SU2.1 Flashcards

(54 cards)

1
Q

What are three primary ways genetic variation can disrupt normal biological processes by affecting the gene product?

A

By changing the amino acid sequence, altering the amount of gene product, or affecting gene regulation.

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2
Q

What are the three main classes of pathogenic variants mentioned in the lecture?

A

Small-scale mutations, variation in tandem repeat copy number, and chromosome abnormalities.

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2
Q

A mutation that occurs at a splice-site affects which biological process?

A

RNA processing.

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3
Q

A _____ mutation is a substitution that results in the same amino acid being coded.

A

silent (synonymous)

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4
Q

What is the outcome of a missense mutation?

A

It results in a different amino acid being coded in the protein.

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5
Q

What type of substitution mutation introduces a premature stop codon?

A

A nonsense mutation.

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6
Q

What is the collective term for small insertions or deletions of nucleotides?

A

Indels.

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7
Q

Which type of mutation alters the reading frame of the genetic code, often leading to a completely different protein sequence downstream?

A

A frameshift mutation.

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8
Q

What is another name for a Premature Termination Codon (PTC)?

A

Premature Stop Codon.

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9
Q

Name three types of mutations that can introduce a Premature Termination Codon (PTC) into mRNA.

A

Nonsense mutations, insertions, and deletions (which can cause frameshift mutations).

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10
Q

What is the process called where mRNA containing a PTC is degraded, resulting in no protein production?

A

Nonsense-Mediated Decay (NMD).

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11
Q

Under what condition is an mRNA with a PTC likely to undergo Nonsense-Mediated Decay (NMD)?

A

If the PTC is located more than approximately 50–55 nucleotides upstream of the last exon-exon junction.

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12
Q

The degradation of mRNA via NMD often results in _____, a condition where a single functional copy of a gene is insufficient to produce a normal phenotype.

A

haploinsufficiency

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13
Q

NMD is considered what type of mutation effect in terms of protein function?

A

A loss of function mutation.

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14
Q

What is the likely outcome if a PTC occurs less than 55bp upstream of the last exon and escapes NMD?

A

A truncated protein is produced.

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15
Q

What is a ‘gain of function’ mutation in the context of a PTC that escapes NMD?

A

The resulting truncated protein acquires a new, potentially harmful, activity.

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16
Q

Splicing mutations disrupt the highly conserved 5’ _____ or 3’ _____ sequences at exon-intron boundaries.

A

GT (GU in RNA); AG

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17
Q

What are the two primary consequences of mutations in the conserved 5’ GT or 3’ AG splice sites?

A

Exon skipping or intron retention.

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18
Q

Mutations within an exon or intron that activate a new, illegitimate splice site are known as _____.

A

cryptic splice sites

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19
Q

A synonymous mutation [GC>GT] that activates a splice donor site within an exon can lead to what structural change in the final mRNA?

A

A truncated exon.

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20
Q

An intronic mutation [AC > AG] that activates a splice acceptor site can lead to what structural change in the final mRNA?

A

Partial intron inclusion, leading to an ‘extended’ exon.

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21
Q

What is the ‘Paternal Age Effect’ in genetics?

A

The increased risk of de novo point mutations in offspring associated with advancing paternal age.

22
Q

Why do DNA replication errors accumulate in sperm DNA as a man ages?

A

Spermatogenesis begins at puberty and continues throughout life, with each cell division presenting a chance for errors.

23
Q

What is the pathogenic mechanism of Short Tandem Repeat (STR) mutations?

A

The expansion of short tandem repeats beyond a pathogenic threshold.

24
STR mutations are also known as _____ mutations because of their tendency to expand between generations.
unstable dynamic
25
What is the most common type of non-frameshifting short tandem repeat expansion?
Triplet repeat expansions.
26
Define the genetic phenomenon of 'anticipation'.
The tendency for a genetic disease to manifest at an earlier age and/or with increased severity in successive generations.
27
Anticipation is caused by _____ mutations, where the degree of expansion often correlates with disease severity.
dynamic
28
What are the three main types of triplet repeat expansions discussed?
PolyAlanine expansion, PolyGlutamine expansion, and non-coding DNA expansion.
29
Which type of triplet repeat expansion does not typically exhibit anticipation?
PolyAlanine expansion.
30
What are the triplet repeat sequences that code for Alanine?
GCG, GCA, or GCT.
31
In which part of a gene are PolyAlanine repeat expansions typically located?
In the exons
32
In Synpolydactyly type II, an expansion of Alanine repeats in which gene causes the disorder?
The *HOXD13* gene.
33
What is the pathological mechanism of the *HOXD13* PolyAlanine expansion?
It leads to protein misfolding and a loss of function.
34
What is the triplet repeat sequence for Glutamine?
CAG.
35
PolyGlutamine repeat expansions, such as in Huntington's disease, typically show a larger expansion when transmitted through which parent?
The father.
35
In which genetic disorder does a PolyGlutamine expansion in the *HTT* gene on chromosome 4 cause progressive neurodegeneration?
Huntington's disease.
36
What is the approximate number of CAG repeats in the *HTT* gene that is considered disease-causing for Huntington's?
More than approximately 36 repeats.
37
Where are the trinucleotide repeats located in non-coding DNA expansion disorders?
In the 5'-UTR, 3'-UTR, or introns.
37
In non-coding DNA expansion disorders, an intermediate number of repeats (~50-200) that does not cause the full disease is known as a _____.
premutation
38
Non-coding DNA expansions, such as in Fragile X syndrome, typically show a larger expansion when transmitted through which parent?
The mother.
39
What is the most frequent form of inherited intellectual disability, caused by a dynamic repeat expansion?
Fragile-X syndrome.
40
What is the specific trinucleotide repeat and its location that is expanded in Fragile-X syndrome?
CGG repeats in the 5' UTR of the *FMR1* gene.
41
In Fragile-X syndrome, a 'full mutation' is defined by having how many CGG repeats?
More than 200 repeats.
42
What is the pathogenic mechanism of the full CGG repeat expansion in Fragile-X syndrome?
It leads to methylation of the *FMR1* gene promoter, silencing its transcription and resulting in no FMRP protein.
43
Myotonic dystrophy type I is caused by an expansion of _____ repeats in the 3' UTR of a gene.
CTG
44
Friedreich ataxia is caused by an expansion of _____ repeats within an intron.
GAA
45
What are the two classes of non-allelic homologous repeat sequences?
Long tandem repeats and interspersed repeats.
46
Misalignment of long tandem or interspersed repeats during recombination can produce what types of large-scale genetic changes?
Deletions, duplications, inversions, and translocations.
47
Large-scale deletions and duplications resulting from misalignment between non-homologous chromosomes are known as _____.
copy number variations (CNVs)
48
What is the result of intrachromatid recombination between two direct repeats on the same chromatid?
A deletion of the intervening sequence (with loss of an acentric ring).
49
Mispairing and recombination of _____ repeats on the same chromatid can lead to an inversion of the intervening sequence.
inverted
50
In Hemophilia A, a large inversion mutation disrupts the blood clotting factor VIII gene, known as _____.
*F8*
51
What causes the large inversion mutation seen in many cases of severe Hemophilia A?
Mispairing and recombination between low-copy-number repeats within and near the *F8* gene.