SU3.1 Flashcards

(40 cards)

1
Q

What is the aim of carrier screening in genetic testing?

A

To identify genetic variation that confers susceptibility to disease before conception.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which application of genetic testing involves analysing embryos before implantation?

A

Preimplantation testing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the purpose of prenatal diagnosis in genetic testing?

A

To identify genetic conditions in a foetus during pregnancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which application of genetic testing is performed on infants shortly after birth to detect certain genetic disorders?

A

Newborn screening.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Post-natally, genetic testing is used for the identification and _____ of genetic disorders.

A

management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Genetic testing can be applied to better understand _____ and behavioural issues.

A

developmental

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What type of genetic testing assesses the risk of a person developing a specific genetic condition in the future?

A

Predictive Testing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In oncology, genetic testing is used for cancer diagnosis, _____, and management.

A

treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the primary feature of direct genetic testing?

A

It identifies the specific mutation responsible for a particular disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does indirect genetic testing differ from direct testing?

A

It detects a marker linked to the genetic variant rather than the variant itself.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Indirect genetic testing can analyse variations in gene products such as _____ and protein.

A

RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What type of genome instability can be used as a marker in indirect genetic testing?

A

Microsatellites.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a functional assay in the context of indirect genetic testing?

A

It measures the product of a metabolic pathway to infer genetic variation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does the ‘A’ in the ACCE model for genetic test validity stand for?

A

Analytical validity, which questions if the test measures what it claims to measure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does the ‘C’ for clinical validity in the ACCE model assess?

A

It assesses whether the test successfully predicts the health outcome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In the ACCE model, what does ‘Clinical utility’ refer to?

A

It refers to how useful the test result is for patient management and treatment decisions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does the ‘E’ in the ACCE model for genetic test validity represent?

A

Ethical validity, which assesses how well the test meets expected ethical standards.

17
Q

Sensitivity (Analytical Validity)

A

The proportion of affected individuals correctly identified by the test as being positive.

18
Q

A genetic test with high sensitivity will have few _____ negatives.

19
Q

Specificity (Analytical Validity)

A

The proportion of unaffected individuals correctly identified by the test as being negative.

20
Q

A genetic test with high specificity will have few _____ positives.

21
Q

What is the definition of the false positive rate of a genetic test?

A

The proportion of positive test results that are incorrect.

22
Q

What does the Positive Predictive Value (PPV) of a genetic test indicate?

A

The proportion of positive tests from individuals who actually have or will develop the disease.

23
Q

What is the definition of the false negative rate of a genetic test?

A

The proportion of negative test results that are incorrect.

24
What does the Negative Predictive Value (NPV) of a genetic test indicate?
The proportion of negative tests from individuals who do not have and will not develop the disease.
25
What is Chromosome Karyotyping (G-banding)?
It is the microscopic analysis of metaphase chromosomes stained with Giemsa to produce characteristic banding patterns.
26
What is a key advantage of karyotyping concerning the scope of analysis?
It provides a genome-wide analysis.
26
Karyotyping can detect both _____ and unbalanced structural variations in chromosomes.
balanced
27
In FISH, what is used to visualise the specific DNA sequences being targeted?
Fluorescently labelled probes that hybridise to complementary DNA.
28
What is the purpose of gene- or locus-specific probes in FISH?
To detect the presence, absence, or location of a particular gene or DNA sequence.
29
Which type of FISH probe, targeting repetitive DNA like α-satellite DNA, is used to determine the copy number of a chromosome?
Centromeric probes.
30
What is the common name for using a pool of fragments that covers an entire chromosome in FISH?
Chromosome painting (whole chromosome probes).
31
While metaphase FISH provides positional information, what information is lacking in standard interphase FISH?
Standard interphase FISH provides no positional information about the probe's location on the chromosome.
32
What specific genetic markers are analysed in QF-PCR to detect aneuploidies?
Short Tandem Repeat (STR) markers.
33
How does QF-PCR quantify chromosome number?
By analysing the fluorescence intensity of amplified, fluorescently labelled STR markers.
34
What is a key advantage of QF-PCR regarding result speed?
It provides very rapid results.
35
What type of chromosomal rearrangement can QF-PCR not detect?
It cannot detect balanced rearrangements.
36
A limitation of QF-PCR is that it may not detect low-level _____.
mosaicism
37
QF-PCR does not provide information on _____ or other numerical abnormalities beyond its targeted chromosomes.
structural
38
Due to its limitations, QF-PCR should be used in conjunction with another _____ procedure.
diagnostic