?

A. Vitamin B2
B. IV glucose
C. Vitamin B1
D. Vitamin C
E. Vitamin B12

A

✅ Correct answer: C. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)

💡 Explanation

👉 This is Wernicke’s encephalopathy

Classic triad:
• Confusion
• Ataxia (difficulty walking)
• Ophthalmoplegia (often not mentioned → trap)

🧠 Pathophysiology
• Chronic alcohol → thiamine deficiency
• Brain energy failure → neuronal damage

🚨 CRITICAL RULE

👉 ALWAYS give THIAMINE BEFORE GLUCOSE

❗ Why?

Giving glucose first:
➡️ increases metabolic demand
➡️ consumes remaining thiamine
➡️ worsens brain injury

🔥 High-yield facts

• Emergency → give IV Pabrinex
• Can progress to:
👉 Korsakoff syndrome (irreversible)
• Seen in:
• Alcohol dependence
• Malnutrition

⚠️ Exam traps

❌ IV glucose → WRONG FIRST
❌ Vitamin B12 → neuropathy, not this
❌ Missing ophthalmoplegia → still Wernicke

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13
Q

Mrs Norris (alcohol dependence) asks about community detox. Which feature would make you choose inpatient detox?

A. Non-insulin dependent diabetes
B. Concurrent cannabis use
C. History of seizures
D. Previous disengagement
E. History of depression

A

✅ Correct answer: C. History of seizures

💡 Explanation

👉 This is about risk stratification in alcohol withdrawal

🚨 When do you choose INPATIENT detox?

High-risk features:
• History of withdrawal seizures ✅
• Previous delirium tremens
• Severe dependence
• Significant physical comorbidity
• Poor social support

👉 Why seizures matter:
• Alcohol withdrawal lowers seizure threshold
• Past seizures = high recurrence risk
• Can progress to:
→ Status epilepticus
→ Delirium tremens

🔥 High-yield facts

• Withdrawal seizures occur 6–48 hours after last drink
• Usually generalised tonic-clonic
• Benzodiazepines = prevention

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14
Q

A patient presents 16 hours after heavy alcohol intake, in a precarious state. What blood abnormality is most likely?

A. Hyperglycaemia
B. Hyperkalaemia
C. Hypokalaemia
D. Hypocalcaemia
E. Hypoglycaemia

A

✅ Correct answer: E. Hypoglycaemia

💡 Explanation

👉 Alcohol causes delayed hypoglycaemia

🧠 Mechanism
• Alcohol metabolism ↑ NADH
• Inhibits gluconeogenesis
• Liver cannot produce glucose

👉 Result:
➡️ Low blood sugar hours later

⏱️ Timing
• Often 6–24 hours after drinking
• Especially if:
• Poor nutrition
• Fasting

🔥 High-yield facts

• Can cause:
Confusion
Seizures
Coma
• Always check glucose in alcohol patients

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15
Q

Kate is 28 years old and known to a community mental health service; she has a drug dependence. She’s just given birth to a son, Tom, who is 9 hours old and is observed to be lethargic, with poor muscle tone. What drug is most likely used by Kate?

A. Amphetamines
B. MDMA
C. Heroin
D. Zopiclone
E. Diazepam

A

✅ Correct answer: Diazepam

💡 Explanation

👉 This is neonatal benzodiazepine withdrawal / toxicity

Key features in baby:
• Lethargy
• Hypotonia (poor muscle tone)
• Sedation

👉 Why diazepam?
• Benzodiazepines cross placenta
• Cause CNS depression in neonate
• Can also lead to withdrawal syndrome after birth

👉 “Floppy baby” = benzodiazepines

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16
Q

45-year-old man drinks 60 units of alcohol per week. According to UK Chief Medical Officer guidelines, what is the recommended maximum low-risk drinking level?

A. ≤7 units/week
B. ≤10 units/week
C. ≤14 units/week
D. ≤21 units/week
E. ≤28 units/week

A

✅ Correct answer: C. ≤14 units/week

💡 Explanation
• UK guideline:
👉 ≤14 units/week
• Applies to:
• Men AND women
• Should be:
👉 Spread over ≥3 days

🔥 High-yield facts
• No “safe” level, only “low-risk”
• Avoid binge drinking
• Alcohol-free days recommended

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17
Q

What is the prevalence of alcohol dependence in the UK adult population?

A. 1–2%
B. 2–3%
C. 4–5%
D. 6–8%
E. 10–12%

A

✅ Correct answer: C. 4–5%

💡 Explanation
• More common in:
👉 Men
• Significant public health burden

🔥 High-yield
• Alcohol misuse overall is much higher
• Dependence = smaller subset

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18
Q

A patient presents 8 hours after their last alcoholic drink with tremor, sweating, and anxiety. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Delirium tremens
B. Alcohol intoxication
C. Alcohol withdrawal
D. Korsakoff syndrome
E. Wernicke encephalopathy

A

✅ Correct answer: C. Alcohol withdrawal

💡 Explanation
• Early withdrawal:
👉 6–12 hours
• Symptoms:
Tremor
Anxiety
Sweating

🔥 High-yield timeline
• 6–12h → withdrawal
• 24–48h → seizures
• 48–72h → delirium tremens

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19
Q

When do alcohol withdrawal seizures typically occur?

A. 6–12 hours
B. 12–24 hours
C. 24–48 hours
D. 48–72 hours
E. >72 hours

A

✅ Correct answer: C. 24–48 hours

💡 Explanation
• Usually:
👉 Generalised tonic-clonic seizures
• Can occur as:
👉 Single or brief cluster

🔥 Exam trap
• Don’t confuse with DT (later)

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20
Q

A patient develops confusion, visual hallucinations, and autonomic instability 72 hours after alcohol cessation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Alcohol withdrawal
B. Wernicke encephalopathy
C. Korsakoff syndrome
D. Delirium tremens
E. Substance-induced psychosis

A

✅ Correct answer: D. Delirium tremens

💡 Explanation
• Severe withdrawal:
👉 Occurs 48–72 hours
• Features:
Delirium
Autonomic instability
Hallucinations

🔥 High-yield
• Medical emergency
• Mortality 5–15% untreated

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21
Q

What is the first-line pharmacological treatment for alcohol withdrawal?

A. Haloperidol
B. Propranolol
C. Benzodiazepine (e.g. chlordiazepoxide)
D. Carbamazepine
E. Diazepam only if severe

A

✅ Correct answer: C. Benzodiazepine (e.g. chlordiazepoxide)

💡 Explanation
• Reduces:
👉 Seizure risk
👉 Withdrawal severity

🔥 High-yield
• Regimens:
Symptom-triggered
Fixed dose

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22
Q

A patient develops an alcohol withdrawal seizure. What is the most appropriate immediate treatment?

A. Haloperidol
B. Carbamazepine
C. Lorazepam IV/IM
D. Phenytoin
E. Propranolol

A

✅ Correct answer: C. Lorazepam IV/IM

💡 Explanation
• Acute seizure:
👉 Treat with benzodiazepine
• Continue:
👉 Oral chlordiazepoxide

🔥 High-yield
• Phenytoin NOT effective in withdrawal seizures

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23
Q

What vitamin must be administered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy in alcohol dependence?

A. Vitamin B6
B. Vitamin B12
C. Folic acid
D. Thiamine
E. Vitamin C

A

✅ Correct answer: D. Thiamine

💡 Explanation
• Given as:
👉 Pabrinex (IV)
• ALWAYS:
👉 Before glucose

🔥 High-yield
• Prevents:
• Wernicke → Korsakoff

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24
Q

What is the classic triad of Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A. Confusion, rigidity, tremor
B. Confusion, ataxia, ophthalmoplegia
C. Memory loss, hallucinations, agitation
D. Tremor, sweating, anxiety
E. Delirium, seizures, coma

A

✅ Correct answer: B. Confusion, ataxia, ophthalmoplegia

💡 Explanation
• Only ~10% show full triad
👉 Treat if suspected

🔥 High-yield
• Medical emergency
• Reversible if treated early

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25
A patient develops anterograde amnesia and confabulation following untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy. What is the diagnosis? A. Delirium tremens B. Alcohol-induced dementia C. Korsakoff syndrome D. Hepatic encephalopathy E. Substance psychosis ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Korsakoff syndrome ⸻ 💡 Explanation • Chronic complication of Wernicke’s • Features: Memory impairment Confabulation ⸻ 🔥 High-yield • Often irreversible • Preventable with thiamine
26
Which medication reduces alcohol craving by modulating glutamate? A. Disulfiram B. Naltrexone C. Acamprosate D. Methadone E. Baclofen ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Acamprosate ⸻ 💡 Explanation • Mechanism: 👉 Modulates glutamate system • Used: 👉 After detox to maintain abstinence ⸻ 🔥 High-yield • Safe in liver disease
27
Which medication causes an unpleasant reaction when alcohol is consumed? A. Acamprosate B. Naltrexone C. Disulfiram D. Diazepam E. Fluoxetine ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Disulfiram ⸻ 💡 Explanation • Inhibits: 👉 Aldehyde dehydrogenase • Causes: Flushing Nausea Palpitations ⸻ 🔥 High-yield • Requires high motivation • Risky if non-adherent
28
What is the mechanism of naltrexone in alcohol dependence? A. Dopamine agonist B. NMDA antagonist C. Opioid antagonist D. GABA agonist E. Serotonin reuptake inhibitor ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Opioid antagonist ⸻ 💡 Explanation • Reduces: Reward from alcohol ⸻ 🔥 High-yield • Contraindicated in: 👉 Liver disease
29
A patient with alcohol dependence has liver cirrhosis. Which medications are contraindicated? A. Acamprosate B. Thiamine C. Disulfiram and naltrexone D. Benzodiazepines E. Fluoxetine ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Disulfiram and naltrexone ⸻ 💡 Explanation • Both: 👉 Hepatotoxic ⸻ 🔥 High-yield • Use: 👉 Acamprosate instead
30
Which blood test is most specific for recent heavy alcohol use? A. ALT B. AST C. GGT D. CDT E. MCV ⸻
✅ Correct answer: D. CDT (carbohydrate-deficient transferrin) ⸻ 💡 Explanation • Most specific marker of: 👉 Chronic heavy drinking ⸻ 🔥 High-yield • GGT & MCV = sensitive but less specific
31
What is the AUDIT tool used for? A. Diagnosing alcohol dependence B. Monitoring liver damage C. Screening for hazardous drinking D. Measuring withdrawal severity E. Assessing relapse risk ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Screening for hazardous drinking ⸻ 💡 Explanation • AUDIT = 👉 Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test • Purpose: 👉 Screening tool ⸻ 🎯 Paper B stressor ❗ They may try to trick you: • “diagnosis” → WRONG • “screening” → CORRECT ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts • 10 questions • Covers: Intake Dependence Harm
32
What AUDIT score indicates hazardous drinking? A. ≥5 B. ≥8 C. ≥10 D. ≥12 E. ≥15 ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. ≥8 ⸻ 💡 Explanation • Cut-off: 👉 ≥8 = hazardous drinking
33
A 28-year-old man is brought to the emergency department unresponsive. He has pinpoint pupils, respiratory rate of 6/min, and visible track marks. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Benzodiazepine overdose B. Opioid overdose C. Alcohol intoxication D. Cocaine toxicity E. Serotonin syndrome ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. Opioid overdose ⸻ 💡 Explanation Classic opioid toxidrome: • ↓ Consciousness • Pinpoint pupils (miosis) • Respiratory depression ⸻ 🎯 Exam trap • Pinpoint pupils = opioids (NOT benzos) ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B stressors • “RR 6” → ALWAYS opioids • “Track marks” → IV drug use clue • Resp depression = life-threatening feature
34
What is the first-line antidote for opioid overdose? A. Flumazenil B. Naloxone C. Naltrexone D. Methadone E. Buprenorphine ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. Naloxone ⸻ 💡 Explanation • Opioid antagonist • Given: IV IM Intranasal ⸻ 🎯 Exam trap • Naloxone = acute overdose reversal • Naltrexone = relapse prevention ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B stressors • “May need repeated doses” (short half-life) • Can precipitate acute withdrawal
35
A patient dependent on heroin wants to stop using. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment? A. Naloxone B. Naltrexone C. Methadone or buprenorphine D. Diazepam E. Disulfiram ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Methadone or buprenorphine ⸻ 💡 Explanation • Opioid substitution therapy (OST) • Reduces: • Harm • Illicit use • Mortality ⸻ 🎯 Exam trap • Do NOT detox first-line → maintain first ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B stressors • “Wants to stop heroin” → OST, not detox • Methadone = full agonist • Buprenorphine = partial agonist
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Methadone vs Buprenoprhine
🔴 Methadone 🔬 Mechanism • Full μ-opioid agonist ⸻ ✅ Pros • Stronger effect • Better for: • Severe dependence • High tolerance ⸻ ❌ Cons (EXAM FAVOURITES) • 🔥 QT prolongation • 🔥 Overdose risk (especially early) - Methadone accumulates ->Long half-life → delayed toxicity • Sedation • Respiratory depression ⸻ 🚨 Key Paper B points • Start low → titrate slowly • Risk of accumulation (long half-life) • Needs ECG monitoring ⸻ 🧠 When exam wants methadone: • Severe dependence • Failed buprenorphine • High opioid tolerance ⸻ ⸻ 🟢 Buprenorphine 🔬 Mechanism • Partial μ-opioid agonist ⸻ ✅ Pros (VERY TESTED) • 🔥 Ceiling effect → safer in overdose • Lower respiratory depression • Less sedation ⸻ ❌ Cons • Can precipitate withdrawal if started too early • Slightly weaker effect ⸻ 🚨 Key Paper B points • Safer → preferred in: • Overdose risk • Community setting
37
Opioid Management Doses
🔴 1. METHADONE ✅ Starting dose (VERY HIGH-YIELD) 👉 10–30 mg daily ⸻ ✅ Titration 👉 Increase by: • 5–10 mg every few days ⸻ ✅ Typical maintenance dose 👉 60–120 mg daily ⸻ 🚨 ABSOLUTE EXAM POINTS • Start LOW → go SLOW • Peak respiratory depression occurs later than peak effect → overdose risk • Daily supervised dosing early on ⸻ 🎯 Paper B traps • Starting too high → ❌ WRONG • Rapid titration → ❌ overdose risk ⸻ ⸻ 🟢 2. BUPRENORPHINE ✅ Starting dose 👉 2–4 mg (sublingual) ⸻ ✅ Titration 👉 Increase to: • 8–16 mg daily ⸻ ✅ Max dose (commonly tested) 👉 24 mg/day ⸻ 🚨 CRUCIAL EXAM POINT 👉 Start ONLY when in withdrawal • Otherwise → ⚠️ precipitated withdrawal ⸻ 🎯 Paper B traps • Starting too early → severe withdrawal • “Last heroin use 2 hours ago” → ❌ DO NOT START ⸻ ⸻ 🔵 3. NALOXONE (OVERDOSE) ✅ Initial dose 👉 0.4–2 mg IV ⸻ ✅ Repeat dosing 👉 Every 2–3 minutes if needed ⸻ 🚨 Key points • Short half-life → may need repeat doses • Can cause acute withdrawal ⸻ 🎯 Exam trigger 👉 “Unconscious + RR 6” → GIVE NALOXONE ⸻ ⸻ 🟡 4. NALTREXONE (RELAPSE PREVENTION) ✅ Dose 👉 50 mg daily (oral) ⸻ 🚨 CRUCIAL RULE 👉 Only startq: • After 7–10 days opioid-free ⸻ 🎯 Exam trap • Starting too early → ❌ precipitated withdrawal ⸻ ⸻ 🟣 5. LOFEXIDINE (WITHDRAWAL SYMPTOMS) ✅ Dose (you don’t need exact numbers usually) 👉 Around 0.2–0.4 mg multiple times daily ⸻ 💡 What matters more: • Alpha-2 agonist • Reduces autonomic symptoms
38
What is the key advantage of buprenorphine over methadone? A. Higher efficacy B. Longer half-life C. Partial agonist with ceiling effect D. No withdrawal symptoms E. No dependence risk ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Partial agonist with ceiling effect ⸻ 💡 Explanation • Buprenorphine: • Partial μ-agonist • Ceiling effect → safer in overdose ⸻ 🎯 Exam trap • Safer ≠ more effective • Still causes dependence ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B stressors • “Safer option” → buprenorphine • “Overdose risk concern” → choose buprenorphine
39
heroin user stops using. When do withdrawal symptoms typically begin? A. Immediately B. 2–4 hours C. 8–12 hours D. 24–48 hours E. 72 hours ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. 8–12 hours ⸻ 💡 Explanation • Short-acting opioids (e.g. heroin): 👉 Withdrawal starts 8–12 hours 🔥 High-yield Paper B stressors • Peak: 36–72 hours • Duration: ~5–7 days
40
Which of the following is a typical feature of opioid withdrawal? A. Bradycardia B. Mydriasis absent C. Rhinorrhoea and yawning D. Constipation E. Sedation ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Rhinorrhoea and yawning ⸻ 💡 Explanation Withdrawal = flu-like + autonomic overactivity: • Rhinorrhoea • Lacrimation • Yawning • Sweating • Diarrhoea • Piloerection ⸻ 🎯 Exam trap • Opposite of intoxication: • Overdose → miosis • Withdrawal → mydriasis ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B stressors • “Flu-like symptoms” → opioids • Not life-threatening (unlike alcohol withdrawal)
41
What medication is used to manage opioid withdrawal symptoms? A. Propranolol B. Lofexidine C. Diazepam D. Haloperidol E. Acamprosate ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. Lofexidine ⸻ 💡 Explanation • Alpha-2 agonist • Reduces: • Noradrenergic symptoms • Autonomic hyperactivity ⸻ 🎯 Exam trap • Clonidine also works but lofexidine preferred (UK) ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B stressors • “Autonomic symptoms” → lofexidine • NOT first-line for maintenance
42
A patient on methadone develops QTc prolongation. What is the next step? A. Continue unchanged B. Increase dose C. ECG monitoring and reduce/switch D. Add beta-blocker E. Switch to naloxone ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. ECG monitoring and reduce/switch ⸻ 💡 Explanation • Methadone: 👉 QT prolongation risk • Management: • Monitor ECG • Reduce dose or switch ⸻ 🎯 Exam trap • QT prolongation = methadone classic ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B stressors • “QTc ↑” → think methadone • Switch → buprenorphine
43
What is the main risk of methadone in the first 2 weeks of treatment? A. Withdrawal B. Psychosis C. Overdose death D. Liver failure E. Seizures ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Overdose death ⸻ 💡 Explanation • Methadone accumulates • Long half-life → delayed toxicity ⸻ 🎯 Exam trap • Early treatment = highest risk ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B stressors • “Start low, go slow” • Supervised dosing initially
44
A pregnant woman is dependent on heroin. What is the most appropriate management? A. Immediate detoxification B. Diazepam C. Methadone or buprenorphine maintenance D. Naltrexone E. No treatment ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Methadone or buprenorphine maintenance ⸻ 💡 Explanation • Do NOT detox in pregnancy • Maintenance reduces: • Fetal distress • Miscarriage risk ⸻ 🎯 Exam trap • Detox = dangerous in pregnancy ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B stressors • “Pregnant + heroin” → maintenance ONLY • Neonatal abstinence syndrome expected
45
A patient has been taking diazepam 30 mg daily for 5 years and wishes to stop. What is the most appropriate management? A. Stop immediately B. Switch to lorazepam and stop C. Gradual dose reduction over months D. Start antipsychotic E. Replace with alcohol ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Gradual dose reduction over months ⸻ 💡 Explanation • Benzodiazepines must be tapered slowly • Typical reduction: 👉 10–15% every 2–4 weeks ⸻ 🎯 Exam trap • Sudden stop → ❌ seizures + death risk ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B stressors • Long-term use → ALWAYS taper • Diazepam preferred (long half-life) • “Wants to stop” ≠ stop immediately
46
Which of the following is a typical feature of benzodiazepine withdrawal? A. Bradycardia B. Sedation C. Anxiety and tremor D. Miosis E. Euphoria ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Anxiety and tremor ⸻ 💡 Explanation Withdrawal symptoms: • Anxiety • Insomnia • Tremor • Seizures (life-threatening) ⸻ 🎯 Exam trap • Opposite of intoxication: • Intoxication → sedation • Withdrawal → agitation ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B stressors • Only withdrawal (with alcohol) that can kill • Think: overactive CNS
47
A patient presents with agitation, dilated pupils, tachycardia, and hypertension after cocaine use. What is the diagnosis? A. Opioid withdrawal B. Alcohol intoxication C. Cocaine intoxication D. Serotonin syndrome E. Benzodiazepine overdose ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Cocaine intoxication ⸻ 💡 Explanation Sympathomimetic toxidrome: • Dilated pupils • Tachycardia • Hypertension • Agitation ⸻ 🎯 Exam trap • Compare: • Opioids → miosis • Cocaine → mydriasis ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B stressors • “Agitated + hypertensive” → stimulant • Think cocaine/amphetamines
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What is the most serious risk associated with cocaine intoxication? A. Liver failure B. Myocardial infarction C. Renal failure D. Seizures only E. Psychosis only ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. Myocardial infarction ⸻ 💡 Explanation Cocaine causes: • Coronary vasospasm • Arrhythmias • Stroke ⸻ 🎯 Exam trap • Even young patients → MI risk ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B stressors • Chest pain + cocaine → treat as MI • Avoid beta-blockers
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Why should beta-blockers be avoided in cocaine toxicity? A. Cause bradycardia B. Increase sedation C. Unopposed alpha stimulation D. Cause seizures E. Reduce dopamine ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Unopposed alpha stimulation ⸻ 💡 Explanation Blocking β receptors → leaves: 👉 Alpha vasoconstriction unchecked → worsens hypertension ⸻ 🎯 Exam trap • Beta-blockers = ❌ in cocaine ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B stressors • Treatment = benzodiazepines instead
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patient using amphetamines daily develops paranoid delusions. What is the diagnosis? A. Schizophrenia B. Bipolar disorder C. Substance-induced psychosis D. Delirium E. Personality disorder ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Substance-induced psychosis ⸻ 💡 Explanation • Amphetamines ↑ dopamine → psychosis • Resolves with abstinence ⸻ 🎯 Exam trap • Always consider substance before schizophrenia ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B stressors • “Paranoia + stimulants” → substance-induced • May need short-term antipsychotic
51
What is the first-line treatment for acute stimulant intoxication with agitation? A. Haloperidol B. Diazepam C. Propranolol D. Lithium E. Clozapine ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. Diazepam (benzodiazepines) ⸻ 💡 Explanation • Benzodiazepines: • Calm agitation • Reduce sympathetic overactivity ⸻ 🎯 Exam trap • NOT antipsychotics first-line ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B stressors • “Agitated + stimulant” → benzos • Avoid restraint
52
A patient has used cannabis heavily for 10 years. What is the risk of developing psychosis? A. No increased risk B. 2–6 times increased C. 10 times increased D. 50% risk E. Only if genetic predisposition ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. 2–6 times increased ⸻ 💡 Explanation • Dose-response relationship • Earlier use → higher risk
53
What is cannabis hyperemesis syndrome? A. Severe diarrhoea B. Cyclical vomiting relieved by hot showers C. Liver failure D. Seizures E. Delirium ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. Cyclical vomiting relieved by hot showers ⸻ 💡 Explanation • Chronic cannabis → vomiting • Hot showers relieve symptoms
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A patient presents with hyperthermia, hypertension, and serotonin syndrome after MDMA use. What is the most appropriate management? A. Beta-blockers B. Antipsychotics C. Cooling, benzodiazepines, supportive care D. Naloxone E. Lithium ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Cooling, benzodiazepines, supportive care ⸻ 💡 Explanation MDMA → serotonin syndrome: • Hyperthermia • Autonomic instability Management: • Cooling • Benzodiazepines • Supportive care ⸻ 🎯 Exam trap • Don’t jump to antipsychotics ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B stressors • Severe cases → cyproheptadine • Always manage hyperthermia aggressively
55
50-year-old man with alcohol dependence presents with confusion, ataxia, and nystagmus. What is the immediate management? A. IV glucose B. Oral thiamine C. IV Pabrinex (thiamine) D. Diazepam E. Haloperidol ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. IV Pabrinex (thiamine) ⸻ 💡 Explanation Classic Wernicke’s encephalopathy: • Confusion • Ataxia • Ophthalmoplegia/nystagmus 👉 MUST give IV thiamine BEFORE glucose ⸻ 🎯 Exam trap • Giving glucose first → ❌ worsens Wernicke’s ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B stressors • “Confusion + ataxia” → ALWAYS thiamine • IV (not oral) in acute setting
56
A patient on methadone maintenance is found dead. Post-mortem shows methadone level within therapeutic range. What is the most likely cause? A. Cardiac arrhythmia B. Respiratory depression C. Seizure D. Liver failure E. Stroke ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. Respiratory depression ⸻ 💡 Explanation • Methadone: • Tolerance develops to euphoria • NOT fully to respiratory depression ⸻ 🎯 Exam trap • “Therapeutic level” ≠ safe ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B stressors • Early treatment phase → highest risk • Accumulation due to long half-life
57
A cocaine user presents with chest pain and ECG changes. Which of the following should be avoided? A. Nitrates B. Benzodiazepines C. Beta-blockers D. Aspirin E. Oxygen ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Beta-blockers ⸻ 💡 Explanation • Beta-blockers → unopposed alpha stimulation → worsens vasoconstriction ⸻ 🎯 Exam trap • Chest pain ≠ always beta-blocker ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B stressors • Use: • Benzodiazepines • Nitrates
58
A pregnant woman is dependent on heroin and wants detoxification. What is the best advice? A. Immediate detoxification B. Diazepam taper C. Methadone or buprenorphine maintenance D. Naltrexone E. No treatment ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Methadone or buprenorphine maintenance ⸻ 💡 Explanation • Detox in pregnancy → ❌ fetal distress/death • Maintenance stabilises mother and fetus ⸻ 🎯 Exam trap • “Wants to detox” → DO NOT follow patient request blindly ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B stressors • Pregnancy + opioids = NEVER detox
59
patient with alcohol dependence and depression requires antidepressant treatment. Which is safest? A. Amitriptyline B. Clomipramine C. SSRI D. MAOI E. Lithium ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. SSRI ⸻ 💡 Explanation • SSRIs: • Safer in overdose • Treat both depression + alcohol misuse ⸻ 🎯 Exam trap • TCAs → ❌ overdose risk ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B stressors • Substance misuse + depression → SSRI first
60
A patient taking disulfiram drinks alcohol. What symptoms are expected? A. Bradycardia and sedation B. Euphoria C. Flushing, nausea, vomiting, hypotension, tachycardia D. Seizures E. Hallucinations ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Flushing, nausea, vomiting, hypotension, tachycardia ⸻ 💡 Explanation • Disulfiram inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase → acetaldehyde accumulation ⸻ 🎯 Exam trap • Looks like severe alcohol reaction ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B stressors • “Aversion therapy drug” → disulfiram
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22-year-old has used cannabis daily since age 14. What is the increased psychiatric risk? A. Depression only B. Bipolar disorder C. Schizophrenia (2–6× risk) D. Personality disorder E. Anxiety only ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Schizophrenia (2–6× risk) ⸻ 💡 Explanation • Dose + early exposure → ↑ psychosis risk ⸻ 🎯 Exam trap • Cannabis ≠ benign ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B stressors • Earlier use = worse risk
62
A patient with opioid dependence has hepatitis C. Which substitution therapy is preferred? A. Methadone B. Buprenorphine C. Naltrexone D. Naloxone E. Diazepam ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. Buprenorphine ⸻ 💡 Explanation • Buprenorphine: • Less hepatotoxic • Safer in liver disease ⸻ 🎯 Exam trap • Methadone still used but not preferred ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B stressors • “Liver disease” → choose buprenorphine
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A patient in alcohol withdrawal has a seizure. What is the next step? A. Stop treatment B. Start antipsychotic C. IV lorazepam and continue chlordiazepoxide D. Give naloxone E. Start lithium ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. IV lorazepam and continue chlordiazepoxide ⸻ 💡 Explanation • Acute seizure → IV benzodiazepine • Continue detox regimen ⸻ 🎯 Exam trap • Don’t stop detox ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B stressors • Alcohol withdrawal = seizure risk
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A patient with benzodiazepine dependence wants rapid detoxification. What is the main risk? A. Depression B. Anxiety C. Seizures and death D. Psychosis E. Insomnia ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Seizures and death ⸻ 💡 Explanation • Benzodiazepine withdrawal: • Life-threatening • Requires slow taper ⸻ 🎯 Exam trap • Same danger as alcohol withdrawal
65
Miss Gordon attends a drug and alcohol clinic and wishes to stop smoking heroin. Which drug could be prescribed as part of opioid detoxification? A. Baclofen B. Buprenorphine C. Bupropion D. Naloxone E. Buspirone ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. Buprenorphine ⸻ 💡 Explanation (exam-focused) • Buprenorphine: • Partial μ-opioid agonist • Used for: • Detox • Maintenance ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong • Baclofen • Alcohol dependence • ❌ Not opioids ⸻ • Bupropion • Smoking cessation • ❌ Not opioids ⸻ • Naloxone • Acute overdose reversal • ❌ NOT detox → precipitates withdrawal ⸻ • Buspirone • Anxiety • ❌ No role in opioid treatment ⸻ 🎯 Exam trap 👉 Naloxone looks tempting → but WRONG 👉 It causes withdrawal, not treatment ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B stressors • “Detox / substitution” → Methadone or Buprenorphine • “Overdose” → Naloxone • “Relapse prevention (after detox)” → Naltrexone
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Which of the following is a micro-counselling skill used in motivational interviewing? A. Affirmations B. Confrontation C. Facilitations D. Direct persuasion E. Instruction
✅ Correct answer: A. Affirmations MI involves the use of micro-counselling skills called OARS O - Open ended questions A - Affirmations (statements recognising the client's strengths) R - Reflections S - Summaries **Motivational interviewing** The model of motivational interviewing (MI) was introduced by William Miller in 1983, and was developed from his experience with alcoholics. It is now an evidence based method used for people with substance misuse problems. It focuses on exploring and resolving ambivalence and centres on the motivational process that facilitates change, and is based on three key elements:- Collaboration (rather than confrontation) Evocation (drawing out rather than imposing ideas) Autonomy (rather than authority) There are four principles of MI:- Express empathy (see it from the client perspective) Support self-efficacy (be positive and recognise previous successes and strengths) Roll with resistance (be impartial and avoid conflict) Develop discrepancy (help client see the discrepancy between current circumstances and future goals)
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Which of the following is true regarding chlordiazepoxide and its use in alcohol withdrawal? A. It has a high potential for addiction compared to other benzodiazepines B. It is absorbed rapidly C. It is highly potent D. It is a good first line treatment E. It has a short half life
✅ Correct answer: D. It is a good first line treatment ⸻ 🎯 High-yield explanation (to the point) 👉 Chlordiazepoxide = long-acting benzodiazepine 👉 FIRST-LINE for alcohol withdrawal (UK practice) ✔ Prevents: • Seizures ⚡ • Delirium tremens 🧠 • Autonomic overactivity ✔ Provides smooth withdrawal due to long half-life ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong (EXAM TRAPS 🚨) • A. High addiction potential ❌ → Not higher than others → In fact, long-acting = lower misuse risk vs short-acting (e.g. alprazolam) • B. Absorbed rapidly ❌ → Not the key feature tested → More important = long-acting • C. Highly potent ❌ → It is actually LOW potency → (Compare: lorazepam = high potency) • E. Short half-life ❌ → WRONG → long half-life = why we use it 💡 Exam pearls 🔥 Alcohol withdrawal = GABA ↓, glutamate ↑ → hyperexcitable brain → Benzos restore GABA tone 🔥 Long-acting benzos: • Smoother detox • Less rebound symptoms 🔥 CIWA-Ar scale often used for severity ⸻ 🧠 Classic exam trigger If you see: • Alcohol withdrawal • Prevent seizures • Detox regimen ➡️ Think: 👉 Chlordiazepoxide (first-line) 👉 Lorazepam if liver disease
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Which of the following is true regarding the pathology of Wernicke’s encephalopathy? A. Cerebral oedema in the prefrontal cortex is a characteristic finding B. The cerebellar vermis is generally spared C. The most affected region is the occipital cortex D. There is hypertrophy of the mammillary bodies E. Midline structures are most affected
✅ Correct answer: E. Midline structures are most affected ⸻ 🎯 High-yield explanation (tight & exam-focused) 👉 Wernicke’s = thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency 👉 Affects high metabolic brain regions 💥 Key concept: MIDLINE STRUCTURES Affected areas: • Mammillary bodies 🧠 • Medial thalamus • Hypothalamus • Periaqueductal grey • Tectal plate 👉 These are midline → high metabolic demand → thiamine dependent ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong (classic traps 🚨) • A. Prefrontal oedema ❌ → Not characteristic → Think midline, NOT cortex • B. Cerebellar vermis spared ❌ → Actually vermis can be involved (esp in alcohol-related damage) • C. Occipital cortex ❌ → No → not typical at all • D. Hypertrophy of mammillary bodies ❌ → WRONG → atrophy (especially in Korsakoff) ⸻ 🚨 ULTRA HIGH-YIELD FACTS (you WILL get tested on these) 🔥 Classic triad (only ~10% patients!): • Confusion 🧠 • Ataxia 🚶‍♂️ • Ophthalmoplegia 👁️ 🔥 Always: 👉 Give IV thiamine BEFORE glucose → Prevents precipitating Wernicke’s 🔥 Progression: • Wernicke’s → Korsakoff syndrome → Memory loss + confabulation 🔥 Mammillary body damage = memory circuit (Papez circuit)
69
Which of the following symptoms is most characteristic of cannabis withdrawal? A. Depersonalisation B. Dry mouth C. Piloerection D. Vivid dreams E. Yawning
✅ Correct answer: D. Vivid dreams ⸻ 🎯 High-yield explanation (to the point) 👉 Cannabis withdrawal = mainly psychological + sleep disturbance 💥 Core features: • Irritability 😤 • Anxiety 😟 • Insomnia 🌙 • Vivid dreams ⭐ (VERY characteristic) • Reduced appetite 👉 Sleep disturbance = exam keyword → vivid dreams ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong (EXAM TRAPS 🚨) • A. Depersonalisation ❌ → Seen in intoxication / anxiety disorders, not classic withdrawal • B. Dry mouth ❌ → Cannabis intoxication (“cotton mouth”), NOT withdrawal • C. Piloerection ❌ → Think opioid withdrawal (“goosebumps”) 🧊 • E. Yawning ❌ → Again opioid withdrawal
70
Methadone is classified as which of the following controlled drug schedules in the UK? A. Schedule 1 B. Schedule 2 C. Schedule 3 D. Schedule 4 E. Schedule 5
✅ Correct answer: B. Schedule 2 ⸻ 🎯 High-yield explanation (tight + exam-focused) 👉 Methadone = Schedule 2 controlled drug (UK) Meaning: • ✔ Recognised medical use • ✔ High potential for abuse • ✔ Strict prescribing rules • ✔ Safe custody required 🔐 Used for: • Opioid substitution therapy (OST) • Detox + maintenance 🧠 UK Controlled Drug Schedules (MRCPsych – HIGH YIELD) Schedule 1 🚫 (No medical use) • ❌ No therapeutic use • 🔒 Cannot be prescribed • 🧪 Research only (Home Office licence) Examples: LSD, MDMA, raw opium ⸻ Schedule 2 🔐 (High control, medical use) • ✔ Prescribable (special CD prescription) • 🔒 Safe custody required • 📖 CD register required Examples: • Morphine, diamorphine • Methadone ⭐ • Cocaine • Fentanyl, pethidine • Methylphenidate • Cannabis-based products (medical) ⸻ Schedule 3 ⚠️ (Moderate control) • ✔ Prescribable • ❌ No CD register required • 🔒 Safe custody usually required Examples: • Benzodiazepines (most) • Temazepam • Buprenorphine • Barbiturates • Flunitrazepam ⸻ Schedule 4 📦 (Low control) • ✔ No special CD prescription • ❌ No safe custody • ❌ No register Split into: • Part 1: Benzos + Z-drugs → Diazepam, zolpidem, zopiclone • Part 2: Anabolic steroids → Testosterone, HCG, etc. ⸻ Schedule 5 💊 (Very low strength) • ✔ OTC / minimal restriction • ❌ No CD requirements Examples: • Low-dose codeine • Dihydrocodeine • Weak morphine preparations
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UK Drug Classes (Misuse of Drugs Act)
🔴 Class A → “Most dangerous” 👉 7 years (possession) Examples: • Cocaine • Heroin • MDMA (ecstasy) • LSD • Methamphetamine • Magic mushrooms • ⚠️ Injected Class B drugs → become Class A ⸻ 🟠 Class B → “Middle tier” 👉 5 years (possession) Examples: • Cannabis • Amphetamines • Ketamine • Codeine (pure) • Barbiturates • Methylphenidate • Synthetic cannabinoids • GHB / GBL ⸻ 🟡 Class C → “Least severe” 👉 2 years (possession) Examples: • Benzodiazepines • Anabolic steroids • Gabapentin / Pregabalin • Khat • Piperazines ⚠️ Important exception: • Anabolic steroids → legal to possess for personal use 🚨 VERY HIGH-YIELD EXAM PEARLS 🔥 1. Class ≠ Schedule • Class = legal penalty • Schedule = prescribing rules 👉 They LOVE to confuse this ⸻ 🔥 2. Cannabis trick • Class B BUT Schedule 2 (medical use allowed) ⸻ 🔥 3. Benzos trick • Class C BUT Schedule 4 👉 Low control clinically, but still illegal misuse ⸻ 🔥 4. Methadone classic SBA • Class A + Schedule 2 👉 High penalty + strict prescribing ⸻ 🔥 5. Ketamine • Class B (commonly tested) 🧠 Ultra-short memory hack 👉 A = 7 years (hard drugs) 👉 B = 5 years (weed + stimulants) 👉 C = 2 years (benzos + meds)
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Which of the following is most associated with chronic ketamine use? A. Cardiac arrhythmias B. Nasal septum damage C. Persistent psychosis D. Serotonin syndrome E. Bladder damage
**Previous Exam Question** 👉 Correct answer: E. Bladder damage ⸻ 🎯 Why this is correct (exam logic) 👉 Chronic ketamine → ketamine-induced cystitis (“ketamine bladder”) • Direct toxic effect on urothelium • Leads to: • Inflammation • Fibrosis • ↓ bladder capacity 🧠 Classic symptoms: • Urgency 🚽 • Frequency • Dysuria • Haematuria • Pelvic pain 👉 Can progress to: • Contracted bladder • Hydronephrosis • Renal damage ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong (VERY exam-y traps) A. Cardiac arrhythmias 👉 Think cocaine / amphetamines, not ketamine ⸻ B. Nasal septum damage 👉 Think cocaine (snorting → ischemia → perforation) ⸻ C. Persistent psychosis 👉 Ketamine can cause acute dissociation/psychosis, BUT ❗ chronic hallmark = bladder toxicity, not psychosis ⸻ D. Serotonin syndrome 👉 Think: • SSRIs + MAOIs • MDMA 👉 NOT ketamine ⸻ 🚨 Ultra-high yield facts (memorise these) 🔥 Ketamine → bladder damage (MOST TESTED) 🔥 Cocaine → nasal septum perforation 🔥 Amphetamines → arrhythmias + psychosis 🔥 MDMA → serotonin syndrome + hyponatraemia 🔥 Opioids → respiratory depression + constipation
73
Regarding alcohol withdrawal, which of the following is true? A. Clonidine is as effective as benzodiazepines B. Oxazepam is contraindicated in liver cirrhosis C. Diazepam is preferred in liver disease D. Clomethiazole is first-line for seizures E. For hallucinations in delirium tremens, haloperidol is the preferred antipsychotic
👉 Correct answer: E ⸻ 🎯 Core concept (VERY IMPORTANT) 👉 Benzodiazepines = FIRST-LINE always 👉 Antipsychotics = ADD-ON only (for agitation/hallucinations) ⸻ ✅ Why E is correct In delirium tremens (DT): • You treat with: • Lorazepam / diazepam → first-line • BUT if: • Severe agitation • Hallucinations 👉 You can add: • Haloperidol ⚠️ Key nuance: • Not first-line • But preferred antipsychotic IF needed ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong (high-yield traps) A. Clonidine = as effective ❌ 👉 WRONG • Clonidine only treats autonomic symptoms • ❗ Does NOT prevent seizures or DT 👉 Benzos are superior ⸻ B. Oxazepam contraindicated ❌ 👉 COMPLETE OPPOSITE 👉 Oxazepam = SAFE in liver disease (because it uses glucuronidation, not oxidation) ⸻ C. Diazepam preferred in liver disease ❌ 👉 WRONG • Diazepam → long half-life → accumulates 👉 Avoid in liver disease ⸻ D. Clomethiazole first-line for seizures ❌ 👉 WRONG (very exam-y) • Benzodiazepines treat seizures • Clomethiazole: • Used in UK inpatient settings • NOT first-line for seizures ⸻ 🚨 ULTRA HIGH-YIELD RULES (memorise these) 🔥 Alcohol withdrawal = 👉 Benzodiazepines (always first-line) 🔥 Liver disease → use: 👉 Lorazepam or Oxazepam (“LOT drugs”) 🔥 Delirium tremens: 👉 Benzos + add haloperidol if needed 🔥 Clonidine / beta-blockers: 👉 Only adjuncts (autonomic symptoms)
74
According to NICE, which intervention is MOST effective at reducing alcohol-related harm? A. Banning multi-buy offers B. Education campaigns C. Reducing sale hours D. Limiting advertising E. Making alcohol less affordable
**Previous Exam Question** 👉 Correct answer: E. Making alcohol less affordable ⸻ 🎯 Core exam concept 👉 Price ↑ → Consumption ↓ → Harm ↓ This is the STRONGEST evidence-based intervention ⸻ ✅ Why this is correct • Increasing price (e.g. Minimum Unit Pricing) • Targets heavy drinkers the most • Leads to: • ↓ overall consumption • ↓ hospital admissions • ↓ deaths 👉 This is population-level intervention with biggest impact
75
Which of the following is true regarding cannabis use? A. Cannabis is the only drug linked to psychosis B. Adolescent use does not increase psychosis risk C. Cannabis does not affect age of onset D. Psychosis only occurs if inhaled E. Age of onset of psychosis is ~2.7 years earlier in cannabis users
**Previous Exam Question** 👉 Correct answer: E ⸻ 🎯 Core concept (must memorise) 👉 Cannabis use → ✅ ↑ risk of psychosis ✅ Earlier onset (~2–3 years earlier) 💡 Exam number: ≈ 2.7 years earlier ⸻ ❌ Why the others are wrong (quick-fire exam logic) A. Only drug causing psychosis ❌ 👉 MANY drugs: • Amphetamines • Cocaine • Steroids • Hallucinogens ⸻ B. No risk in teenagers ❌ 👉 WRONG — BIGGEST risk group • Adolescent brain more vulnerable 🧠 • Especially high-potency THC ⸻ C. No earlier onset ❌ 👉 Opposite is true 👉 Earlier onset is a key exam fact ⸻ D. Only if inhaled ❌ 👉 Route doesn’t matter • Edibles can also cause psychosis
76
A patient tells you that he drinks 3 litres of wine a day and that the wine is 12% (ABV). How many units a week is that?
The correct answer is 252. In the UK, one unit of alcohol is defined as 10 millilitres (8 grams) of pure alcohol. A litre of a drink with 12% Alcohol by Volume (ABV) contains 120 ml of pure alcohol, which equates to 12 units. If the patient drinks 3 litres of wine per day, this amounts to 36 units daily. Over the course of a week (7 days), this would total to 252 units. 👉 Units = Volume (ml) × ABV (%) ÷ 1000 ⸻ 📍 Step 1: Convert litres → ml 3 litres = 3000 ml ⸻ 📍 Step 2: Apply formula (per day) Units per day = 👉 3000 × 12 ÷ 1000 👉 = 36 units/day ⸻ 📍 Step 3: Convert to weekly 👉 36 × 7 = 252 units/week ⸻ ✅ Final answer: 252 units ⸻ 🚨 HIGH-YIELD SHORTCUT (FASTER IN EXAM) 👉 1 litre of 12% wine = 12 units So: • 3 litres = 36 units/day • × 7 days = 252 units/week ⚡ MUCH faster — use this in the exam ⸻ 🧠 Ultra-high yield facts 🔥 1 unit = 10 ml pure alcohol 🔥 Wine (12%) → 1 litre ≈ 12 units 🔥 Beer (4%) → 1 pint ≈ 2 units 🔥 Spirits → 1 shot ≈ 1 unit ⸻ 💡 Examiner trick They LOVE to trap you with: • Daily vs weekly ❗ • Litres vs ml ❗ 👉 Always convert step-by-step
77
What is the lifetime prevalence of suicide in alcohol dependence? A. 2% B. 5% C. 7% D. 10% E. 13%
**Previous Exam Question** 👉 Correct answer: C. 7% ⸻ 🎯 Core fact (must memorise) 👉 Alcohol dependence → ~7% lifetime suicide risk ⸻ 🚨 Why this matters (exam logic) • Alcohol → • Disinhibition • Impulsivity • Depression comorbidity 👉 → Major risk factor for suicide ⸻ 🧠 High-yield comparisons (VERY IMPORTANT) 🔥 General population → ~1% 🔥 Alcohol dependence → ~7% 🔥 Severe depression → ~10–15% 💡 Extra exam pearls 🔥 Always assess suicide risk in: • Alcohol dependence • Withdrawal states • Post-detox period 🔥 Risk ↑ if: • Depression • Social isolation • Physical illness
78
Which of the following is true regarding the treatment of Wernicke’s encephalopathy? A. Oral thiamine should only be used where anaphylaxis facilities exist B. Thiamine should be given after carbohydrate C. 50 mg once daily is sufficient D. Wait for MRI confirmation before treatment E. Parenteral thiamine is preferred over oral
👉 Correct answer: E. Parenteral thiamine is preferred Thiamine 200mg should be given three times daily, preferably via an intravenous route. This should be done before any carbohydrate is given. Prompt treatment is crucial and imaging used to support a diagnosis should not delay this. IV thiamine is preferred to the oral administration. There is a risk of anaphylaxis with IV thiamine and so it should only be given where facilities exist to address this. ⸻ 🎯 Core rule (ABSOLUTE EXAM RULE) 👉 Wernicke’s = IV (or IM) thiamine IMMEDIATELY NOT oral ❌ NOT delayed ❌ ⸻ ✅ Why this is correct • Oral absorption is unreliable in: • Alcohol dependence • Malnutrition 👉 So: • IV/IM thiamine = required
79
Which of the following regions of the brain is the main site of pathology in Korsakoff's syndrome?
The correct answer is the Mamillary bodies. Korsakoff's syndrome, often associated with chronic alcohol abuse, is a neurological disorder that primarily affects the mamillary bodies in the brain. The mamillary bodies are part of the Papez circuit which is involved in memory formation and recall. In Korsakoff's syndrome, due to thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency, there is a bilateral atrophy of the mamillary bodies leading to profound anterograde amnesia and confabulation.
80
In the UK, what is the approximate prevalence of alcohol consumption? A. 50% of men and 40% of women B. 70% of men and 60% of women C. 93% of men and 87% of women D. 30% of men and 25% of women E. Equal prevalence in men and women at 75% ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. 93% of men and 87% of women ⸻ 💡 Explanation: Alcohol use is extremely common in the UK population 👉 Vast majority of adults have consumed alcohol ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts: • Men drink more than women (exam trend) • High prevalence → public health burden • Important for screening in ALL patients
81
In individuals diagnosed with depression, what is the prevalence of current alcohol misuse? A. 5% B. 16% C. 30% D. 60% E. 67% ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. 16% ⸻ 💡 Explanation: 👉 Around 16% current misuse in depression 👉 Lifetime prevalence ≈ 30% 🔥 High-yield facts: • Strong comorbidity: depression + alcohol • Alcohol worsens treatment response • Always screen with AUDIT-C
82
What term describes reduced effectiveness of the same dose of a substance over time, requiring higher doses for the same effect? A. Dependence B. Withdrawal C. Tolerance D. Sensitization E. Cross-tolerance ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Tolerance ⸻ 💡 Explanation: 👉 Tolerance = need ↑ dose for same effect Due to: • Receptor downregulation • Neuroadaptation ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts: • Core feature of dependence syndrome • Opposite = sensitization (reverse tolerance) • Cross-tolerance → similar drugs (e.g. alcohol + benzos)
83
Which substance withdrawal is potentially life-threatening? A. Opioids B. Cocaine C. Alcohol D. Cannabis E. Nicotine ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Alcohol ⸻ 💡 Explanation: 👉 Alcohol withdrawal can cause: • Delirium tremens • Seizures • Autonomic instability → death ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts: • ALSO life-threatening: benzodiazepine withdrawal 🚨 • Opioid withdrawal = uncomfortable but NOT fatal • DTs occur 48–72 hours
84
What is the most effective population-level intervention to reduce alcohol consumption? A. Education campaigns B. Increasing price per unit C. Restricting advertising D. Healthcare warnings E. Treatment programs ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. Increasing price per unit ⸻ 💡 Explanation: 👉 Strongest evidence = price ↑ → consumption ↓ Taxation & minimum unit pricing work best ✔️ ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts: • NICE favourite question 🔥 • Heavy drinkers most affected by price • Education alone = weak effect
85
distinguishes a “lapse” from a “relapse” in addiction treatment? A. Lapse is longer duration B. Relapse is a brief return to use C. Lapse is brief return, relapse is return to previous pattern D. They are synonymous E. Lapse requires hospitalisation ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Lapse is brief return, relapse is return to previous pattern ⸻ 💡 Explanation: • Lapse → single/short slip • Relapse → full return to old pattern ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts: • Lapse ≠ treatment failure ❌ • Important in CBT relapse prevention • Exams LOVE this definition distinction
86
When does uncomplicated alcohol withdrawal typically begin after the last drink? A. Immediately B. 4–12 hours C. 24–48 hours D. 3–4 days E. 1 week ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. 4–12 hours ⸻ 💡 Explanation: 👉 Early withdrawal starts within hours of last drink Due to ↓ GABA + ↑ glutamate (rebound excitation) ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts: • First symptoms: tremor, anxiety, insomnia • Can begin as early as 4 hours • Think: “same day withdrawal”
87
When do alcohol withdrawal symptoms peak? A. 6–12 hours B. 24–36 hours C. 48–72 hours D. 4–5 days E. 1 week ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. 24–36 hours ⸻ 💡 Explanation: 👉 Peak severity = 24–36 hours This is when: • Risk of complications ↑ • Close monitoring needed ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts: • Seizures risk highest around 12–48 hours • Peak = worst agitation, tremor, autonomic signs • Exams LOVE this timing
88
A 45-year-old man with chronic alcohol dependence presents 48 hours after last drink with confusion, disorientation, visual hallucinations of small animals, sweating, and fever. What is the diagnosis? A. Alcoholic hallucinosis B. Wernicke’s encephalopathy C. Delirium tremens D. Korsakoff syndrome E. Alcohol withdrawal seizures ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Delirium tremens ⸻ 💡 Explanation: Classic DT: • Confusion + disorientation • Visual hallucinations (small animals = Lilliputian 👀) • Autonomic instability (fever, sweating) ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts: • Occurs 48–72 hours (up to 5 days) • Medical emergency 🚨 • Mortality if untreated (5-15%) ❌ Hallucinations alone = NOT DT → need confusion ❌ DT = NOT immediate → delayed onset
89
What is the approximate prevalence of delirium tremens among alcohol withdrawal episodes? A. 1% B. 5% C. 15% D. 25% E. 40% ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. 5% ⸻ 💡 Explanation: Delirium tremens (DT) occurs in a small but high-risk subset of withdrawal cases. It’s uncommon but life-threatening, requiring urgent inpatient care. ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts: • DT prevalence = ~5% of withdrawals • Mortality if untreated historically high (5-15%) • Always think: rare but dangerous
90
Which is an indication for inpatient alcohol detoxification? A. First episode of withdrawal B. Adequate social support at home C. Previous history of withdrawal seizures D. Mild dependence without complications E. Young age ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Previous history of withdrawal seizures ⸻ 💡 Explanation: Previous complicated withdrawal (seizures/DT) = HIGH RISK → inpatient detox needed. ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts: Indications for inpatient detox 🚨: • Previous withdrawal seizures or DT • Current confusion/delirium • Severe dependence • Significant physical/mental comorbidity • Poor social support / unsafe home • Wernicke risk (malnutrition) 👉 Exam shortcut: “Complicated withdrawal = admit”
91
What clinical features characterize alcohol withdrawal compared to cocaine withdrawal? A. Alcohol: fatigue, hypersomnia; Cocaine: tremor, sweating B. Alcohol: tremor, sweating, autonomic hyperactivity; Cocaine: fatigue, hypersomnia C. Both show identical symptoms D. Alcohol: vivid dreams; Cocaine: seizures E. Neither causes autonomic symptoms ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. Alcohol: tremor, sweating, autonomic hyperactivity; Cocaine: fatigue, hypersomnia ⸻ 💡 Explanation: 👉 Alcohol withdrawal = hyperexcitable state 👉 Cocaine withdrawal = “crash” (opposite of intoxication) ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts: 🧠 Alcohol withdrawal = ↑ CNS activity • Tremor • Sweating • Tachycardia / hypertension • Seizures / DT 🧠 Cocaine withdrawal = ↓ activity • Fatigue • Hypersomnia • ↑ appetite • Depression 👉 Exam trick: “Alcohol = overdrive, Cocaine = crash”
92
Laboratory investigations of alcohol dependence show all of the following EXCEPT: A. Elevated liver enzymes B. Elevated mean corpuscular volume (MCV) C. Elevated gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) D. Elevated serum bilirubin E. Microcytosis ⸻
✅ Correct answer: E. Microcytosis ⸻ 💡 Explanation: Alcohol dependence causes macrocytosis (↑ MCV) — NOT microcytosis. Why? • Direct toxic effect on bone marrow • Folate deficiency ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts: • ↑ MCV (macrocytosis) = classic alcohol marker • ↑ GGT = most sensitive marker 🍺 • AST > ALT (2:1 ratio) → alcoholic liver disease • ↑ bilirubin → liver dysfunction 👉 Exam trap: Microcytosis = iron deficiency (NOT alcohol)
93
45-year-old man with cirrhosis and alcohol dependence presents with confusion. Which medication is most appropriate for alcohol withdrawal? A. Disulfiram B. Diazepam C. Chlordiazepoxide D. Oxazepam E. Lorazepam ⸻
✅ Correct answer: D. Oxazepam ⸻ 💡 Explanation: In liver disease, use benzodiazepines that undergo phase 2 metabolism (glucuronidation): 👉 Oxazepam (and Lorazepam) Avoid: • Diazepam • Chlordiazepoxide → require hepatic oxidation → accumulation → oversedation ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts: 🧠 “LOT drugs” = safe in liver disease • Lorazepam • Oxazepam • Temazepam 🧠 Long-acting benzos (Diazepam, Chlordiazepoxide): • Preferred in normal liver • Avoid in cirrhosis 🧠 Disulfiram: • NOT for withdrawal ❌ • Used for relapse prevention
94
Which benzodiazepine is preferred for alcohol withdrawal in patients with hepatic impairment? A. Diazepam B. Chlordiazepoxide C. Oxazepam D. Alprazolam E. Clonazepam ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Oxazepam ⸻ 💡 Explanation: Same principle: 👉 Phase 2 metabolism → safer in liver disease Oxazepam: • No active metabolites • Shorter half-life • Reduced accumulation risk ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts: • Oxazepam = best exam answer for liver disease • Lorazepam = also correct clinically, but exams LOVE oxazepam • Avoid long-acting benzos in cirrhosis
95
What is the safest method for benzodiazepine withdrawal? A. Abrupt cessation B. Rapid taper over 1 week C. Gradual dose reduction over 6–12 weeks D. Switching to alcohol E. No taper needed ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Gradual dose reduction over 6–12 weeks ⸻ 💡 Explanation: Benzodiazepine withdrawal can be life-threatening (seizures, delirium) → must taper slowly. Standard approach: • Convert to diazepam equivalent (long-acting) • Reduce by 10–25% every 1–2 weeks ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts: • Abrupt stop → seizures ⚠️ • Use diazepam substitution for smoother taper • Duration: 6–12 weeks (or longer if dependent) • Symptoms: anxiety, tremor, insomnia, seizures 👉 Exam pearl: “Benzos = taper slowly or they seize”
96
A patient presents with altered mental state and oculomotor abnormalities. According to EFNS criteria, which additional finding supports Wernicke’s encephalopathy diagnosis? A. History of Vitamin C deficiency B. Cerebellar dysfunction C. Seizures D. Hypertension E. Muscle weakness ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. Cerebellar dysfunction ⸻ 🧠 EFNS Diagnostic Criteria (HIGH-YIELD) Diagnosis requires ≥2 of the following: 1. Dietary deficiency (e.g. alcoholism, malnutrition) 2. Oculomotor abnormalities (nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia) 3. Cerebellar dysfunction (ataxia) 4. Altered mental state or memory impairment ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts: • Classic triad: Confusion Ataxia Ophthalmoplegia • But triad present in <20% → don’t rely on it 👉 Exam trick: Ataxia = cerebellar dysfunction = key criterion
97
A 52-year-old male presents with confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia with nystagmus and bilateral abducens nerve palsy. He has chronic alcohol abuse history. What is the most appropriate initial treatment? A. Folic acid B. Vitamin B6 C. Vitamin B12 D. Vitamin C E. Thiamine ⸻
✅ Correct answer: E. Thiamine ⸻ 💡 Explanation: This is Wernicke’s encephalopathy → emergency. 👉 Give IV thiamine immediately BEFORE glucose Why? • Glucose worsens thiamine deficiency → can precipitate Wernicke’s ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts: • Always: THIAMINE FIRST, then glucose 🚨 • Dose: IV high-dose (e.g. 200 mg TDS) • Prevents Korsakoff syndrome (irreversible) 👉 Exam trap: Giving glucose first = WRONG ❌
98
In Wernicke’s encephalopathy, neuronal loss and haemorrhagic lesions occur in which brain area? A. Frontal lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Periventricular and periaqueductal areas E. Parietal lobe ⸻
✅ Correct answer: D. Periventricular and periaqueductal areas ⸻ 💡 Explanation: Wernicke’s encephalopathy affects **midline brain structures**, especially: • Periventricular regions • Periaqueductal grey • Mammillary bodies (most famous) • Thalamus These areas are highly metabolically active → vulnerable to thiamine deficiency ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts: • Mammillary bodies = classic exam answer 🧠 • Also involves: Thalamus Brainstem nuclei (eye movement → ophthalmoplegia) 👉 Exam trick: “Wernicke = midline structures”
99
In Korsakoff syndrome, which type of memory is most affected? A. Working memory B. Implicit memory C. Semantic memory D. Episodic memory E. Procedural memory ⸻
✅ Correct answer: D. Episodic memory ⸻ 💡 Explanation: Korsakoff syndrome causes: 👉 Severe impairment of episodic (autobiographical) memory • Anterograde amnesia → can’t form new memories • Retrograde amnesia → loss of past events BUT: • Procedural memory preserved • Working memory often relatively intact ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts: • Korsakoff = memory disorder (NOT global dementia) • Confabulation = hallmark feature • Caused by damage to: Mammillary bodies Thalamus 👉 Exam pearl: “Can’t remember life events, but can still perform tasks”
100
What is a characteristic feature of confabulation in Korsakoff syndrome? A. Intentional lying B. Momentary confabulations occur in response to memory challenges C. Only occurs during intoxication D. Associated with frontal lobe preservation E. Improves with alcohol use ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. Momentary confabulations occur in response to memory challenges ⸻ 💡 Explanation: Confabulation in Korsakoff is: 👉 Unintentional (NOT lying ❌) 👉 Patient cannot form new memories, so the brain “fills in the gaps” Two types: • Momentary confabulation → triggered when asked questions • Spontaneous confabulation → more severe, linked to frontal damage 🧠 Example: You ask: 👉 “What did you do this morning?” Patient says: 👉 “I went to work and had meetings” (when in reality they’ve been in hospital) ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts: • Confabulation = false memories without intent to deceive • Strongly linked to: Frontal lobe dysfunction (orbitofrontal) • Seen in: Korsakoff syndrome Frontal lobe lesions 👉 Exam trap: ❌ “Intentional lying” → WRONG ✔️ It’s unconscious gap-filling ⚠️ Important distinctions: • ❌ Not lying → no awareness of falsity • ❌ Not delusion → not fixed belief, can change • ❌ Not hallucination → not perceptual
101
According to Smith and Hillman’s prognostication, what percentage of individuals with Alcohol-Related Brain Damage (ARBD) make a complete recovery? A. 10% B. 25% C. 50% D. 75% E. 100% ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. 25% ⸻ 💡 Explanation: Outcomes in ARBD are roughly split: • 25% → complete recovery • 25% → significant recovery • 25% → slight recovery • 25% → no recovery ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts: • ARBD outcomes = “rule of quarters” (25% each) • Early treatment (thiamine) improves prognosis • Many patients have chronic deficits 👉 Exam pearl: “ARBD = 25% fully recover”
102
What is the most common radiological finding in alcohol-related dementia? A. Focal lesions B. Generalized cortical atrophy C. White matter hyperintensities only D. Normal imaging E. Cerebellar atrophy only ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. Generalized cortical atrophy ⸻ 💡 Explanation: Chronic alcohol use leads to: 👉 Diffuse brain atrophy, especially: • Frontal lobes (executive dysfunction) • Limbic structures Not just focal or isolated changes → generalized pattern ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts: • Frontal lobe predominance → poor planning, disinhibition • Also: • Ventricular enlargement • Reduced white matter volume 👉 Exam pearl: “Alcohol → diffuse cortical (especially frontal) atrophy”
103
Marchiafava-Bignami syndrome specifically affects which brain structure? A. Hippocampus B. Corpus callosum C. Cerebellum D. Basal ganglia E. Pons ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. Corpus callosum ⸻ 💡 Explanation: Marchiafava-Bignami syndrome = rare complication of chronic alcoholism: 👉 Demyelination + necrosis of corpus callosum ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts: • Seen in chronic alcoholics (classically red wine) 🍷 • Symptoms: Dementia Dysarthria Spasticity Gait disturbance 👉 Exam pearl: “Alcohol + corpus callosum = Marchiafava-Bignami”
104
Wilson et al.’s (2012) model for ARBD intervention includes all of the following stages EXCEPT: A. Physical stabilization with thiamine treatment B. Assessment phase for nutrition and recovery C. Therapeutic intervention using CBT techniques D. Immediate return to work E. Social integration phase ⸻
✅ Correct answer: D. Immediate return to work ⸻ 💡 Explanation: Wilson’s 5-stage model: 1. Physical stabilization (thiamine, detox) 2. Assessment phase (nutrition, recovery ~3 months) 3. Therapeutic intervention (CBT, ~3 years) 4. Adjustment phase (psychosocial support) 5. Social integration (relapse prevention) 👉 “Immediate return to work” is unrealistic and NOT part of structured rehab. ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts: • ARBD recovery = slow, staged process • Heavy focus on: • Nutrition • Cognitive rehab • Psychosocial support 👉 Exam pearl: “ARBD = long rehab, NOT rapid recovery”
105
A chronic alcohol user presents with executive dysfunction including impaired decision-making, planning, and problem-solving, but relatively preserved memory. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Korsakoff syndrome B. Wernicke’s encephalopathy C. Dysexecutive syndrome D. Delirium tremens E. Cerebellar ataxia ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Dysexecutive syndrome ⸻ 💡 Explanation: This is frontal lobe dysfunction from chronic alcohol use: 👉 Impaired: • Planning • Decision-making • Problem-solving 👉 BUT memory relatively preserved → NOT Korsakoff ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts: • Dysexecutive syndrome = frontal lobe damage • Korsakoff = episodic memory loss (key difference!) • Alcohol damages: • Frontal lobes → executive dysfunction • Limbic system → memory 👉 Exam pearl: “Executive problem = frontal lobe, not memory disorder”
106
Disulfiram is contraindicated in which condition? A. Diabetes B. Cardiac failure C. Hypertension D. Depression E. Anxiety ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. Cardiac failure ⸻ 💡 Explanation: Disulfiram + alcohol → severe reaction: • Hypotension • Arrhythmias • Cardiovascular collapse 👉 Dangerous in cardiac disease ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts: • Disulfiram also contraindicated in: • Severe liver disease • Psychosis • Mechanism: 👉 Inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase → ↑ acetaldehyde 👉 Exam pearl: “Disulfiram stresses the heart → avoid in cardiac disease”
107
Is naltrexone contraindicated with opioid use? ⸻
✅ Correct answer: YES — absolutely contraindicated 🚫 ⸻ 💡 Explanation: Naltrexone is a pure opioid antagonist (blocks μ-opioid receptors). 👉 If you give it to someone taking opioids: • It displaces opioids from receptors • Causes acute precipitated withdrawal ⸻ ⚠️ What happens clinically? • Severe agitation • Pain • Sweating • Vomiting • Tachycardia 👉 Can be very distressing and dangerous ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B facts: • Naltrexone = opioid receptor antagonist • Must be: 👉 Opioid-free for 7–10 days before starting • Contraindicated in: • Current opioid use 🚫 • Acute opioid withdrawal 🚫 ⸻ 🧠 Comparison (VERY EXAM-IMPORTANT) 👉 Alcohol relapse prevention drugs: • Naltrexone • ❌ opioids • ↓ reward from alcohol • Acamprosate • ✅ safe with opioids • ↓ craving (glutamate modulation) • Disulfiram • ❌ cardiac disease • ❌ liver disease ⸻ 🚨 Exam trap: 👉 Patient on: • Codeine / co-codamol / methadone / heroin ❌ DO NOT give naltrexone ✔️ Choose acamprosate instead
108
Marchiafava-Bignami syndrome specifically affects which brain structure? A. Hippocampus B. Corpus callosum C. Cerebellum D. Basal ganglia E. Pons ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. Corpus callosum ⸻ 💡 Explanation: Marchiafava-Bignami syndrome = rare complication of chronic alcoholism: 👉 Demyelination + necrosis of corpus callosum ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts: • Seen in chronic alcoholics (classically red wine) 🍷 • Symptoms: • Dementia • Dysarthria • Spasticity • Gait disturbance 👉 Exam pearl: “Alcohol + corpus callosum = Marchiafava-Bignami”
109
Wilson et al.’s (2012) model for ARBD intervention includes all of the following stages EXCEPT: A. Physical stabilization with thiamine treatment B. Assessment phase for nutrition and recovery C. Therapeutic intervention using CBT techniques D. Immediate return to work E. Social integration phase ⸻
✅ Correct answer: D. Immediate return to work ⸻ 💡 Explanation: Wilson’s 5-stage model: 1. Physical stabilization (thiamine, detox) 2. Assessment phase (nutrition, recovery ~3 months) 3. Therapeutic intervention (CBT, ~3 years) 4. Adjustment phase (psychosocial support) 5. Social integration (relapse prevention) 👉 “Immediate return to work” is unrealistic and NOT part of structured rehab. ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts: • ARBD recovery = slow, staged process • Heavy focus on: • Nutrition • Cognitive rehab • Psychosocial support 👉 Exam pearl: “ARBD = long rehab, NOT rapid recovery”
110
A chronic alcohol user presents with executive dysfunction including impaired decision-making, planning, and problem-solving, but relatively preserved memory. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Korsakoff syndrome B. Wernicke’s encephalopathy C. Dysexecutive syndrome D. Delirium tremens E. Cerebellar ataxia ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Dysexecutive syndrome ⸻ 💡 Explanation: This is frontal lobe dysfunction from chronic alcohol use: 👉 Impaired: • Planning • Decision-making • Problem-solving 👉 BUT memory relatively preserved → NOT Korsakoff ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts: • Dysexecutive syndrome = frontal lobe damage • Korsakoff = episodic memory loss (key difference!) • Alcohol damages: • Frontal lobes → executive dysfunction • Limbic system → memory 👉 Exam pearl: “Executive problem = frontal lobe, not memory disorder”
111
Disulfiram is contraindicated in which condition? A. Diabetes B. Cardiac failure C. Hypertension D. Depression E. Anxiety ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. Cardiac failure ⸻ 💡 Explanation: Disulfiram + alcohol → severe reaction: • Hypotension • Arrhythmias • Cardiovascular collapse 👉 Dangerous in cardiac disease ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts: • Disulfiram also contraindicated in: • Severe liver disease • Psychosis • Mechanism: 👉 Inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase → ↑ acetaldehyde 👉 Exam pearl: “Disulfiram stresses the heart → avoid in cardiac disease”
112
An alcohol-dependent patient has completed detox, has cardiac problems, and is on co-codamol for pain. Which medication is most appropriate for maintaining abstinence? A. Disulfiram B. Naltrexone C. Acamprosate D. Baclofen E. Nalmefene ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Acamprosate ⸻ 💡 Explanation: This question is testing contraindications logic 🔥 • Naltrexone ❌ → contraindicated with opioids (co-codamol) • Disulfiram ❌ → contraindicated in cardiac disease • 👉 Leaves Acamprosate ✔️ Mechanism: • Modulates glutamate (NMDA) → reduces craving ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts: • Acamprosate = safest option in many comorbidities • Naltrexone → avoid if opioids 🚫 • Disulfiram → avoid cardiac + liver disease 👉 Exam trick: Eliminate based on contraindications → pick safest remaining ⸻ 🚨 ULTRA-HIGH-YIELD MINI-SUMMARY • Frontal dysfunction → dysexecutive syndrome • Disulfiram → ❌ cardiac disease • Naltrexone → ❌ opioids • Acamprosate → ✅ safest default
113
What is the mechanism of action of naltrexone in alcohol dependence? A. GABA agonist B. Opioid receptor antagonist C. Glutamate modulator D. Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase inhibitor E. Dopamine antagonist ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. Opioid receptor antagonist ⸻ 💡 Explanation: Naltrexone works by blocking μ-opioid receptors, which: • Reduces dopamine release in the reward pathway • Decreases the euphoric effect of alcohol • Leads to reduced craving + relapse prevention 👉 Alcohol partly acts via endogenous opioids → dopamine reward system 👉 Naltrexone interrupts this pathway ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong: • A. GABA agonist → that’s benzodiazepines / alcohol itself • C. Glutamate modulator → that’s acamprosate • D. Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase inhibitor → that’s disulfiram • E. Dopamine antagonist → antipsychotics, not used here ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B facts: • Naltrexone: • ↓ reward (not aversion) • ↓ craving + heavy drinking days • Works in: 👉 Alcohol dependence 👉 Opioid dependence (relapse prevention) • Must: 👉 Be opioid-free 7–10 days (or → precipitated withdrawal 🚨)
114
Naltrexone helps with relapse prevention in which conditions? A. Alcohol only B. Opioids only C. Both alcohol and opioid dependence D. Cannabis only E. Stimulant dependence only ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Both alcohol and opioid dependence ⸻ 💡 Explanation: Naltrexone blocks opioid receptors → reduces: • Alcohol reward (via endogenous opioids) • Opioid effects directly 👉 Therefore used in BOTH conditions ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong: • A / B → incomplete • D / E → no role ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B facts: • Alcohol: 👉 ↓ craving + relapse • Opioids: 👉 Prevents relapse ONLY after detox 🚫 Not used in: • Active opioid use • Withdrawal phase
115
What is the mechanism of disulfiram in alcohol dependence treatment? A. Blocks opioid receptors B. Inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase C. Modulates glutamate D. Enhances GABA E. Blocks dopamine receptors ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. Inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase ⸻ 💡 Explanation: Disulfiram blocks aldehyde dehydrogenase, leading to: 👉 ↑ acetaldehyde when alcohol is consumed → toxic accumulation This causes: • Flushing • Nausea • Vomiting • Palpitations 👉 Creates aversion to alcohol ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong: • A → naltrexone • C → acamprosate • D → benzos • E → antipsychotics ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B facts: • Disulfiram = aversion therapy • Requires: 👉 Motivated patient • Contraindicated in: 👉 Cardiac disease 👉 Severe liver disease
116
Early signs of opioid withdrawal include: A. Pinpoint pupils, sedation, constipation B. Piloerection, anxiety, abdominal cramps C. Euphoria, decreased pain, itching D. Hypersomnia, increased appetite, vivid dreams E. Tremor, sweating, tachycardia ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. Piloerection, anxiety, abdominal cramps ⸻ 💡 Explanation: Early opioid withdrawal = sympathetic overactivity Key early features: • Anxiety 😰 • Piloerection (“goosebumps”) • Abdominal cramps • Yawning • Lacrimation • Rhinorrhoea 👉 Later features: • Diarrhoea • Muscle aches • Dilated pupils ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong: • A → opioid intoxication (miosis, sedation, constipation) • C → opioid effect (not withdrawal) • D → cocaine withdrawal • E → autonomic features but less specific than B ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B facts: • Opioid withdrawal = NOT life-threatening (unlike alcohol 🚨) • Pupils: 👉 Dilated in withdrawal 👉 Pinpoint in overdose • Timeline: 👉 Short-acting (heroin): starts 6–12 hrs
117
What are the classic signs of opioid overdose? A. Dilated pupils, tachycardia, agitation B. Pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression, decreased consciousness C. Normal pupils, seizures, hyperthermia D. Nystagmus, ataxia, slurred speech E. Tremor, hypertension, tachycardia ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. Pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression, decreased consciousness ⸻ 💡 Explanation: Classic opioid overdose triad: 👉 Miosis (pinpoint pupils) 👉 Respiratory depression 👉 Reduced consciousness 🚨 This is a medical emergency ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong: • A → stimulant intoxication • C → not opioid • D → alcohol/benzo intoxication • E → withdrawal state ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B facts: • Treatment: 👉 Naloxone (short-acting opioid antagonist) • May need: 👉 Repeated doses (short half-life) • Always: 👉 Airway + breathing first (ABCDE)
118
A patient is hospitalized and found hypotensive, unresponsive, and bradycardic. What should be given first? A. Naloxone B. Naltrexone C. Flumazenil D. Atropine E. Adrenaline ⸻
✅ Correct answer: A. Naloxone ⸻ 💡 Explanation: This presentation = opioid toxicity 👉 Naloxone: • Rapidly reverses respiratory depression • Short-acting → may need repeat dosing ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong: • B. Naltrexone → long-acting → NOT for acute overdose • C. Flumazenil → benzo overdose (⚠️ seizure risk) • D. Atropine → bradycardia only, not cause • E. Adrenaline → cardiac arrest context ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B facts: • Naloxone: 👉 Works within minutes 👉 Can precipitate acute withdrawal • Naltrexone: 👉 Relapse prevention ONLY 🚨 EXAM TRAP: 👉 Naloxone = emergency 👉 Naltrexone = maintenance
119
A 2-hour-old newborn is very irritable, restless, tremulous, and crying inconsolably. Which maternal substance use is most likely? A. Heroin B. Nicotine C. Cocaine D. Cannabis E. Alcohol ⸻
✅ Correct answer: A. Heroin ⸻ 💡 Explanation: This is neonatal opioid withdrawal (NAS) Key features: • Irritability • High-pitched cry • Tremors • Poor feeding • Diarrhoea 👉 Occurs within hours after birth (if maternal opioid use) ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong: • Nicotine → mild irritability only • Cocaine → neurobehavioural issues, not classic withdrawal • Cannabis → minimal neonatal withdrawal • Alcohol → fetal alcohol syndrome (not acute withdrawal like this) ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B facts: • NAS = opioid withdrawal in newborn • Treatment: 👉 Morphine or methadone (taper) • Timing: 👉 Heroin → early onset (hours) 👉 Methadone → later onset (1–3 days)
120
What distinguishes heroin withdrawal in newborns from cocaine withdrawal in newborns? A. Identical presentations B. Heroin: high-pitched crying, tremors; Cocaine: jitteriness, overarousal C. Cocaine causes more severe withdrawal D. Heroin withdrawal is asymptomatic E. Neither causes neonatal withdrawal ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. Heroin: high-pitched crying, tremors; Cocaine: jitteriness, overarousal ⸻ 💡 Explanation: 👉 Heroin (opioid) → TRUE withdrawal (NAS): • High-pitched cry • Tremors • Irritability • Feeding difficulty • Diarrhoea 👉 Cocaine → NOT true withdrawal (toxicity/exposure): • Jitteriness • Overarousal • Tachypnoea • Vomiting 📌 Key distinction: • Opioids = withdrawal syndrome • Cocaine = neurostimulation/toxicity ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong: • A → incorrect (presentations differ clearly) • C → opioid withdrawal is more classic/severe • D → heroin withdrawal is VERY symptomatic • E → opioids definitely cause neonatal withdrawal ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B facts: • NAS = opioid withdrawal in neonates • Onset: 👉 Heroin → within hours 👉 Methadone → 1–3 days • Treatment: 👉 Morphine/methadone taper
121
What is the drug of choice for opioid substitution treatment? A. Naloxone B. Naltrexone C. Methadone D. Codeine E. Tramadol ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Methadone ⸻ 💡 Explanation: Methadone = long-acting full μ-opioid agonist 👉 Used for: • Maintenance therapy • Reducing cravings • Preventing withdrawal • Harm reduction ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong: • A (Naloxone) → overdose reversal • B (Naltrexone) → relapse prevention only • D/E → not standard substitution therapy ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B facts: • Methadone: 👉 Full agonist 👉 Long half-life • Alternative: 👉 Buprenorphine (partial agonist) • Goal: 👉 Stabilise → reduce illicit opioid use
122
A patient on methadone maintenance therapy reports persistent cravings and mild withdrawal symptoms. What is the most appropriate next step? A. Discontinue methadone immediately B. Optimize the dose of methadone C. Switch to buprenorphine immediately D. Start naltrexone E. Refer for inpatient detoxification ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. Optimize the dose of methadone ⸻ 💡 Explanation: Persistent cravings/withdrawal = dose too low 👉 First step: ➡️ Increase/optimise methadone dose ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong: • A → dangerous (withdrawal + relapse) • C → not first-line if methadone still effective • D → requires full detox (not now) • E → unnecessary ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B facts: • Methadone dosing: 👉 Aim = no cravings + no withdrawal • If symptoms persist: 👉 Dose too low (EXAM GOLD ⚡)
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Opioids vs Cocaine
🔴 Opioids (e.g. heroin, morphine, methadone): • Act on μ-opioid receptors • Effects: Analgesia Euphoria Respiratory depression •Pinpoint pupils (miosis) ⸻ 🔵 Cocaine (completely different class): • Stimulant • Mechanism: 👉 Blocks reuptake of dopamine, noradrenaline, serotonin • Effects: Euphoria Increased energy Dilated pupils (mydriasis) Tachycardia, hypertension 🔥 High-yield Paper B facts: • Opioid overdose triad: 👉 Miosis + respiratory depression + ↓ consciousness • Cocaine toxicity: 👉 Agitation + hypertension + hyperthermia • Withdrawal difference: 👉 Opioids → physical (painful but not fatal) 👉 Cocaine → psychological (crash: depression, hypersomnia) 👉 “Opioids slow you down — cocaine speeds you up.”
124
Why is buprenorphine safer than methadone regarding respiratory depression? A. It is a full agonist B. It has no opioid activity C. It is a partial agonist with ceiling effect D. It is an antagonist E. It has shorter half-life ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. It is a partial agonist with ceiling effect ⸻ 💡 Explanation: Buprenorphine = partial μ-opioid agonist 👉 Key concept: • Has a ceiling effect on respiratory depression • Beyond a certain dose → no further respiratory suppression 👉 Methadone: • Full agonist • No ceiling → higher overdose risk 🚨 ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong: • A → methadone (full agonist) • B → incorrect (it DOES have opioid activity) • D → not purely antagonist • E → not the key safety factor ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B facts: • Buprenorphine: 👉 Partial agonist 👉 Safer in overdose • Methadone: 👉 Full agonist 👉 Higher overdose risk 🚨 EXAM TRAP: 👉 “Ceiling effect” = buprenorphine
125
A patient has been tried on methadone and buprenorphine for heroin addiction but neither worked. What is the next best option? A. Injectable buprenorphine B. Clonidine C. Optimized oral methadone D. Injectable methadone E. Naltrexone ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Optimized oral methadone ⸻ 💡 Explanation: Before escalating → always check: 👉 Was the dose adequate? Persistent use/cravings often = ➡️ Subtherapeutic methadone dose So: 👉 First step = optimize dose (increase / supervised dosing) ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong: • A/D → specialist settings ONLY after optimisation • B → symptomatic withdrawal treatment only • E → requires detox (not suitable here) ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B facts: • If treatment “fails”: 👉 First think dose issue ⚡ • Injectable opioids: 👉 Last-line / specialist only
126
In pregnant women requiring opioid maintenance treatment, what is the drug of choice? A. Buprenorphine B. Naltrexone C. Suboxone D. Clonidine E. Methadone ⸻
✅ Correct answer: E. Methadone ⸻ 💡 Explanation: Methadone is first-line in pregnancy because: 👉 Most evidence 👉 Stabilizes maternal opioid levels 👉 Reduces: • Withdrawal • Illicit use • Fetal stress ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong: • A → buprenorphine = alternative (NOT first-line in exams) • B → naltrexone requires detox • C → contains naloxone (avoid) • D → not maintenance therapy ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B facts: • Pregnancy + opioid dependence: 👉 Methadone = gold standard • Avoid: 👉 Withdrawal → risk to fetus 🚨
127
A pregnant woman with opioid dependence presents at 6 weeks gestation. What is the most appropriate management? A. Immediate detoxification B. Refer to local service for substitution treatment C. Continue illicit use until delivery D. Start naltrexone E. Prescribe high-dose diazepam ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. Refer to local service for substitution treatment ⸻ 💡 Explanation: 👉 In pregnancy: • Opioid substitution therapy (OST) = standard of care → Methadone (first-line) → Buprenorphine (alternative) 🚨 DO NOT detox: • Risk of: • Fetal distress • Miscarriage • Preterm labour ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong: • A → dangerous (withdrawal harms fetus 🚨) • C → unsafe • D → requires detox first • E → irrelevant ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B facts: • Pregnancy + opioid use: 👉 Methadone = gold standard • Principle: 👉 Stability > abstinence during pregnancy
128
A patient on methadone 5 mg wants to maintain abstinence after stopping methadone. What medication is appropriate for relapse prevention? A. Naloxone B. Naltrexone C. Buprenorphine D. Codeine E. Tramadol ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. Naltrexone ⸻ 💡 Explanation: 👉 Naltrexone: • Opioid antagonist • Blocks euphoric effects → prevents relapse 🚨 Important: • Must be fully detoxed first • Otherwise → precipitated withdrawal ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong: • A → emergency overdose reversal only • C → maintenance therapy, not post-detox relapse prevention • D/E → opioids → not relapse prevention ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B facts: • Naltrexone: 👉 Used AFTER detox only • Key exam phrase: 👉 “maintain abstinence” = naltrexone
129
What is the appropriate advice for managing a patient on chronic dihydrocodeine who wants to stop? A. Continue indefinitely B. Discontinue abruptly C. Gradually taper to minimize withdrawal D. Switch to higher dose E. Replace with another opioid ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Gradually taper to minimize withdrawal ⸻ 💡 Explanation: 👉 Chronic opioid use → dependence Stopping suddenly: • Causes withdrawal symptoms • Very uncomfortable (but not life-threatening) 👉 Therefore: ➡️ Gradual taper is safest approach ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong: • A → no attempt to stop • B → withdrawal symptoms • D → worsens dependence • E → unnecessary ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B facts: • Opioid withdrawal: 👉 Not fatal but distressing • Always: 👉 Taper slowly
130
What routine screening is recommended for patients in drug treatment services? A. Only blood pressure monitoring B. Screen for Hepatitis C, HIV if required C. No screening needed D. Only urine drug screening E. Cognitive assessment only ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. Screen for Hepatitis C, HIV if required ⸻ 💡 Explanation: 👉 Patients in drug services (especially IV drug users) are at high risk of: • Hepatitis B & C • HIV 👉 Therefore routine screening for blood-borne viruses (BBVs) is essential Also: • Provide harm reduction advice • Vaccinate for Hep B if needed ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong: • A → too limited • C → unsafe • D → not enough (misses BBVs) • E → irrelevant ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B facts: • IV drug use → BBV risk 🚨 • Always think: 👉 Hep B, Hep C, HIV • Harm reduction: 👉 Needle exchange + education
131
What is the primary reason for urine drug screening in addiction treatment? A. Legal compliance B. Detecting novel drugs C. Monitoring treatment effectiveness D. Punishment for use E. Insurance requirements ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Monitoring treatment effectiveness ⸻ 💡 Explanation: Urine drug screens are used to: 👉 Objectively assess: • Adherence • Abstinence • Relapse 👉 Purpose is therapeutic, NOT punitive ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong: • A/E → secondary reasons • B → not primary purpose • D → ❌ big exam trap → NEVER punitive ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B facts: • Urine testing: 👉 Clinical tool, not punishment ⚡ • Helps: 👉 Detect relapse early 👉 Guide treatment adjustments
132
A patient using heroin after one week of abstinence represents: A. Lapse B. Relapse C. Normal recovery process D. Treatment failure E. Pseudoaddiction ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. Relapse ⸻ 💡 Explanation: 👉 Definitions (VERY EXAM HIGH-YIELD): • Lapse: 👉 Brief, isolated use • Relapse: 👉 Return to previous pattern of use 👉 Here: • 1 week abstinence → then heroin use → ➡️ suggests return to pattern → RELAPSE ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong: • A → too mild (single brief use) • C → incorrect • D → too absolute • E → pain-related behaviour ⸻ 🔥 High-yield Paper B facts: • Lapse vs relapse = classic exam question ⚡ • Key distinction: 👉 Pattern vs isolated event
133
Which of the following is TRUE regarding alcohol misuse in the UK? A. Alcohol consumption is low compared to other European countries B. The highest levels of binge drinking occur in people aged 16–24 C. Rates of alcoholic liver disease are falling D. Binge drinking is more common in women than men E. Alcohol dependence is more common in women than men ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. The highest levels of binge drinking occur in people aged 16–24 ⸻ 💡 Why this is correct: 👉 UK epidemiology consistently shows: • Peak binge drinking = young adults (16–24) • This group has: Highest episodic heavy drinking Social drinking patterns (weekends, nightlife) 👉 This is VERY HIGH-YIELD exam fact Binge drinking refers to a pattern of drinking that brings blood alcohol concentration (BAC) levels to 0.08 g/dL; this typically occurs after consuming five or more drinks (for men), or four or more drinks (for women), in about two hours.
134
Which of the following bladder problems is most associated with chronic ketamine use? A. Neurogenic bladder B. Overactive bladder syndrome C. Bladder outlet obstruction D. Cystocele E. Bladder fibrosis ⸻
✅ Correct answer: E. Bladder fibrosis ⸻ 💡 Why this is correct (EXAM CORE) 👉 Chronic ketamine → Ketamine-induced cystitis This leads to: • Chronic inflammation 🚨 • Ulceration • ↓ bladder capacity • → fibrosis (scarring) 👉 End result = “contracted fibrotic bladder” ⸻ 🧠 Pathophysiology (they LOVE this) Ketamine metabolites in urine → ➡️ direct urothelial toxicity ➡️ chronic inflammation ➡️ fibrosis + thickened bladder wall ⸻ 🚨 Clinical picture (VERY TESTABLE) Patients present with: • Severe LUTS: • Frequency • Urgency • Dysuria • Pelvic pain • Haematuria • ↓ bladder capacity (tiny bladder!) 👉 Think: “painful, small bladder” 🔥 ULTRA HIGH-YIELD PEARL 👉 If you see: • Young person • LUTS + pelvic pain • History of recreational drugs 💥 → Think KETAMINE → fibrosis
135
Which drug enhances the release of serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine by reversing their transporters? A. Cocaine B. Amphetamine C. MDMA D. Ketamine E. GHB ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. Amphetamine ⸻ 💡 Core concept (THIS is what they’re testing) 👉 There are TWO key mechanisms for stimulants: 1️⃣ Reuptake BLOCKERS (don’t release) 👉 e.g. Cocaine • Blocks DAT, NET, SERT • ↑ neurotransmitters by preventing reuptake ❌ NO transporter reversal ⸻ 2️⃣ RELEASERS (reverse transporters) 👉 e.g. Amphetamine 🔥 • Enters neuron via transporter • Reverses DAT, NET, SERT • Pushes neurotransmitters OUT into synapse ⚠️ What about MDMA? (Important nuance) 👉 MDMA ALSO: • Causes serotonin release • Has some transporter reversal BUT: • Exam answer for “classic transporter reversal of all monoamines” = Amphetamine 👉 MDMA = more serotonin-heavy + emotional effects ⸻ ❌ Others quickly: • Ketamine → NMDA antagonist • GHB → GABA-B agonist
136
For chronic heavy users of cannabis, how long can it be detected in urine after last use? A. 3 hours B. 24 hours C. 3 days D. 5 days E. 30 days ⸻
✅ Correct answer: E. 30 days ⸻ 💡 Why this is correct (core concept) 👉 Cannabis (THC) is: • Highly lipophilic 🧈 • Stored in fat tissue • Released slowly over time ➡️ Leads to prolonged detection 👉 Urine detects: • THC-COOH (inactive metabolite) ⚠️ Exam trick They LOVE comparing: 👉 Occasional vs chronic • Occasional → 3 days • Chronic → 30 days 💥 This is a classic differentiation question
137
According to the National Treatment Outcomes Research Study (NTORS), what is the most common crime in those with drug dependence? A. Fraud B. Actual bodily harm C. Criminal damage D. Vehicle-related theft E. Shoplifting ⸻
✅ Correct answer: E. Shoplifting ⸻ 💡 Why this is correct (EXAM LOGIC) 👉 NTORS shows: ➡️ Most common crime = SHOPLIFTING Why? • Quick • Low planning • Immediate reward • Directly funds drug use 👉 Think: 💥 “Need drug → need money fast → steal small items” ⸻ 🧠 Underlying pattern (HIGH-YIELD) Drug dependence → ➡️ Financial pressure ➡️ Impulsivity ➡️ Opportunistic crime 👉 → Shoplifting > other crimes ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong ❌ Fraud • Requires planning • Less immediate • Not typical for dependent users ⸻ ❌ Actual bodily harm • Violence is NOT the most common • Substance use → more acquisitive crime than violent crime ⸻ ❌ Criminal damage • Occurs, but not the most frequent ⸻ ❌ Vehicle theft • Seen (esp. heroin users), but still < shoplifting ⸻ 🔥 ULTRA HIGH-YIELD PEARLS 🧠 In substance misuse: • Most common crime → Shoplifting • Type of crime → Acquisitive (NOT violent)
138
Which of the following interferes with the conversion of aldehyde to acetic acid? A. Naltrexone B. Acamprosate C. Disulfiram D. Methadone E. Bupropion ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Disulfiram ⸻ 💡 Core concept (MUST MEMORISE) 👉 Alcohol metabolism: Ethanol → Acetaldehyde → Acetic acid • Step 1: Alcohol dehydrogenase • Step 2: Aldehyde dehydrogenase ⸻ 👉 Disulfiram blocks STEP 2 ➡️ Inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase ➡️ Acetaldehyde builds up 🚨 ⸻ 🔥 What happens clinically? (VERY TESTABLE) Acetaldehyde accumulation → • Flushing 🔴 • Nausea 🤢 • Vomiting • Palpitations ❤️ • Hypotension • Headache 👉 Patients feel awful → stop drinking
139
Which of the following is TRUE regarding smoking cessation? A. Bupropion should be started on the same day smoking stops B. Most common adverse effect of bupropion is abnormal dreams C. Bupropion is a partial nicotinic receptor agonist D. Varenicline should be avoided in bipolar disorder E. The recommended course of varenicline is 12 weeks ⸻
✅ Correct answer: E. The recommended course of varenicline is 12 weeks ⸻ 💡 Why this is correct (HIGH-YIELD NICE FACT) 👉 Varenicline • First-line smoking cessation drug • Given for 12 weeks initially • Can extend another 12 weeks if successful 👉 This is straight from NICE + exam favourite ⸻ ❌ Why the others are wrong (EXAM GOLD ⚡) ⸻ ❌ A. “Start bupropion on quit day” 👉 WRONG 👉 Bupropion • Start 1–2 weeks BEFORE quit date • Allows drug levels to build up 💥 VERY common exam trap ⸻ ❌ B. “Most common SE = abnormal dreams” 👉 WRONG 👉 Most common = • Insomnia 🔥 (Abnormal dreams → more varenicline) ⸻ ❌ C. “Bupropion is partial agonist” 👉 WRONG 👉 Bupropion: • Norepinephrine + dopamine reuptake inhibitor 👉 Partial agonist = 💥 Varenicline (α4β2 receptor) ⸻ ❌ D. “Avoid varenicline in bipolar” 👉 OUTDATED / WRONG 👉 Previously thought → neuropsychiatric risk 👉 Now: • Safe in stable psychiatric illness (including bipolar) 💥 NICE allows use with monitoring
140
Which of the following is TRUE regarding opioid withdrawal? A. Bradycardia is a common sign of withdrawal B. Buprenorphine is not associated with a withdrawal syndrome C. In methadone withdrawal, symptoms usually resolve within 4–5 days D. Withdrawal symptoms may develop upon abrupt discontinuation of opioids after 5 days of regular and uninterrupted opioid use E. In a dependent individual, withdrawal symptoms usually begin within 12–18 hours following the last dose of a short-acting opioid ⸻
✅ Correct answer: D. Withdrawal symptoms may develop upon abrupt discontinuation of opioids after 5 days of regular and uninterrupted opioid use ⸻ 💡 Why this is correct (Exam-focused explanation) • Physical dependence to opioids can develop rapidly (within ~5 days) • After this, stopping abruptly → withdrawal syndrome 👉 This is a classic MRCPsych concept: Dependence ≠ addiction duration → it can develop quickly ⸻ ❌ Why the other options are wrong (High-yield elimination) ⸻ ❌ A. Bradycardia is a common sign of withdrawal WRONG • Opioid withdrawal = sympathetic overdrive • Tachycardia • Hypertension • Sweating • Dilated pupils 👉 Bradycardia = opioid intoxication, not withdrawal ⚠️ Key features of withdrawal • Dilated pupils • Sweating • Diarrhoea • Yawning • Piloerection (“goosebumps”) • Tachycardia 👉 Opposite of intoxication ⸻ ❌ B. Buprenorphine is not associated with withdrawal WRONG • Buprenorphine = partial opioid agonist • Still causes: • Dependence • Withdrawal (milder than full agonists) ⸻ ❌ C. Methadone withdrawal resolves in 4–5 days WRONG • Methadone = long-acting opioid • Withdrawal: • Starts later • Lasts longer (up to 2–3 weeks) 👉 4–5 days = more like heroin peak, NOT methadone ⸻ ❌ E. Withdrawal begins within 12–18 hours (short-acting opioids) WRONG (very common trap) • Short-acting opioids (e.g. heroin): • Withdrawal begins 6–12 hours • NOT 12–18 hours
141
Which of the following is a recognised cause of false positive results for amphetamine on drug screening tests? A. Carbamazepine B. Dextromethorphan C. Ketamine D. Pseudoephedrine E. Risperidone ⸻
✅ Correct answer: D. Pseudoephedrine ⸻ 💡 Why this is correct (Exam-focused explanation) • Pseudoephedrine is a sympathomimetic structurally similar to amphetamines • Immunoassay urine drug screens rely on antibody cross-reactivity • → Structural similarity → false positive for amphetamines 👉 Classic MRCPsych concept: “Cold & flu meds → false amphetamine positive” ⸻ ❌ Why the other options are wrong (High-yield elimination) ⸻ ❌ A. Carbamazepine • Does NOT cause false positive for amphetamines • Instead → can cause false positive for TCAs 👉 Very common exam trap ⸻ ❌ B. Dextromethorphan • Causes false positives for: • PCP • Sometimes opioids • NOT amphetamines ⸻ ❌ C. Ketamine • NMDA antagonist • Detected separately (not via amphetamine assay cross-reactivity) ⸻ ❌ E. Risperidone • Can cause false positive for: • LSD (rarely) • Not amphetamines 👉 “Pseudoephedrine = fake amphetamine”
142
Which of the following illicit substances carries the highest lifetime prevalence of use within Europe? A. Heroin B. Cocaine C. Ecstasy D. Cannabis E. Amphetamine ⸻
✅ Correct answer: D. Cannabis ⸻ 💡 Why this is correct (Exam-focused explanation) • Cannabis is by far the most commonly used illicit drug in Europe • Lifetime prevalence ≈ 25–30% (EMCDDA data) • Much higher than: • Cocaine (~5–10%) • Amphetamines (~3–5%) • Heroin (<1%) 👉 Key reason: • Availability + social acceptability + lower perceived harm
143
Which of the following is used as a maintenance treatment for people who suffer from opioid dependence syndrome? A. Naltrexone B. Clonidine C. Lofexidine D. Buprenorphine E. Naloxone ⸻
**Previous Exam Question** ✅ Correct answer: D. Buprenorphine ⸻ 💡 Why this is correct (Exam-focused explanation) • Buprenorphine = partial opioid agonist • Used for: • Maintenance (substitution therapy) • Reducing cravings • Preventing withdrawal 👉 It replaces heroin/opioids safely → stabilises patient ⸻ ❗ Why NOT Naltrexone (THIS is the key exam point) 🔴 Naltrexone = opioid antagonist • Blocks opioid receptors completely • Has NO opioid effect • Cannot relieve withdrawal or cravings ⸻ 🚨 Critical rule: 👉 Must be opioid-free before starting (7–10 days) Otherwise → ❗ precipitated withdrawal ⸻ 🧠 So its role is: • Relapse prevention ONLY • After detox • In highly motivated patients 👉 NOT suitable for ongoing dependence / maintenance
144
Select the true statement regarding acamprosate. A. It is used primarily in the management of opiate dependence B. It is associated with abuse potential C. It is an NMDA glutamate receptor antagonist D. It cannot be used along with benzodiazepines E. It acts on dopaminergic receptors ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. It is an NMDA glutamate receptor antagonist ⸻ 💡 Why this is correct (Exam-focused explanation) • Acamprosate modulates glutamatergic transmission • Acts mainly as: • NMDA receptor antagonist • Enhances GABA balance indirectly 👉 Restores neurochemical balance after alcohol dependence
145
A man in significant distress attends A&E withdrawing from alcohol. He asks you how long he should expect to feel symptomatic. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal usually peak during which period? A. 2–4 hours B. 12–24 hours C. 48–72 hours D. 24–48 hours E. 6–12 hours ⸻
**Previous Exam Question** ✅ Correct answer: D. 24–48 hours ⸻ 💡 Why this is correct (Exam-focused explanation) • Alcohol withdrawal follows a predictable timeline • Symptoms: • Start → 6–12 hours • Peak → 24–48 hours • DTs → 3–4 days 👉 Peak = maximum autonomic hyperactivity • Tremor • Sweating • Anxiety • Tachycardia 🔥 HIGH-YIELD TIMELINE (MUST MEMORISE) ⏱️ Alcohol Withdrawal Timeline • 6–12 hrs → tremor, anxiety • 12–24 hrs → hallucinations, seizures may begin • 24–48 hrs → 🔥 PEAK symptoms • 3–4 days → delirium tremens
146
Niacin is another name for which of the following vitamins? A. Vitamin B1 B. Vitamin B12 C. Vitamin B2 D. Vitamin B3 E. Vitamin B6 ⸻
✅ Correct answer: D. Vitamin B3 ⸻ 💡 Why this is correct (Exam-focused explanation) • Niacin = Vitamin B3 • Also called nicotinic acid / nicotinamide • Essential for: NAD / NADP production Cellular energy metabolism 👉 Clinically important in psychiatry because: • Deficiency → pellagra • Seen in: Alcohol dependence 🍺 Malnutrition Carcinoid syndrome 🧠 Classic triad = “3 Ds” • Dermatitis • Diarrhoea • Dementia 👉 + 4th D sometimes = Death ⸻ 🎯 Key psychiatric relevance • Depression • Psychosis (“pellagra psychosis”) • Cognitive impairment ⸻ Primary pellagra due to a deficient diet is common particularly in developing countries where corn (maize) is a major food source or following prolonged disasters including famine or war. In developed countries many foods, such as bread and cereal, are fortified with niacin, making pellagra rare. Alcoholism is the commonest cause of pellagra in developed countries. Alcohol dependence can induce or aggravate pellagra by inducing malnutrition, gastrointestinal disturbances and B vitamin deficiencies, inhibiting the conversion of Trp to niacin and promoting the accumulation of 5-ALA and porphyrins. ⸻ 🧬 Pathophysiology pearl (VERY HIGH-YIELD) • Niacin derived from tryptophan • Alcohol → ↓ absorption + ↓ conversion ⸻ 📸 Classic exam image • Photosensitive dermatitis • Casal’s necklace (neck rash 🔥) • Symmetrical, sun-exposed areas
147
For each of the following illicit drugs, what is the maximum time they remain detectable in urine? 1. d-amphetamine 2. Cocaine (benzoylecgonine) 3. Cannabis (chronic heavy user) ⸻
**Previous Exam Questions** ✅ Correct answers 1. d-amphetamine → 3 days 2. Cocaine → 5 days 3. Cannabis (heavy user) → 30 days 🔹 Amphetamine → 3 days • Rapid metabolism • Usually detectable 1–3 days 👉 exam answer = 3 days (max) ⸻ 🔹 Cocaine → 5 days • Detected as benzoylecgonine (longer-lasting metabolite) • Typical: 2–4 days 👉 Exam pushes to upper limit = 5 days ⸻ 🔹 Cannabis → 30 days (IMPORTANT ⚠️) • Lipophilic → stored in fat • Slow release → prolonged detection 👉 Depends on use: • Single use → ~3 days • Regular → ~10 days • Heavy chronic → 30 days (EXAM FAVOURITE)
148
What is the typical urine detection time for opioids such as heroin or morphine?
✅ Answer: 3 days 💡 Explanation: Most opioids have short detection windows. 🔥 High-yield facts: • Heroin → morphine metabolite • Codeine also ~3 days • Exception: methadone (longer)
149
What is the detection window for benzodiazepines in urine?
✅ Answer: 5–28 days 💡 Explanation: Depends on half-life and lipid solubility. 🔥 High-yield facts: • Diazepam → long detection • Short-acting (e.g. lorazepam) → shorter • Very variable → exam likes range
150
What is the detection time of LSD in urine?
✅ Answer: <1 day 💡 Explanation: Rapid metabolism → very short detection window. 🔥 High-yield facts: • Difficult to detect • Rarely shows on routine screens • Often missed in exams
151
At what urine pH should adulteration be suspected?
✅ Answer: <3 or >11 💡 Explanation: Extreme pH values are not physiologically possible → indicate chemical tampering. 🔥 High-yield facts: • Normal urine pH = 4.5–8 • Acid → vinegar • Alkali → ammonia/detergent
152
What urine parameter range suggests a normal sample temperature after voiding?
✅ Answer: 32–38°C 💡 Explanation: Urine should be tested within 4 minutes; outside this range suggests tampering or substitution. 🔥 High-yield facts: • Temperature is checked immediately after voiding • Cold urine = possible substitution • Very hot = possible heating attempt
153
Which of the following drugs is associated with the least physiological and psychological dependence? A. Heroin B. Cannabis C. Cocaine D. Alcohol E. Amphetamine ⸻
**Previous Exam Question** ✅ Correct answer: B. Cannabis ⸻ 💡 Explanation (Exam-focused) Cannabis has the lowest overall dependence potential compared to the other options. • It can still cause dependence, but: • Physiological withdrawal is mild (irritability, insomnia, decreased appetite) • Psychological craving is less intense than stimulants or opioids 👉 In comparison: • Heroin (A) → very high physical + psychological dependence • Cocaine (C) → very high psychological dependence • Alcohol (D) → high physical + psychological dependence (dangerous withdrawal) • Amphetamine (E) → high psychological dependence
154
What are the ICD-11 core features of alcohol dependence syndrome?
💡 ICD-11 Core Features (EXACT EXAM LANGUAGE) 👉 You need ≥2 of the following: 1. Impaired control over alcohol use • Difficulty controlling onset, frequency, amount, or termination 2. Increasing priority given to alcohol • Alcohol takes precedence over other interests, responsibilities, or activities 3. Physiological features • Tolerance • Withdrawal • OR use to avoid withdrawal 4. Persistence despite harm • Continued use despite clear evidence of harmful consequences ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts 1. ICD-11 = only 2 features needed (VERY EXAMINABLE ⚠️) 2. Priority of substance use = key ICD-11 concept 3. Physiological features NOT required (differs from old ICD-10 thinking)
155
What is the most common side effect of acamprosate? ⸻
✅ Answer: Diarrhoea ⸻ 💡 Explanation (Exam-focused) Acamprosate commonly causes gastrointestinal upset, with diarrhoea being the most frequent side effect. • Usually dose-related • Often transient but can persist • Important counselling point for patients ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts 1. Most common side effect = diarrhoea (EXAM FAVOURITE) 2. Acamprosate is not hepatically metabolised → safe in liver disease 3. Acts on NMDA (glutamate) system → reduces craving
156
The Wernicke–Korsakoff syndrome is seen in all the following conditions EXCEPT: A. Motor neurone disease B. Hyperemesis gravidarum C. Anorexia nervosa D. Alcoholism E. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome ⸻
✅ Correct answer: A. Motor neurone disease ⸻ 💡 Why this is correct (Exam-focused) Wernicke–Korsakoff syndrome (WKS) is caused by thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency. 👉 It occurs in conditions causing: • Malnutrition • Poor intake • Poor absorption ✔ Alcoholism → ↓ absorption + ↓ intake ✔ Hyperemesis gravidarum → prolonged vomiting ✔ Anorexia nervosa → severe malnutrition ✔ AIDS → malnutrition + malabsorption ❌ Motor neurone disease → does NOT cause thiamine deficiency → therefore NOT associated
157
Which substance directly targets the dopamine system by blocking dopamine reuptake? A. Alcohol B. Opioids C. Cocaine D. Cannabinoids E. Ketamine ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Cocaine ⸻ 💡 Why this is correct (Exam-focused) Cocaine directly blocks the dopamine transporter (DAT) → prevents reuptake → ↑ dopamine in synapse → intense euphoria + addiction 👉 This is a direct dopaminergic effect (VERY testable distinction) ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong A. Alcohol → indirect (↑ GABA, ↓ glutamate → secondary dopamine ↑) B. Opioids → inhibit GABA → disinhibit dopamine (indirect) D. Cannabinoids → CB1 receptor → indirect dopamine modulation E. Ketamine → NMDA antagonist (glutamate system) ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts 1. Cocaine = DAT blocker 2. Amphetamines = increase dopamine release (NOT reuptake block) 3. Both → high addiction risk but different mechanisms ⚠️
158
A patient presents with vivid dreams, increased appetite, and dysphoria after stopping a substance. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Cocaine withdrawal B. Amphetamine intoxication C. Alcohol withdrawal D. Cannabis intoxication E. Opioid withdrawal
✅ Correct answer: A. Cocaine withdrawal ⸻ 💡 Why this is correct Cocaine withdrawal = “crash” phase 👉 Opposite of intoxication: • Dysphoria • Fatigue • Hypersomnia • ↑ appetite • Vivid unpleasant dreams ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong B. Amphetamine intoxication → agitation, insomnia (NOT ↑ appetite) C. Alcohol withdrawal → tremor, seizures, delirium tremens D. Cannabis intoxication → euphoria, anxiety, NOT withdrawal pattern E. Opioid withdrawal → diarrhoea, yawning, lacrimation (NOT ↑ appetite) ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts 1. Cocaine withdrawal = not medically dangerous (unlike alcohol/opioids) 2. Key symptom = depression/crash 3. ↑ appetite = classic clue 🍔
159
Which substance is most commonly associated with psychosis during withdrawal? A. Cannabis B. Cocaine C. Heroin D. LSD E. Nicotine ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. Cocaine ⸻ 💡 Why this is correct Cocaine → strong dopaminergic stimulation → 👉 during withdrawal or heavy use → • Paranoia • Hallucinations • Delusions ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong A. Cannabis → psychosis mainly during intoxication C. Heroin → withdrawal = physical symptoms (NOT psychosis) D. LSD → intoxication → hallucinations (NOT withdrawal) E. Nicotine → irritability, anxiety only ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts 1. Cocaine psychosis = paranoid + hallucinations 2. Can mimic schizophrenia 3. “Cocaine bugs” (formication) = classic 🐜
160
What cognitive domain is primarily impaired by long-term cocaine use? A. Language B. Sustained attention C. Procedural memory D. Visuospatial skills E. Verbal fluency ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. Sustained attention ⸻ 💡 Why this is correct (Exam-focused) Chronic cocaine use → prefrontal cortex dysfunction → 👉 Most consistently impairs: • Sustained attention (TOP HY fact) • Response inhibition • Working memory ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong A. Language → not primary deficit C. Procedural memory → more basal ganglia (not main cocaine effect) D. Visuospatial skills → not typical E. Verbal fluency → may be affected but NOT most prominent ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts 1. Cocaine → executive dysfunction 2. Most sensitive domain = attention 3. ~30% show clinically significant impairment
161
Cocaine intoxication features include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Euphoria B. Increased energy C. Paranoia D. Hypersomnia E. Tachycardia ⸻
✅ Correct answer: D. Hypersomnia ⸻ 💡 Why this is correct Cocaine intoxication = stimulant state 👉 Features: • Euphoria • ↑ energy • Paranoia • Tachycardia • Hypertension • Hyperthermia ❌ Hypersomnia = withdrawal (crash phase) ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong All are classic intoxication features except hypersomnia ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts 1. Intoxication = sympathetic overdrive 2. Withdrawal = opposite (sleepy, hungry, depressed) 3. Tachycardia + paranoia = classic combo
162
A short-acting stimulant causing increased energy, confidence, and decreased sleep is most likely: A. Cannabis B. Heroin C. Cocaine D. LSD E. Ketamine ⸻
✅ Correct answer: C. Cocaine ⸻ 💡 Why this is correct Cocaine = short-acting stimulant 👉 Key features: • Euphoria • Confidence • ↓ need for sleep • Tachycardia ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong A. Cannabis → relaxation, NOT stimulant B. Heroin → sedative/opioid D. LSD → hallucinogen (not classic stimulant profile) E. Ketamine → dissociative ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts 1. Cocaine = short-acting stimulant 2. Amphetamine = longer-acting stimulant 3. Short-acting → binge pattern use ⸻ ⚠️ Exam trap 👉 Cocaine vs amphetamine: • Cocaine → short + intense • Amphetamine → long + sustained
163
A 28-year-old man stops using a drug suddenly. He reports low mood, irritability, sleeping much more than usual, fatigue, and increased appetite. Which withdrawal syndrome is this? A. Alcohol withdrawal B. Cocaine withdrawal C. Opioid withdrawal D. Benzodiazepine withdrawal E. Nicotine withdrawal ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. Cocaine withdrawal ⸻ 💡 Why this is correct (Exam-focused) This is the classic stimulant “crash”: 👉 Key cluster: • Low mood (dysphoria) • Hypersomnia • Fatigue • ↑ appetite ➡️ Seen in cocaine AND amphetamine withdrawal, but cocaine is most commonly tested ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong A. Alcohol withdrawal → tremor, seizures, delirium tremens C. Opioid withdrawal → diarrhoea, yawning, lacrimation D. Benzodiazepine withdrawal → anxiety, seizures E. Nicotine withdrawal → irritability, cravings (NO hypersomnia + ↑ appetite combo)
164
Amphetamine withdrawal is characterized by: A. Tremor, sweating, seizures B. Fatigue, depression, increased appetite C. Piloerection, diarrhoea, lacrimation D. Vivid visual hallucinations only E. No significant symptoms ⸻
✅ Correct answer: B. Fatigue, depression, increased appetite ⸻ 💡 Why this is correct Amphetamine withdrawal = same crash pattern as cocaine 👉 Features: • Fatigue • Depression • Hypersomnia • ↑ appetite ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong A. Alcohol/benzo withdrawal C. Opioid withdrawal D. Hallucinogen intoxication E. FALSE — symptoms are significant ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts 1. Cocaine & amphetamine withdrawal = identical exam pattern 2. Psychological > physical 3. May last days–weeks
165
Crystal methamphetamine use is associated with which characteristic problems? A. Weight gain and constipation B. Dental problems and psychosis C. Hypothermia and bradycardia D. Improved cognition E. Sedation and respiratory depression ⸻
✅ Answer: B. Dental problems and psychosis ⸻ 💡 Explanation (Exam-focused) Methamphetamine is a potent dopamine-releasing stimulant → chronic use leads to: • “Meth mouth” → severe dental decay due to: • Xerostomia • Poor hygiene • Teeth grinding (bruxism) • Psychosis → due to excess dopamine (similar to schizophrenia) ⸻ ⚠️ Why others are wrong • A → opposite (stimulants → weight loss, not gain) • C → stimulants cause hyperthermia + tachycardia • D → cognition worsens long-term • E → that’s opioids/benzodiazepines ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts • Meth psychosis = paranoia + tactile hallucinations (“bugs crawling”) • Severe dental decay = classic OSCE / SBA buzzword • Long-term: dopamine neurotoxicity → cognitive impairment
166
Mephedrone belongs to which drug class? A. Opioids B. Benzodiazepines C. Stimulants/Cathinones D. Hallucinogens E. Cannabinoids ⸻
✅ Answer: C. Stimulants/Cathinones ⸻ 💡 Explanation Mephedrone = synthetic cathinone (“bath salts”) → structurally similar to amphetamines + khat Acts by: • ↑ dopamine • ↑ serotonin • ↑ noradrenaline ⸻ ⚠️ Why others are wrong • A → depressant • B → GABAergic sedatives • D → LSD-type drugs (different mechanism) • E → cannabinoid system ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts • Nickname: “meow meow” • Causes: agitation, tachycardia, hyperthermia • Can mimic MDMA + cocaine
167
Mephedrone is associated with which characteristic odor? A. Fruity odor B. Fishy odor C. Garlic odor D. No distinctive odor E. Sweet odor ⸻
✅ Answer: B. Fishy odor ⸻ 💡 Explanation Mephedrone has a distinct fishy smell → classic exam association. ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts • “Fishy smell” → think mephedrone immediately • Cathinones = stimulant effects + agitation • Common in club drug / party drug scenarios ⸻
168
Khat contains which active ingredient? A. Psilocybin B. Cathinone C. THC D. Mescaline E. LSD ⸻
✅ Answer: B. Cathinone ⸻ 💡 Explanation Khat = natural plant chewed in East Africa & Yemen → active ingredient = cathinone (amphetamine-like stimulant) ⸻ ⚠️ Why others are wrong • A → mushrooms • C → cannabis • D → peyote • E → LSD ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts • Khat → mild stimulant → euphoria + increased alertness • Linked to psychosis + dependence • Synthetic versions = mephedrone
169
A patient presents intoxicated, laughing, giggling, and relaxed. The substance is usually smoked. What is most likely? A. Cocaine B. Heroin C. Cannabis D. Amphetamine E. LSD ⸻
✅ Answer: C. Cannabis ⸻ 💡 Explanation (Exam-focused) Cannabis intoxication classically presents with: • Euphoria + relaxation • Laughter / giggling • Altered time perception • Increased appetite (“munchies”) • Usually smoked ⸻ ⚠️ Why others are wrong • Cocaine/amphetamine → agitation, not relaxation • Heroin → sedation, not giggling • LSD → hallucinations, not simple relaxation ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts • Cannabis = relaxed + giggly + hungry • Causes red eyes + dry mouth • Can cause acute anxiety/paranoia
170
Cannabis withdrawal symptoms include: A. Seizures and delirium B. Irritability, sleep difficulties, decreased appetite C. Pinpoint pupils and respiratory depression D. Vivid visual hallucinations E. Tremor and tachycardia ⸻
✅ Answer: B. Irritability, sleep difficulties, decreased appetite ⸻ 💡 Explanation Cannabis withdrawal is mild but real: • Irritability • Anxiety • Insomnia • ↓ appetite • Restlessness Onset: 24–72 hours Peak: 2–6 days ⸻ ⚠️ Why others are wrong • A → alcohol/benzo withdrawal • C → opioids • D → hallucinogens • E → alcohol/benzo ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts • Cannabis withdrawal = psychological > physical • No seizures (key exam point) • Often overlooked → exam trap
171
Amotivational syndrome is associated with which substance? A. Cocaine B. Alcohol C. Cannabis D. Heroin E. Nicotine ⸻
✅ Answer: C. Cannabis ⸻ 💡 Explanation Chronic cannabis use → amotivational syndrome: • ↓ motivation • ↓ goal-directed behaviour • Apathy • Social withdrawal ⸻ ⚠️ Exam trap This can persist after stopping cannabis ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts • Classic phrase: “loss of drive” • Associated with chronic heavy use • Important in functional decline cases
172
High-potency cannabis (skunk) is associated with which increased risk? A. Liver damage B. Psychosis C. Cardiac arrhythmias D. Seizures E. Respiratory arrest ⸻
✅ Answer: B. Psychosis ⸻ 💡 Explanation High THC cannabis (skunk) → strong link to: • Acute psychosis • Schizophrenia risk (especially in vulnerable individuals) Mechanism: → THC ↑ dopamine → psychotic symptoms ⸻ ⚠️ Why others are wrong • Liver damage → alcohol • Arrhythmias → stimulants • Seizures → alcohol withdrawal • Respiratory arrest → opioids ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts • Cannabis can cause: Acute psychosis Worsen schizophrenia • Risk ↑ with: High potency (skunk) Early use Genetic vulnerability
173
How do synthetic cannabinoids differ from natural cannabis? A. They are less potent B. They cause no psychosis C. They are full receptor agonists with unpredictable effects D. They have no withdrawal syndrome E. They are completely safe ⸻
✅ Answer: C. They are full receptor agonists with unpredictable effects ⸻ 💡 Explanation (Exam-focused) • Natural cannabis (THC) = partial CB1 agonist • Synthetic cannabinoids (e.g. Spice, K2) = full CB1 agonists 👉 Result: • Much stronger effects • Unpredictable toxicity • Higher risk of: Psychosis Agitation Seizures ⸻ ⚠️ Why others are wrong • A → they are MORE potent • B → ↑ psychosis risk • D → withdrawal DOES occur • E → absolutely false (dangerous exam trap) ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts • Synthetic cannabinoids = “Spice / K2” • Cause severe agitation + psychosis • Much higher ED presentations than natural cannabis
174
A substance causing paranoia and hallucinations as a full agonist at cannabinoid receptors is most likely: A. Natural cannabis B. Synthetic cannabinoid C. LSD D. Cocaine E. Heroin ⸻
✅ Answer: B. Synthetic cannabinoid ⸻ 💡 Explanation • Full CB1 agonism → strong dopaminergic effects → leads to: • Paranoia • Hallucinations • Severe psychosis ⸻ ⚠️ Exam trap Natural cannabis = partial agonist → milder effects ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts • Synthetic cannabinoids = more psychosis than cannabis • Often present with violent/agitated behaviour • Think: “unexpected severe reaction
175
Which withdrawal syndrome can include psychotic symptoms as a characteristic feature? A. Opioid withdrawal B. Cannabis withdrawal C. Nicotine withdrawal D. Caffeine withdrawal E. Alcohol withdrawal ⸻
✅ Answer: B. Cannabis withdrawal ⸻ 💡 Explanation Cannabis withdrawal can (rarely) cause: • Psychotic symptoms • Irritability • Anxiety • Sleep disturbance 👉 This is unusual → high-yield exam point ⸻ ⚠️ Why others are wrong • Opioids → flu-like symptoms • Nicotine → irritability only • Caffeine → headache • Alcohol → YES causes psychosis (delirium tremens) BUT: • This question is about typical association in exam framing • Cannabis is the “unexpected” answer they want ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts • Only withdrawals causing psychosis: • Alcohol (DTs) • Benzodiazepines • Cannabis (rare but tested!) Exam loves testing exceptions
176
Which drug acts on both GABA-A receptors and antagonizes NMDA receptors? A. Alcohol B. Benzodiazepines C. Ketamine D. Opioids E. Cannabis ⸻
✅ Answer: C. Ketamine ⸻ 💡 Explanation (Exam-focused) Ketamine: • Primary action → NMDA receptor antagonist (glutamate system) • Also has GABA-A effects 👉 Leads to: • Dissociation • Analgesia • Hallucinations ⸻ ⚠️ Why others are wrong • Alcohol → GABA ↑ + NMDA ↓ BUT not the best answer here (exam trick — ketamine is more specific NMDA antagonist) • Benzos → GABA only • Opioids → μ receptors • Cannabis → CB1 receptors ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts • Ketamine = “dissociative anaesthetic” • Acts at PCP binding site • Used in treatment-resistant depression (very exam hot)
177
Chronic ketamine use primarily causes which organ damage? A. Liver failure B. Renal failure C. Cystitis and bladder damage D. Cardiac toxicity E. Pulmonary fibrosis ⸻
✅ Answer: C. Cystitis and bladder damage ⸻ 💡 Explanation Classic complication = “Ketamine bladder”: • Severe cystitis • Ulceration • Haematuria • Urinary frequency + urgency ⸻ ⚠️ Exam buzzword 👉 Young patient + LUTS + drug use → think ketamine ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts • Can lead to permanent bladder damage • May require surgery (cystectomy in severe cases) • VERY commonly tested
178
A patient at a party presents with seizures, excessive sweating, muscle rigidity, and tachycardia. Which drug is most likely responsible? A. Cocaine B. LSD C. Ketamine D. Cannabis E. Heroin ⸻
✅ Answer: C. Ketamine ⸻ 💡 Explanation Ketamine toxicity can cause: • Sympathetic overdrive • Tachycardia • Hypertension • Neurological features • Seizures • Rigidity • Agitation ⸻ ⚠️ Important differentiation • Cocaine → similar but more cardiac + agitation • Ketamine → dissociation + rigidity + hallucinations ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts • Ketamine intoxication: Dissociation (“out of body”) Analgesia Hallucinations • Known as: “Special K” Club drug
179
A patient presents with unsteady gait, hallucinations, and muscle rigidity after drug use. Which substance is most likely? A. Cannabis B. Heroin C. Ketamine D. Alcohol E. Nicotine ⸻
✅ Answer: C. Ketamine ⸻ 💡 Explanation (Exam-focused) Ketamine intoxication causes: • Ataxia (unsteady gait) • Hallucinations • Muscle rigidity • Dissociation 👉 This combination = VERY characteristic ⸻ ⚠️ Why others are wrong • Cannabis → relaxed, giggly, no rigidity • Heroin → sedation + pinpoint pupils • Alcohol → ataxia BUT no hallucinations early • Nicotine → stimulant, mild effects ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts • Ketamine = dissociative + motor disturbance • Think: “ataxia + hallucinations = ketamine” • PCP has similar features (NMDA antagonists)
180
Which illicit substance has the least potential for dependence or tolerance? A. Cocaine B. Heroin C. Alcohol D. LSD E. Nicotine ⸻
✅ Answer: D. LSD ⸻ 💡 Explanation LSD: • Causes hallucinations + perceptual distortion • NO significant physical dependence • Minimal psychological dependence 👉 But: • Tolerance can develop • No withdrawal syndrome ⸻ ⚠️ Why others are wrong • Cocaine → HIGH psychological dependence • Heroin → HIGH physical dependence • Alcohol → both physical + psychological • Nicotine → VERY addictive
181
Which benzodiazepine is most likely to form physical dependence? A. Diazepam B. Oxazepam C. Alprazolam D. Chlordiazepoxide E. Nitrazepam ⸻
✅ Answer: C. Alprazolam ** Alprazolam = most addictive benzo** ⸻ 💡 Explanation (Exam-focused) Dependence risk in benzos is highest with short-acting agents: • Alprazolam = short half-life → rapid onset → high dependence • Causes: Frequent dosing Interdose withdrawal Reinforcement ⸻ ⚠️ Why others are wrong • Diazepam / chlordiazepoxide → long-acting → lower dependence risk • Oxazepam → shorter but less reinforcing • Nitrazepam → intermediate ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts • Short-acting = HIGH addiction risk • Long-acting = safer for withdrawal (diazepam) • Alprazolam = MOST tested high-risk benzo
182
Benzodiazepine withdrawal timeline depends on: A. Patient age B. Half-life of the benzodiazepine C. Route of administration D. Gender E. Body weight only ⸻
✅ Answer: B. Half-life of the benzodiazepine ⸻ 💡 Explanation Withdrawal onset is determined by how fast the drug leaves the body: • Short-acting → early withdrawal (1–2 days) • Long-acting → delayed withdrawal (5–10 days) ⸻ ⚠️ Exam trap They LOVE testing: 👉 “early withdrawal → short half-life drug” ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts • Benzo withdrawal can cause: • Seizures (VERY important) • Anxiety, tremor, insomnia • Can be life-threatening (like alcohol)
183
What is the most effective smoking cessation intervention? A. Nicotine replacement alone B. Behavioural support alone C. Combined behavioural support and pharmacotherapy D. Hypnosis E. Acupuncture ⸻
✅ Answer: C. Combined behavioural support and pharmacotherapy ⸻ 💡 Explanation Best outcomes = combination approach: • Behavioural support → coping strategies • Pharmacotherapy → reduces cravings Options: • NRT • Varenicline • Bupropion
184
What is the mechanism of action of varenicline? A. Full nicotinic agonist B. Partial nicotinic receptor agonist C. Dopamine reuptake inhibitor D. Opioid antagonist E. GABA agonist ⸻
✅ Answer: B. Partial nicotinic receptor agonist ⸻ 💡 Explanation Varenicline: • Partial agonist at α4β2 nicotinic receptors → does TWO things: 1. Reduces cravings 2. Blocks nicotine reward ⸻ ⚠️ Exam trap • Bupropion = dopamine/noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor • Varenicline = partial nicotinic agonist ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts • Most effective pharmacological option • Can cause: Nausea Mood changes (monitor!) • Reduces both: Craving Reinforcement
185
A patient presents with tactile sensations (tingling, crawling skin) and jaw rigidity after drug use. Which substance is most likely? A. Cannabis B. Alcohol C. MDMA D. Heroin E. LSD ⸻
✅ Answer: C. MDMA ⸻ 💡 Explanation (Exam-focused) MDMA (ecstasy) causes: • Tactile enhancement (tingling, “skin sensations”) • Jaw clenching (bruxism) ← VERY classic • Euphoria + empathy • Hyperthermia ⸻ ⚠️ Why others are wrong • Cannabis → relaxation, not bruxism • Alcohol → sedation • Heroin → pinpoint pupils, sedation • LSD → hallucinations, not jaw clenching ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts • MDMA = serotonin + dopamine release • Key buzzwords: Jaw clenching Hyperthermia Hyponatraemia (water intoxication!) • Can cause serotonin syndrome
186
A patient planning to stop smoking “in a month” is in which stage of change? A. Precontemplation B. Contemplation C. Preparation D. Action E. Maintenance ⸻
✅ Answer: C. Preparation ⸻ 💡 Explanation Stages of change (EXAM GOLD): • Precontemplation → not thinking • Contemplation → thinking (within 6 months) • Preparation → planning within 1 month • Action → actively changing • Maintenance → sustaining change ⸻ ⚠️ Exam trap 👉 “Within 1 month” = ALWAYS Preparation ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts • Preparation includes: Setting a quit date Planning strategies • VERY commonly tested phrasing: “next month” → Preparation “next 6 months” → Contemplation
187
A patient is not considering changing their drinking habits at all. What stage of change is this? A. Precontemplation B. Contemplation C. Preparation D. Action E. Maintenance ⸻
✅ Answer: A. Precontemplation ⸻ 💡 Explanation Precontemplation = • No intention to change • May not recognise problem • Resistant or unaware ⸻ ⚠️ Clinical link 👉 This is where motivational interviewing is most useful ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts • Key phrases: “Not ready” “No problem” • DO NOT push change → use: Empathy Exploration of ambivalence
188
What is the best predictor of gaming addiction in young people? A. Introversion B. Novelty-seeking behavior C. Low neuroticism D. Rich fantasy life E. Female gender ⸻
✅ Answer: B. Novelty-seeking behavior ⸻ 💡 Explanation Gaming addiction is strongly linked to: • Dopamine reward pathways • Traits like: Impulsivity Sensation-seeking Novelty-seeking (MOST IMPORTANT) These individuals seek: • stimulation • competition • reward ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts • Novelty-seeking = core addiction personality trait • Linked to dopaminergic dysregulation • Also predicts: substance misuse gambling disorder
189
Which level of prevention targets individuals with early symptoms (at-risk mental state)? A. Universal B. Selective C. Indicated D. Secondary E. Tertiary ⸻
✅ Answer: C. Indicated ⸻ 💡 Explanation (EXAM CLASSIC) Prevention types: • Universal → whole population • Selective → high-risk groups (no symptoms yet) • Indicated → early symptoms present ← KEY • Secondary → early diagnosis • Tertiary → reduce complications
190
What is the most common crime associated with drug dependence? A. Violent assault B. Sexual offences C. Shoplifting D. Fraud E. Burglary ⸻
✅ Answer: C. Shoplifting ⸻ 💡 Explanation Drug-dependent individuals commonly commit: 👉 Low-level acquisitive crimes to fund substance use Most common = shoplifting ⸻ ⚠️ Exam trap They will try to trick you with: • burglary • violent crime 👉 but answer = petty crime ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts • “Acquisitive crime” = theft-related • Includes: shoplifting (MOST COMMON) minor theft • Violence more linked to: alcohol stimulants
191
What is the most common cause of suicide? A. Depression alone B. Schizophrenia C. Substance misuse D. Bipolar disorder E. Anxiety disorders ⸻
✅ Answer: C. Substance misuse ⸻ 💡 Explanation Substance misuse: • ↑ impulsivity • ↓ inhibition • ↑ risk-taking • often coexists with depression 👉 strongest overall association with completed suicide 🔥 High-yield facts • Alcohol is a MAJOR contributor • Substance misuse: ↑ suicide attempts ↑ completion risk • Highest risk = dual diagnosis
192
What affects alcohol absorption from the gastrointestinal tract? A. Only food in stomach B. Pylorospasm C. Only liver function D. Only body weight E. None of these ⸻
✅ Answer: B. Pylorospasm ⸻ 💡 Explanation Alcohol is mainly absorbed in the small intestine, not the stomach. 👉 Anything that delays gastric emptying (like pylorospasm) → slows delivery to small intestine → reduces rate of absorption ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts • Food also slows absorption → but not the best single answer • Faster gastric emptying → ↑ intoxication • Carbonated drinks → ↑ absorption speed 🚨 exam favourite
193
A 17-year-old presents with acute confusion, normal bloods and CT, no fever. What investigation is most important? A. Lumbar puncture B. Repeat CT C. Urine drug screen D. Thyroid function E. Chest X-ray ⸻
✅ Answer: C. Urine drug screen ⸻ 💡 Explanation Young patient + acute confusion + normal basic workup 👉 Think drug intoxication first Urine drug screen: • quick • non-invasive • high diagnostic yield ⸻ ⚠️ Exam trap • LP → only if infection suspected (fever, meningism) • CT → already normal ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts • Adolescents → drugs = commonest cause of acute confusion • Always rule out substance use early • Especially: cannabis stimulants MDMA
194
For a polysubstance user with drowsiness and accessory muscle use (respiratory distress), what drug should be given? A. Flumazenil B. Atropine C. Adrenaline D. Naloxone E. Diazepam ⸻
✅ Answer: D. Naloxone ⸻ 💡 Explanation Key features: • Drowsiness • Respiratory depression (accessory muscle use) 👉 Classic opioid overdose Naloxone: • opioid antagonist • reverses respiratory depression • life-saving ⸻ ⚠️ Exam traps • ❌ Flumazenil → dangerous in mixed overdose (seizures) • ❌ Diazepam → would worsen respiratory depression ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts • Give naloxone immediately (don’t wait for confirmation) • May need repeated dosing • Shorter half-life than many opioids → relapse risk
195
Which drug maintains alcohol abstinence and is safe to use with tramadol and cardiac disease? A. Disulfiram B. Naltrexone C. Acamprosate D. Nalmefene E. Baclofen ⸻
✅ Answer: C. Acamprosate ⸻ 💡 Explanation Acamprosate: • reduces craving via glutamate modulation • NO opioid receptor action → safe with opioids (e.g. tramadol) • NO cardiovascular risk → safe in cardiac disease ⸻ ⚠️ Exam traps • ❌ Naltrexone → opioid antagonist → contraindicated with tramadol • ❌ Disulfiram → cardiac risk + severe reactions ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts • First-line for maintaining abstinence • Safe in: liver disease ✔️ • NOT safe in: severe renal impairment ❌
196
What substance causes giggling, euphoria, and relaxation when inhaled? A. Cannabis B. Inhalants/solvents C. Cocaine D. Heroin E. LSD ⸻
✅ Answer: B. Inhalants/solvents ⸻ 💡 Explanation Inhalants (e.g. nitrous oxide, glue): • rapid onset • short duration • cause: euphoria giggling disinhibition ⸻ ⚠️ Exam clue 👉 “inhaled + giggling” = classic inhalants ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts • Risk: sudden sniffing death 💀 (arrhythmias) • Seen in: adolescents • Effects are: short-lived → repeated use 👉 In exams: • smoked → cannabis • inhaled → solvents/inhalants
197
What is the mechanism by which amphetamines affect the dopamine system? A. Block dopamine reuptake only B. Increase dopamine release from vesicles C. Directly stimulate dopamine receptors D. Inhibit dopamine synthesis E. Block dopamine breakdown only ⸻
✅ Answer: B. Increase dopamine release from vesicles ⸻ 💡 Explanation Amphetamines: • enter presynaptic neuron via DAT • enter vesicles via VMAT • displace dopamine from vesicles • cause reverse transport of dopamine into synapse 👉 Result = massive dopamine release ⸻ ⚠️ Exam trap (VERY COMMON) • ❌ Cocaine → blocks reuptake • ✅ Amphetamine → increases release 👉 This distinction is tested AGAIN and AGAIN ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts • Amphetamine = release + reverse transport • Cocaine = reuptake inhibition only • MDMA = serotonin > dopamine release
198
Which antidepressant has the lowest risk of discontinuation symptoms? A. Paroxetine B. Venlafaxine C. Fluoxetine D. Sertraline E. Duloxetine ⸻
✅ Answer: C. Fluoxetine ⸻ 💡 Explanation Fluoxetine: • longest half-life (VERY IMPORTANT) • self-tapers → minimal withdrawal Others: • Paroxetine → worst withdrawal • Venlafaxine → also BAD withdrawal ⸻ ⚠️ Exam trap • They love pairing: Paroxetine = worst Fluoxetine = safest 🔥 High-yield facts • Fluoxetine active metabolite = norfluoxetine • Withdrawal symptoms: dizziness electric shocks (“brain zaps”) • Short half-life = ↑ withdrawal risk
199
200
What characterizes the difference between tolerance, dependence, and addiction? A. They are synonymous terms B. Tolerance is needing more; dependence includes withdrawal; addiction is compulsive use despite harm C. Only addiction involves physical symptoms D. Only tolerance can be treated E. Dependence always leads to addiction ⸻
✅ Answer: B. Tolerance is needing more; dependence includes withdrawal; addiction is compulsive use despite harm ⸻ 💡 Explanation Tolerance: • ↓ effect with same dose • → need higher dose Dependence: • physiological adaptation • → withdrawal on stopping Addiction: • behavioural syndrome • → compulsive use despite harm ⸻ ⚠️ Exam traps • ❌ Dependence ≠ addiction • ❌ Patients can be dependent without addiction (e.g. opioids in pain) ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts • Addiction = loss of control • Dependence = physiological • Tolerance = dose escalation
201
What receptor system does natural cannabis primarily act upon? A. Opioid receptors (partial agonist) B. CB1 receptors (partial agonist) C. NMDA receptors D. GABA-A receptors E. Dopamine D2 receptors ⸻
✅ Answer: B. CB1 receptors (partial agonist) ⸻ 💡 Explanation The active compound in cannabis = THC (tetrahydrocannabinol) 👉 THC: • acts as a partial agonist at CB1 receptors • CB1 receptors are mainly in the CNS This leads to: • euphoria • altered perception • relaxation ⸻ ⚠️ Exam traps (VERY IMPORTANT) 🔴 Synthetic cannabinoids (Spice, K2) • FULL agonists at CB1 • → much stronger effects • → ↑ psychosis risk 👉 This is a classic comparison question ⸻ 🔴 Dopamine confusion • Cannabis affects dopamine indirectly • NOT via D2 receptors ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts • CB1 → CNS (psychoactive effects) • CB2 → immune/peripheral • THC = partial agonist • Synthetic cannabinoids = full agonists → more dangerous
202
Which disorder is most commonly identified among individuals who commit arson? A. Learning disability B. Alcohol Use Disorder C. Schizophrenia D. Bipolar disorder E. Antisocial personality disorder ⸻
✅ Answer: B. Alcohol Use Disorder ⸻ 💡 Explanation Arson is most strongly linked to: 👉 substance misuse (especially alcohol) Why? • ↓ inhibition • ↑ impulsivity • poor judgment ⸻ ⚠️ Exam traps • ❌ Antisocial personality disorder → associated but NOT most common • ❌ Schizophrenia → possible but rare compared to alcohol ⸻ 🔥 High-yield facts • Arson → substance misuse > personality disorder > psychosis • Alcohol = strongest association • Fire-setting often occurs during intoxication
203
Which of the following is classified as Class A under the Misuse of Drugs Act? A. Ketamine B. Amphetamine C. Magic mushrooms D. Synthetic cannabinoids E. Anabolic steroids ⸻
✅ Answer: C. Magic mushrooms ⸻ 💡 Explanation 👉 Magic mushrooms contain psilocybin/psilocin 👉 These are Class A drugs in the UK ⸻ ⚠️ Exam traps (VERY IMPORTANT) ❌ Amphetamine • Class B (unless prepared for injection → Class A ⚠️ tricky detail) ❌ Ketamine • Class B ❌ Synthetic cannabinoids • Usually Class B ❌ Anabolic steroids • Class C ⸻ 🔥 High-yield classification table (MUST MEMORISE) 🔴 Class A (MOST IMPORTANT) • Cocaine • Heroin • LSD • Psilocybin (magic mushrooms) • MDMA ⸻ 🟠 Class B • Amphetamine • Cannabis • Ketamine ⸻ 🟡 Class C • Benzodiazepines • Anabolic steroids
204
Which of the following is true regarding Wernicke’s encephalopathy? A. The onset is usually insidious and gradual B. It is treated with IV vitamin B12 C. Its only cause is excessive alcohol D. Global confusion is a common feature E. It rarely presents with neurological signs ⸻
✅ Answer: D. Global confusion is a common feature ⸻ 💡 Explanation Wernicke’s encephalopathy = acute thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency 👉 Classic triad: • Confusion (MOST COMMON 🔥) • Ophthalmoplegia • Ataxia ⚠️ Full triad only in ~10% → exam loves this ⸻ ❌ Why the others are wrong (EXAM LOGIC) A. Insidious onset ❌ 👉 WRONG — onset is acute/subacute, not gradual ⸻ B. IV vitamin B12 ❌ 👉 WRONG — treatment = IV thiamine (Pabrinex) ⸻ C. Only alcohol ❌ 👉 WRONG — also seen in: • malnutrition • hyperemesis gravidarum • anorexia • cancer ⸻ E. Rare neurological signs ❌ 👉 WRONG — neurological signs are core features 🔥 High-yield facts (MEMORISE THESE) • Give IV thiamine BEFORE glucose ⚠️🔥 • Most common feature = confusion • Triad present in minority (~10%) • Untreated → Korsakoff syndrome (irreversible)
205
A man presents with hallucinations, unsteady gait, and muscle rigidity after drug use. Which substance is most likely responsible? A. Ketamine B. LSD C. Cocaine D. Cannabis E. Diazepam ⸻
**Previous Exam Question** ✅ Correct Answer: A. Ketamine ⸻ 📖 Explanation (Examiner Logic) This question is testing recognition of intoxication patterns of hallucinogenic/dissociative drugs. 👉 The key features: • Hallucinations • Unsteady gait (ataxia) • Muscle rigidity 👉 This triad strongly points to ketamine, a dissociative anaesthetic (NMDA receptor antagonist). Ketamine causes: • Dissociation + hallucinations • Cerebellar effects → ataxia • Motor effects → rigidity 👉 The motor + perceptual combination is what makes this distinctive. ⸻ ❌ Why NOT the others (Very important for MRCPsych) B. LSD ❌ • Causes: hallucinations (especially visual distortions) • BUT: • ❌ No ataxia • ❌ No muscle rigidity 👉 Pure perceptual disturbance, not motor ⸻ C. Cocaine ❌ • Causes: paranoia, agitation, hallucinations • BUT: • ❌ Causes hyperactivity, not ataxia • ❌ No rigidity 👉 Think sympathetic overdrive, not dissociation ⸻ D. Cannabis ❌ • Causes: relaxation, giggling, altered perception • BUT: • ❌ Mild incoordination only • ❌ No rigidity 👉 Too mild + no motor syndrome ⸻ E. Diazepam ❌ • Causes: sedation, anxiolysis • BUT: • ❌ No hallucinations • ❌ No rigidity 👉 Opposite picture (CNS depressant) 🔥 High-Yield Facts 1. Ketamine = NMDA receptor antagonist (PCP-like drug) 2. Causes dissociation + hallucinations + ataxia (“wobbly”) 3. Chronic use → “ketamine bladder” (severe cystitis) ⸻ ⚠️ Exam Traps • Hallucinations alone → could be LSD, cocaine, cannabis • ADD motor signs (ataxia/rigidity) → think ketamine • LSD = purely perceptual (no motor signs)
206
A 45-year-old man who drinks heavily daily stopped alcohol a few days ago. He presents with tremor, hypotension, muscle rigidity, miosis, and hyperreflexia. Which symptom is most indicative of alcohol withdrawal? A. Hyperreflexia B. Hypotension C. Miosis D. Muscle rigidity E. Fine tremor ⸻
✅ Correct Answer: E. Fine tremor ⸻ 📖 Explanation (Examiner Logic) This question is testing: 👉 Recognition of classic alcohol withdrawal features vs distractors from other toxidromes The key clinical feature of alcohol withdrawal is: • Fine, high-frequency tremor (“the shakes”) 👉 Typically: • Onset: 6–12 hours after last drink • Postural tremor (hands, tongue, eyelids) • Early and highly sensitive sign ⸻ ❌ Why NOT the others (VERY HIGH-YIELD DIFFERENTIAL) A. Hyperreflexia ❌ • Seen in: Serotonin syndrome Stimulant toxicity • Not a defining feature of alcohol withdrawal ⸻ B. Hypotension ❌ • Alcohol withdrawal → autonomic hyperactivity 👉 Expect: • Hypertension • Tachycardia NOT hypotension ⸻ C. Miosis ❌ • Classic for: 👉 Opioid intoxication (pinpoint pupils) • Alcohol withdrawal → pupils usually dilated or normal ⸻ D. Muscle rigidity ❌ • Seen in: • Neuroleptic malignant syndrome • Serotonin syndrome • Not typical for alcohol withdrawal ⸻ 🎯 What is this question testing? 👉 Alcohol withdrawal vs other toxidromes ⸻ 🔥 High-Yield Facts 1. Earliest sign of alcohol withdrawal = fine tremor (6–12 hours) 2. Autonomic hyperactivity: • Tachycardia • Hypertension • Sweating 3. Severe withdrawal → delirium tremens (48–72 hours)
207
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of phencyclidine (PCP) intoxication? A. Hypothermia B. Hypotension C. Respiratory depression D. Bradycardia E. Analgesia ⸻
**Previous Exam Question** ✅ Correct Answer: E. Analgesia ⸻ 📖 Explanation (Examiner Logic) This question is testing: 👉 Recognition of PCP (phencyclidine) intoxication toxidrome PCP is a: • Dissociative anaesthetic • NMDA receptor antagonist (like ketamine) 👉 Core features: • Profound analgesia (VERY HIGH-YIELD) ⭐ • Hallucinations • Agitation / violent behaviour • Nystagmus (vertical or horizontal — classic!) • Hypertension + tachycardia • Ataxia + rigidity 👉 The key distinguishing feature = reduced pain perception Patients may: • Sustain serious injuries • Show no response to pain ⸻ ❌ Why NOT the others (Important Differentials) A. Hypothermia ❌ • PCP → hyperthermia, not hypothermia 👉 Due to agitation + muscle activity ⸻ B. Hypotension ❌ • PCP → hypertension (sympathomimetic effect) ⸻ C. Respiratory depression ❌ • Seen in: • Opioids • Severe CNS depressants • PCP → NOT classically respiratory depressant ⸻ D. Bradycardia ❌ • PCP → tachycardia, not bradycardia ⸻ 🎯 What is this question testing? 👉 PCP toxidrome recognition ⸻ 🔥 High-Yield Facts 1. PCP = dissociative anaesthetic (NMDA antagonist) 2. Classic triad-ish pattern: • Analgesia • Nystagmus • Agitation/violence 3. Causes hypertension + tachycardia + hyperthermia
208
Hypersomnia, hyperphagia, and irritability are associated with withdrawal from which of the following substances? A. Alcohol B. Amphetamine C. Ketamine D. Heroin E. LSD ⸻
✅ Correct Answer: B. Amphetamine ⸻ 📖 Explanation (Examiner Logic) This question is testing: 👉 Recognition of stimulant withdrawal (“crash”) Amphetamine withdrawal is characterised by: • Hypersomnia (sleeping a lot) • Hyperphagia (increased appetite) • Irritability / low mood 👉 This is the opposite of intoxication effects (which are: • insomnia • reduced appetite • increased energy) 🔥 High-Yield Facts 1. Stimulant withdrawal = “CRASH”: • Hypersomnia • Hyperphagia • Depression 2. Occurs after: • Amphetamines • Cocaine 3. Not life-threatening (unlike alcohol/benzo withdrawal)
209
Mr Taylor is a 26-year-old man who presents with vivid unpleasant dreams and a marked increase in appetite.”
✅ Answer: Amphetamine withdrawal ⸻ 🧠 Explanation: Withdrawal from stimulants → “crash phase”: • Hypersomnia • Increased appetite • Vivid dreams ⸻ ❌ Why not others: • Depression → similar but lacks drug pattern • Alcohol withdrawal → opposite (↓ sleep, agitation) ⸻ 🔥 High-yield: 👉 Stimulant withdrawal = sleep + eat + low mood
210
Mr Underwood is a 35-year-old man who is brought to his local Emergency Department by friends. When there, he is agitated, hypertensive and an ECG shows ischaemic changes.”
✅ Answer: Cocaine intoxication ⸻ 🧠 Explanation: Cocaine: • Powerful sympathomimetic • Causes vasospasm → myocardial ischaemia ⸻ ❌ Why not others: • Amphetamines → similar but less strongly linked to MI • MDMA → more hyperthermia + empathy effects ⸻ 🔥 High-yield: 👉 Chest pain + agitation = cocaine until proven otherwise
211
Miss Vincent is a 21-year-old woman who is brought into hospital by her friends. She is confused and her physical observations indicate that she is hyperthermic, tachycardic and hypertensive.”
✅ Answer: MDMA (ecstasy) intoxication ⸻ 🧠 Explanation: MDMA causes: • Hyperthermia 🔥 • Tachycardia • Hypertension • Confusion ⸻ ❌ Why not others: • Cocaine → more cardiac focus • Amphetamine → less hyperthermia prominence ⸻ 🔥 High-yield: 👉 Hyperthermia + party drug = MDMA
212
Mr Read presents with sweating, increased hand tremors, restlessness, vomiting and irritability.”
✅ Answer: Alcohol withdrawal ⸻ 🧠 Explanation: Classic autonomic hyperactivity: • Tremor • Sweating • Agitation • Nausea/vomiting ⸻ ❌ Why not others: • Opioid withdrawal → diarrhoea, yawning, lacrimation • Benzodiazepine withdrawal → similar but context differs ⸻ 🔥 High-yield: 👉 Tremor + sweating = alcohol withdrawal until proven otherwise
213
Which of the following is an early symptom of opioid withdrawal? Select one: A. Low grade fever B. Increased blood pressure C. Abdominal cramps D. Anxiety E. Nausea & vomiting ⸻
✅ Correct answer: 👉 D. Anxiety ⸻ 🔍 Explanation (exam-focused) 👉 Opioid withdrawal happens in stages: ⸻ 🧠 EARLY symptoms (first) • Anxiety ✔️ • Agitation • Insomnia • Sweating • Yawning • Rhinorrhoea (runny nose) ⸻ 🧠 LATE symptoms (later) • Abdominal cramps • Nausea/vomiting • Diarrhoea • Fever • Hypertension 🎯 Exam memory trick 👉 Early = “flu-like + anxiety” 👉 Late = “GI explosion” 💥 (vomiting, cramps, diarrhoea)
214
The life time prevalence of psychiatric disorder in long-term cocaine users is: A. 33% B. 80% C. 10% D. 20% E. 25% ⸻
✅ Correct answer: 👉 B. 80% ⸻ 🔍 Explanation • Long-term cocaine use is strongly associated with psychiatric comorbidity • Lifetime prevalence ≈ 50–80% • Exam answer = upper range → 80% ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong: • All other values underestimate the association • In MRCPsych → substance misuse = very high comorbidity ⸻ 💥 High-yield Paper B facts • Cocaine → paranoia + psychosis (can mimic schizophrenia) • Cocaine withdrawal → depression + suicidality • Substance misuse overall → ~70–80% psychiatric comorbidity • Alcohol dependence → depression in ~40–60% • Cannabis → ↑ risk of psychosis (especially early onset use)
215
A man who drinks two bottles of vodka a day tries to stop by himself. He is brought into hospital with ataxia and confusion. The probability that he will develop Korsakoff syndrome is: A. 80% B. 20% C. 10% D. 50% E. 100% ⸻
✅ Correct answer: 👉 A. 80% ⸻ 🔍 Explanation • Ataxia + confusion in alcohol user → Wernicke’s encephalopathy • Caused by thiamine deficiency ⸻ 🧠 Progression: 👉 Untreated Wernicke’s → Korsakoff syndrome • Severe memory impairment • Confabulation • Irreversible in many cases ⸻ 📊 Key statistic: 👉 ~80% develop Korsakoff syndrome 💥 High-yield Paper B facts • Wernicke’s triad: • Confusion • Ataxia • Ophthalmoplegia (often missing → exam trap) • Always give: 👉 IV thiamine BEFORE glucose • Korsakoff: Anterograde amnesia > retrograde Confabulation = key feature • Alcohol-related brain damage = spectrum
216
What is the least number of factors (according to ICD-10 criteria for alcohol dependence) that needs to be fulfilled to make a diagnosis of alcohol dependence? A. 4 B. 2 C. 1 D. 5 E. 3 ⸻
✅ Correct answer: 👉 E. 3 ⸻ 🔍 Explanation • ICD-10 alcohol dependence = ≥3 criteria • Must occur together within 1 year ICD-10 dependence criteria (classic 6 — know them!): 1. Craving (strong desire) 2. Impaired control 3. Withdrawal 4. Tolerance 5. Neglect of alternative pleasures 6. Persistent use despite harm 👉 Need ≥3
217
Mr X is a 56-year-old gentleman assessed in the outpatient clinic, and he was presenting with features of alcohol withdrawal. The patient was asked to complete (SAWS) Short Alcohol Withdrawal Scale. The nurse wants to know the total scores, above which he might require pharmacotherapy for withdrawal. Choose the correct answer among the following. A. 15 B. 10 C. 12 D. 8 E. 6 ⸻
✅ Correct answer: 👉 C. 12 ⸻ 🔍 Explanation • SAWS = self-rated withdrawal scale • Threshold for treatment: 👉 >12 → consider pharmacological treatment (e.g. benzodiazepines) 💥 High-yield Paper B facts • SAWS: • Self-completed • Covers last 24 hours • Each symptom scored 0–4 • Symptoms include: Anxiety Tremor Sweating Nausea Sleep disturbance Confusion ————————— 🔹 CIWA vs SAWS 🧠 CIWA-Ar 👉 Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment for Alcohol – Revised 🔍 What it is: • Clinician-rated scale • Used in hospital / supervised settings 📊 Structure: • 10 items • Score range: 0–67 💊 Treatment thresholds: • ≥8–10 → start medication (benzodiazepines) • ≥15 → severe withdrawal ⸻ 🧠 SAWS 👉 Short Alcohol Withdrawal Scale 🔍 What it is: • Self-rated questionnaire • Used in community / outpatient 📊 Structure: • 10 symptoms • Each scored 0–4 • Max score: 40 💊 Treatment threshold: • >12 → consider pharmacotherapy
218
The life time prevalence of psychiatric disorder in long-term cocaine users is: A. 33% B. 80% C. 10% D. 20% E. 25% ⸻
✅ Correct answer: 👉 B. 80% ⸻ 🔍 Explanation • Long-term cocaine use is strongly associated with psychiatric comorbidity • Lifetime prevalence ≈ 50–80% • Exam answer = upper range → 80% ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong: • All other values underestimate the association • In MRCPsych → substance misuse = very high comorbidity ⸻ 💥 High-yield Paper B facts • Cocaine → paranoia + psychosis (can mimic schizophrenia) • Cocaine withdrawal → depression + suicidality • Substance misuse overall → ~70–80% psychiatric comorbidity • Alcohol dependence → depression in ~40–60% • Cannabis → ↑ risk of psychosis (especially early onset use)
219
Which of the following patient profiles predicts the highest risk of substance abuse in later life? A. 12 year old with ADHD not on any medications B. 9 yr old with ADHD treated with atomoxetine C. 11 yr old with ADHD on combined stimulants and family therapy D. 11 yr old with ADHD treated with stimulants E. 8 yr old with ADHD treated with clonidine ⸻
✅ Correct answer: 👉 A. 12 year old with ADHD not on any medications ⸻ 🔍 Explanation • Untreated ADHD → ↑ risk of substance misuse later • Treatment (especially stimulants) is protective, NOT harmful ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong: • Atomoxetine → reduces risk • Stimulants → protective effect (very exam favourite trap) • Combined therapy → even better outcomes • Clonidine → still treatment → not highest risk ⸻ 💥 High-yield Paper B facts • ADHD untreated → ↑ risk of: • Substance misuse • Conduct disorder • Criminality • Stimulants: 👉 Do NOT increase addiction risk 👉 Actually reduce later substance misuse ⸻ 🎯 Exam takeaway 👉 Untreated ADHD = highest substance misuse risk
220
Mr. Y has a history of chronic alcohol abuse and has now stopped drinking. He is anxious about alcohol withdrawal symptoms. The symptoms of alcohol withdrawal usually peak within: A. 4–6 hours B. 6–12 hours C. 1–2 hours D. 24–48 hours E. 72 hours ⸻
✅ Correct answer: 👉 D. 24–48 hours –12 hrs Early symptoms (anxiety, tremor) 24–48 hrs Peak symptoms 48–72 hrs Seizures possible 72+ hrs Delirium tremens 💥 High-yield Paper B facts • Early symptoms: 👉 Anxiety, tremor, sweating, insomnia • Severe complications: • Seizures → 12–48 hrs • Delirium tremens → 48–72 hrs • Peak autonomic instability: 👉 24–48 hrs ⸻ 🎯 Exam takeaway 👉 Alcohol withdrawal peaks at 24–48 hrs 👉 DTs = after 48–72 hrs
221
Amphetamines could be detected in urine for up to A. 24 hours B. 7 days C. 30 days D. 48 hours E. 6 hours ⸻
✅ Correct answer: 👉 D. 48 hours ⸻ 🔍 Explanation • Amphetamines are short-to-intermediate detection drugs • Urine detection window: 👉 ~48 hours (typical exam answer) ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong: • 6 hours → too short • 24 hours → possible but not max window • 7 days → too long (think cannabis instead) • 30 days → cannabis chronic use ⸻ 💥 High-yield Paper B facts (VERY important table) Urine detection: • Amphetamines → 1–2 days (≈48h) • Opioids (morphine/codeine) → 1–2 days • Cocaine → 2–3 days • Benzodiazepines → days–weeks (longer if long-acting) • Cannabis: • Single use → 3–4 days • Chronic use → up to 30 days
222
The drug licensed to prevent relapse to alcohol use and has been found to have a modest treatment effect is A. Naltrexone B. Disulfiram C. Acamprosate D. Diazepam E. Chlordiazepoxide ⸻
✅ Correct answer: 👉 C. Acamprosate ⸻ 🔍 Explanation • Acamprosate = relapse prevention drug • Works by: 👉 Reducing craving 👉 Modulating glutamate/GABA balance • Effect: 👉 Modest but evidence-based ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong: • Naltrexone • Also relapse prevention BUT exam fav distinction: 👉 Reduces heavy drinking / craving, not specifically “modest abstinence maintenance” phrasing • Disulfiram • ❌ NOT relapse prevention 👉 Deterrent (aversive reaction with alcohol) • Diazepam / Chlordiazepoxide • ❌ Used for withdrawal, not relapse prevention ⸻ 💥 High-yield Paper B facts Alcohol relapse meds: 🔹 Acamprosate • Start after abstinence • Maintains abstinence • Safe in liver disease • Renally excreted ⸻ 🔹 Naltrexone • Reduces craving & heavy drinking • Avoid in liver failure ⸻ 🔹 Disulfiram • Causes acetaldehyde reaction • Needs supervision • Not for relapse prevention per se
223
Smoking in pregnancy is associated with which of the following conditions in the child? A. ADHD B. Autistic spectrum disorder C. Autism D. Learning disability E. Mood disorders ⸻ ⸻
✅ Correct answer: 👉 A. ADHD ⸻ 🔍 Explanation • Maternal smoking → ↑ risk of ADHD • Association is: 👉 Consistent 👉 Modest (≈1.2–1.3x risk) • Likely mechanisms: • Nicotine → dopaminergic disruption • Fetal brain development effects ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong: • Autism / ASD → evidence inconsistent • Learning disability → weaker association • Mood disorders → not classic exam link ⸻ 💥 High-yield Paper B facts Maternal smoking is associated with: • ADHD ✅ (most testable) • Low birth weight • Prematurity • Conduct problems
224
Which of the following is the most frequent withdrawal effect seen with diazepam? A. Perceptual distortion B. Anxiety C. Blurred vision D. Depression E. Nystagmus ⸻
✅ Correct answer: 👉 B. Anxiety ⸻ 🔍 Explanation • Benzodiazepines = anti-anxiety drugs 👉 So withdrawal = rebound anxiety • Most common symptom: 👉 Anxiety (core feature) ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong: • Perceptual distortion → occurs but not most common • Blurred vision → uncommon • Depression → not main acute feature • Nystagmus → not typical withdrawal feature ⸻ 💥 High-yield Paper B facts Benzodiazepine withdrawal: Early/common: • Anxiety (MOST IMPORTANT) • Insomnia • Irritability • Tremor Severe: • Seizures • Psychosis • Delirium
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A 19-year-old woman tells you that she takes MDMA. The least likely psychological consequence of this drug in short term (immediately after use) is: A. Anxiety B. Increased desire to do mental tasks C. Disinhibition D. Increased friendliness E. Perceptual disturbances ⸻
✅ Correct answer: 👉 A. Anxiety ⸻ 🔍 Explanation • MDMA = empathogen (↑ serotonin) 👉 Causes: • Euphoria • Empathy / friendliness • Increased sociability • Mild stimulation 👉 NOT typically anxiety in the acute phase ⸻ ❌ Why others are wrong: • Increased desire to do mental tasks → stimulant effect • Disinhibition → common • Increased friendliness → hallmark effect • Perceptual disturbances → can occur (mild psychedelic effect) ⸻ 💥 High-yield Paper B facts MDMA acute effects: • ↑ serotonin → empathy + bonding • ↑ dopamine → mild stimulation • ↑ oxytocin → social connection Later effects (IMPORTANT contrast): 👉 Anxiety + low mood (“mid-week crash”)