Systems Validation Flashcards by Richard Smith

The potable water system is pressurized by:
a) the hydraulic system.
b) ambient air pressure.
c) the pneumatic system.
d) the PTU

the pneumatic system.

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Galleys are powered by:
a) DC Bus 1 and 2.
b) AC and DC Shed busses.
c) DC Battery Bus.
d) Both Main AC Busses

Both Main AC Busses.

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FASTEN SEAT BELT and RETURN TO YOUR SEAT signs illuminate when cabin altitude exceeds _____ feet, regardless of switch position.
a) 10,000
b) 11,300
c) 13,500
d) 14,000

11,300

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NO SMOKING and EXIT signs illuminate when cabin altitude exceeds _____ feet, regardless of switch position.
a) 10,000
b) 11,300
c) 13,500
d) 14,000

11,300

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In the AUTO position, the NO SMOKING switch causes the:
a) NO SMOKING signs to extinguish on the ground with engines shutdown.
b) NO SMOKING and EXIT signs to illuminate with flap extension.
c) NO SMOKING signs to extinguish at the gate when external power is connected.
d) NO SMOKING and EXIT signs to illuminate when landing gear is extended and extinguish
when landing gear is retracted.

NO SMOKING and EXIT signs to illuminate when landing gear is extended and extinguish
when landing gear is retracted.

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If normal electrical power is lost, the following lights remain available:
a) Captain’s instrument panel (powered CRT’s and flood lighting), standby compass, right
dome light.
b) Map and utility lights for chart holder.
c) Side console, floor, and flight bag storage light.
d) Both dome lights.

Captain’s instrument panel (powered CRT’s and flood lighting), standby compass, right
dome light.

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Cargo door operation is normally powered by the:
a) Green hydraulic system.
b) Blue hydraulic system.
c) Yellow hydraulic system.
d) Green hydraulic system, through the PTU.

Yellow hydraulic system.

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The aircraft passenger WIFI system can be powered OFF by:
a) Battery Bus Switches.
b) DC Ground Flight Bus.
c) GALLEY or GALLLEY & CAB switch.
d) GEN 1 SMOKE light switch.

GALLEY or GALLLEY & CAB switch.

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If the Emergency Access code is entered on the Flight Deck Access Panel and no
pilot action is taken, when will the Flight Deck door automatically unlock?
a) 10 seconds
b) 30 seconds
c) 40 seconds
d) 60 seconds

30 seconds

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What is the normal in-flight position of the red tab N/100% PUSH Switch on oxygen
mask?
a) N position
b) N position below 35,000 feet and 100% above
c) 100%
d) N position or 100% is acceptable

100%

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(Aircraft equipped with ACSC) If a single lane of an ACSC fails:
a) the second lane takes over and has no effect on system operation.
b) the associated pack is lost.
c) the cabin zones go to a preset temperature.
d) the flight deck goes to a preset temperature.

the second lane takes over and has no effect on system operation.

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(Aircraft equipped with ACSC) If both lanes of an ACSC fail:
a) the associated pack is lost.
b) the other ACSC takes over.
c) the packs go to a fixed flow rate.
d) the packs go to a fixed temperature.

the associated pack is lost.

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In aircraft equipped with Air Conditioning System Controllers (ACSC), how many ACSCs control temperature regulation?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

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Each ACSC directly regulates the temperature of its associated pack and modulates airflow through the _______ to optimize temperature regulation.
a) trim air valves
b) ozone filters
c) zone controller
d) pack flow controller

Trim air valves

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(Aircraft equipped with pack and zone controllers) The hot air pressure regulating valve closes automatically if
a) the duct overheats or at least two trim valves fail.
b) the Pack controller fails.
c) Wing anti-ice is being used.
d) Engine anti-ice is being used.

the duct overheats or at least two trim valves fail.

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(Aircraft equipped with ACSC) The hot air pressure regulating valve closes automatically if
a) both lanes of ACSC 1 or 2 fail.
b) the Pack controller fails.
c) Wing anti-ice is being used.
d) Engine anti-ice is being used.

both lanes of ACSC 1 or 2 fail.

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An amber ENG BLEED FAULT light could indicate
a) low pressure downstream of the engine bleed valve.
b) engine bleed valve not open during engine start.
c) engine bleed valve not closed with the APU bleed valve closed.
d) engine bleed valve not closed with the APU bleed valve open.

engine bleed valve not closed with the APU bleed valve open.

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How is the potable water system pressurized?
a) By ambient air pressure differential
b) By the pneumatic system
c) By the PTU
d) By the hydraulic system

By the pneumatic system

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What does an amber APU BLEED FAULT light indicate?
a) APU automatic shutdown
b) APU overtemperature indication
c) APU leak detected
d) No greater than 95%

APU leak detected

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Selecting the RAM AIR switch ON opens the ram air inlet if the ____ switch is in its
normal guarded position.
a) CARGO HEAT HOT AIR
b) X-BLEED
c) DITCHING
d) APU BLEED

DITCHING

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Selecting the RAM AIR switch ON, opens the ram air inlet if the ___ switch is not
selected ON.
a) HOT AIR
b) DITCHING
c) APU BLEED
d) X-BLEED

DITCHING

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What leak detection is lost if BMC 2 fails?
a) ENG 1 & 2
b) ENG 2 & APU
c) ENG 1, 2 & APU
d) ENG 2

ENG 2

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What leak detection is lost if BMC 1 fails?
a) ENG 1 & 2
b) ENG 2 & APU
c) ENG 1, 2 & APU
d) ENG 1 & APU

ENG 1 & APU

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Engine bleed air for the pneumatic system is normally bled from what stage of the compressor?
a) Intermediate pressure (IP) stage
b) High pressure (HP) stage
c) Low pressure (LP) stage
d) Low pressure (LP) and intermediate pressure (IP) stage

Intermediate pressure (IP) stage

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What happens in flight if pneumatic bleed air pressure is insufficient even with the HP stage valve open? a) APU starts automatically to augment bleed air system b) engine spools up automatically c) crossbleed valve closes to maintain pressure d) packs automatically go to low flow

engine spools up automatically

What valve action automatically occurs when the APU supplies air to the pneumatic system? a) crossbleed valve opens and the engine bleed valves close b) crossbleed valve closes and the engine bleed valves open c) crossbleed valve closes and the engine bleed valves close d) crossbleed valve opens and the engine bleed valves open

crossbleed valve opens and the engine bleed valves close

What happens to cabin zone inlet duct temperature if the lav/galley extract fan fails? a) The cabin zone inlet duct temperature regulation remains normal. b) The cabin zone inlet duct temperature is fixed at 59° F. c) The cabin zone inlet duct temperature will gradually increase. d) The cabin zone inlet duct temperature will gradually decrease.

The cabin zone inlet duct temperature is fixed at 59° F

If a zone cooling demand is not met due to low bleed air pressure, a) engine idle is automatically increased. b) pack flow automatically goes to high. c) an ECAM message is displayed. d) the cabin outflow valve closes.

engine idle is automatically increased.

The pack valves close when the ENG MODE SEL switch is placed to IGN/START before engine start. When will they reopen? a) Ten seconds after second engine start b) Twenty seconds after the ENG MODE SEL switch is placed in IGN/START if no engine start is initiated c) Thirty seconds after first engine start if second engine start has not been initiated d) Forty seconds after the starter valve disengages

Thirty seconds after first engine start if second engine start has not been initiated

If Pack Flow is selected to LO and temperature demand cannot be satisfied, the pack reverts to which flow? a) NORM b) HI c) LO d) AUTO

NORM

Pneumatic system operation is controlled and monitored by: a) an Avionics Equipment Ventilation Computer (AEVC) b) two Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs) c) an Electronic Control Box (ECB) d) two Cabin Pressure Controllers (CPCs)

two Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs)

Under normal conditions, it is possible to control temperature in all areas except the: a) flight deck b) forward cabin c) aft cabin d) forward cargo compartment

forward cargo compartment

The avionics ventilation system provides cooling for all the following except the: a) avionics compartment b) flight deck instruments c) cabin entertainment system d) circuit breaker panel

cabin entertainment system

You are doing the walkaround at ORD in January and notice both the inlet and extract valves are closed. You should: a) continue the walkaround as this is normal b) listen for a horn in the nose wheel well c) call Maintenance d) have the Captain cycle the BLOWER and EXTRACT fan switches

continue the walkaround as this is normal

If the APU is supplying bleed air or one pack fails, which flow is delivered regardless of PACK FLOW selector position? a) NORM b) HI c) LO d) AUTO

When will the avionics system be in the closed configuration on the ground? a) Cold skin temperatures b) Windy conditions c) Warm skin temperatures d) Idle power

Cold skin temperatures

While pre-flighting, you hear a horn in the nose wheel well. Since the APU is not running, this may indicate a: a) duct overheat in the cargo heat system b) cabin recirculation fan failure c) duct overheat in the avionics ventilation system d) duct overheat in the cabin ventilation system

duct overheat in the avionics ventilation system

Hot ___ air from the pneumatic system is used to maintain desired zone temperature. a) internal b) trim c) zone d) external

trim

The HOT AIR FAULT light illuminates amber when a duct _______ is detected. a) overheat b) leak c) overpressure d) underpressure

Overheat

The pack flow control valve automatically closes for all but which of the following? a) Engine start b) Pack overheat c) High air pressure d) Fire switch released out

High air pressure

Using external conditioned ground air simultaneously with airplane air conditioning packs is: a) encouraged b) prohibited c) allowed before engine start d) required at temperatures above 49° C

prohibited

During normal operation, the air conditioning system temperature is regulated by: a) one zone controller b) one zone controller, and two pack controllers c) one pack controller d) temperature regulators located on the purser's panel

one zone controller, and two pack controllers

The ______ configuration occurs when the BLOWER and EXTRACT switches are both selected to OVRD. a) NORMAL b) SMOKE c) INTERMEDIATE d) OPEN

SMOKE

If a zone controller primary channel fault occurs, what happens with the air conditioning system? a) Normal temperature control is regulated by the secondary controller channel. b) The flight deck is controlled to 76 degrees F by pack 1 and the cabin forward and aft zones are controlled to 76 degrees F by pack 2. c) Pack flow automatically goes to HIGH. d) The packs produce a fixed temperature of 68° F from pack 1 and 50° F from pack 2.

The flight deck is controlled to 76 degrees F by pack 1 and the cabin forward and aft zones are controlled to 76 degrees F by pack 2.

If the primary pack controller channel fails, the secondary pack controller channel automatically takes over and: a) pack flow is fixed at the prefailure setting. b) pack operation is not affected. c) ECAM pack information is not displayed. d) pack outlet temperature is controlled by the pack anti-ice valve.

pack flow is fixed at the prefailure setting.

Selecting the RAM AIR switch to ON opens the ram air inlet, provided the ____ switch is in its normal position. a) HOT AIR b) DITCHING c) APU BLEED d) X BLEED

DITCHING

What pilot action is required with loss of primary and secondary zone controller channels? a) None. System automatically goes to fixed temperature. b) Switch pack flow selector to high. c) Rotate zone temperature selectors to full cold. d) Select HOT AIR switch to OFF

None. System automatically goes to fixed temperature.

If both zone controller channels fail: a) normal temperature control is regulated by the pack controllers. b) the related ECAM pack information is not displayed, and the message PACK REG appears. c) pack flow automatically goes to high. d) the engine idle valve closes.

the related ECAM pack information is not displayed, and the message PACK REG appears.

When the Air Conditioning RAM AIR switch is selected to ON, and the differential pressure is less than 1 PSI, the ram air inlet opens and the outflow valve: a) remains in its current position. b) closes. c) opens to approximately 75 percent if the cabin pressure MODE SEL switch is in MAN. d) opens to approximately 50 percent if the cabin pressure MODE SEL switch is in AUTO.

opens to approximately 50 percent if the cabin pressure MODE SEL switch is in AUTO.

The AVIONICS SMOKE ECAM is associated with which fault lights? a) BLOWER FAULT b) EXTRACT FAULT c) GEN 1 LINE SMOKE, and BLOWER and EXTRACT FAULT d) EXTRACT and HOT AIR FAULT

GEN 1 LINE SMOKE, and BLOWER and EXTRACT FAULT

What happens if both pack controller channels fail? a) Pack flow is fixed at the prefailure setting. b) Pack outlet temperature is controlled to a set temperature range by the pack anti-ice valve. c) Pack regulation is not affected: however, ECAM pack information is not displayed. d) Pack outlet temperature is controlled to the prefailure setting.

Pack outlet temperature is controlled to a set temperature range by the pack anti-ice valve.

How is the pressurization system controlled manually? a) Selecting MODE SEL Switch to MAN and using the MAN V/S CTL Switch to control the outflow valve b) Positioning the LDG ELEV Selector to desired elevation c) Selecting the MODE SEL Switch to MAN and positioning the LDG ELEV Selector to desired elevation d) Positioning LDG ELEV Selector out of AUTO and using the MAN V/S CTL Switch to control the outflow valve

Selecting MODE SEL Switch to MAN and using the MAN V/S CTL Switch to control the outflow valve

During descent, the cabin pressure rate is controlled so that: a) the cabin is pressurized at landing. b) it reaches the landing field pressure just prior to landing. c) the cabin altitude descends at 1500 feet per minute. d) the minimum rate of descent is 750 feet per minute.

it reaches the landing field pressure just prior to landing.

How is the cabin altitude controlled when in the manual mode? a) By toggling the MAN V/S CTL switch b) By resetting the landing elevation in the MCDU c) By rotating the LDG ELEV knob out of the AUTO position d) By cycling the ditching switch

By toggling the MAN V/S CTL switch

ALTN MODE displays green on the ECAM air conditioning page when: a) primary zone controller fault is detected. b) secondary zone controller fault is detected. c) primary and secondary zone controller fault is detected. d) primary pack controller channel fails

primary zone controller fault is detected

How is landing field elevation information provided to the pressurization system in case of a divert to an alternate? a) The FMGC provides database elevation when a new destination is entered. b) The QNH is entered on the Captain's EFIS control panel. c) The new landing elevation is set using the MAN V/S CTL Switch. d) Through GPS data from ADIRUs 1 and 3.

The FMGC provides database elevation when a new destination is entered.

The cabin safety valve protects the airplane against: a) excessive cabin V/S in STANDBY mode. b) water ingress in the event of ditching. c) excessive cabin altitude. d) excessive differential pressure.

excessive differential pressure.

When landing elevation is selected using the LDG ELEV selector, the cabin altitude is: a) controlled manually through the MAN V/S CTL Switch. b) still controlled automatically through the outflow valve. c) still controlled normally through the safety valve. d) only controllable manually through the safety valve.

still controlled automatically through the outflow valve.

In AUTO, the cabin differential pressure is normally controlled by the: a) safety valve. b) inlet valve. c) extract valve. d) outflow valve.

outflow valve.

Before takeoff and after landing, the outflow valve should be _____, and the cabin _____. a) open, depressurized b) closed, at maximum differential pressure c) open, at sea level pressure d) open, at ambient outside air temperature plus 10 degrees

open, depressurized

Which control lets you select manual pressurization? a) MODE SEL Switch b) MAN V/S CTL Switch c) LDG ELEV Selector d) DITCHING Switch

MODE SEL Switch

With the pressurization system in AUTO and landing elevation set with the LDG ELEV Selector, the cabin altitude is: a) still controlled automatically. b) only controllable manually with the MAN V/S CTL Switch. c) still controlled by the pressure controller through the safety valve. d) only controllable manually through the safety valve.

still controlled automatically.

Switching the cabin pressure MODE SEL Switch to MAN allows you to manually: a) adjust the outflow valve. b) alter the air inlet valve position. c) adjust the pack flow valve. d) alter the pack outflow valve setting.

adjust the outflow valve.

Automatic transfer of the pressurization controllers occurs after_____ or failure of the ____ controller. a) takeoff, standby b) landing, standby c) takeoff, operating d) landing, operating

landing, operating

The pressurization controller normally uses landing elevation QNH from the: a) ADIRUs. b) FMGC. c) Captain's barometric altimeter. d) LDG ELEV Selector.

FMGC.

In case of failure of both automatic pressurization controllers, a third motor provides: a) manual operation of the outflow valve. b) automatic operation of the pack flow control valve. c) manual operation of the inlet valve. d) automatic operation of the safety valve.

manual operation of the outflow valve.

If the airplane returns to the departure airport immediately after takeoff, how is the cabin altitude controlled? a) Cabin altitude automatically returns to the takeoff elevation. b) The departure airport elevation must be set manually. c) The cabin altitude must be controlled manually. d) The airplane must be depressurized and the cabin controlled manually.

Cabin altitude automatically returns to the takeoff elevation.

Illumination of the MODE SEL FAULT Light indicates: (Cabin press panel) a) a single automatic pressurization controller failure. b) excess pressurization while airborne. c) the airplane is being pressurized on the ground. d) a fault is detected in both automatic systems

a fault is detected in both automatic systems.

Which slats have anti-ice capability? a) All the slats b) Three outboard slats c) Two inboard slats d) Three inboard slats

Three outboard slats

When do the wing anti-ice valves close automatically? a) When a leak is detected and during the takeoff roll b) When a leak is detected and when reaching cruise altitude c) When a leak is detected and upon touchdown d) Upon engine shutdown

When a leak is detected and upon touchdown

What is the position of the wing anti-ice valves after an electrical failure? a) Closed b) Open c) They remain in the position they were at the time of the failure. d) Open, and must be manually closed by Maintenance

Closed

What is the effect on the engine when either engine anti-ice valve is open? a) Minimum idle RPM is increased b) Maximum N1 is increased c) Maximum N2 is increased d) Engine ignition is inhibited

Minimum idle RPM is increased

What is the position of the engine anti-ice valves after an electrical failure? a) Closed b) Open c) Remain in the position they were at the time of failure d) Opened and must be manually closed by maintenance

Open

How do you turn the window heat on without the engines running? a) Place the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT switch to ON. b) Place the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT switch to AUTO. c) Start the APU to access the APU generator. d) Pull the AUTO mode circuit breaker.

Place the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT switch to ON.

Which probe or mast is NOT heated on the ground when at least one engine is running? a) Pitot probes b) Angle of attack probes c) Forward lavatory drain mast d) TAT probe

TAT probe

Delaying the use of engine anti-ice until ice buildup is visible may: a) require the use of engine ignition. b) result in severe engine damage and/or flameout. c) cause engine rpm to increase. d) require the use of wing anti-ice.

result in severe engine damage and/or flameout.

Wing anti -ice valves close automatically when: a) valve position disagrees with switch position. b) a leak is detected. c) high pressure is detected. d) high temperature is detected.

a leak is detected.

Autopilot engagement is confirmed by the: a) FMA. b) FMGC. c) MCDU. d) ND.

FMA

A continuous amber ENG ANTI-ICE FAULT light indicates. a) low pressure is detected. b) valve position disagrees with selected position. c) high temperature is detected. d) low temperature is detected.

valve position disagrees with selected position.

A momentary amber WING ANTI -ICE FAULT light indicates. a) high pressure is detected. b) high temperature is detected. c) valves are in transit. d) valves are closed.

valves are in transit.

Autopilot guidance modes are selected on the: a) FCU and MCDU. b) EFIS control panel. c) ADIRUs and MCDU. d) PFD, ND and EFIS control panel.

FCU and MCDU.

An engaged autothrust system reverts to which mode when the flight directors and autopilots are selected off? a) Speed b) Thrust c) Armed d) Fixed

Speed

The only valid indication of the status of the autoflight system is/are the: a) FMAs on the top of the PFD. b) settings in the FCU windows. c) MCDU PROG page. d) settings on the EFIS control panel

FMAs on the top of the PFD.

When can both autopilot 1 and autopilot 2 be engaged? a) Anytime during the flight b) When descending via an arrival c) When LOC and G/S are armed or engaged d) When FMGC go around phase is active

When LOC and G/S are armed or engaged

Which computer provides windshear detection? a) ADIRs b) FAC c) SEC d) ELAC

FAC

Which VHF radio is used for ACARS data?

The CVR can be manually energized by selecting the: a) GND CTL switch to ON. b) CVR TEST switch to ON. c) CVR ERASE switch to ON. d) CVR ANNUNCIATE switch to ON.

GND CTL switch to ON.

The Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) and Digital Flight Data Recorder (DFDR) stop automatically: a) 5 minutes after the last engine is shut down. b) 5 minutes after the first engine is shut down. c) when electrical power is supplied to the airplane. d) when the GND CTL switch is selected to AUTO.

5 minutes after the last engine is shut down.

Back-up navigation radio tuning can be accomplished by using the: a) ACP. b) CVR. c) RMP. d) FMGC

RMP

Which RMP is powered while in the emergency electrical configuration?

When is the cabin call aural flight deck buzzer inhibited? a) From takeoff power to 1500 feet RA during departure, and from 800 feet RA until 80 knots after landing b) From takeoff power to flap handle 0 during departure, and from flap handle 1 until 80 knots after landing c) From above 80 knots to 3000 feet RA during departure, and from flap handle 1 until 80 knots after landing d) From above 30 knots to 1500 feet RA during departure, and from 1500 feet RA until 30 knots after landing

From takeoff power to 1500 feet RA during departure, and from 800 feet RA until 80 knots after landing

Pushing the MECH button on the CALLS panel sounds an external horn: a) for 15 seconds. b) for 30 seconds. c) for 45 seconds. d) until the switch is released.

until the switch is released.

How can you get the mechanic's attention when he/she is outside the airplane? a) Use the MECH button on the CALLS panel which sounds an external horn. b) Press the PA button on the ACP. c) Select the MECH transmission key on the ACP. d) Select the MECH transmission key on the ACP, then press the PA button.

Use the MECH button on the CALLS panel which sounds an external horn.

The AUDIO SWITCHING selector on the aft overhead panel enables the: a) Captain or First officer to use ACP 3 in case ACP 1 or 2 fails. b) Captain or First Officer to use RMP 3 in case RMP 1 or 2 fails. c) flight attendant to communicate with either the flight deck or ground. d) ground crew to talk on flight interphone.

Captain or First officer to use ACP 3 in case ACP 1 or 2 fails.

Do not disconnect the IDG when the: a) APU is supplying electrical power. b) engine is not running or not windmilling. c) engine is running. d) airplane is on the ground.

engine is not running or not windmilling.

The CVR tape may be erased by pushing the CVR ERASE button for: a) 1 second. b) 2 seconds. c) 1 minute. d) 2 minutes.

2 seconds.

The RESET button on the audio control panel extinguishes the: a) ON VOICE, CALL, and ATT lights. b) CALL and ATT lights. c) CALL, MECH, and ATT lights. d) ON VOICE, ATT, and MECH lights.

CALL, MECH, and ATT lights.

How are the batteries charged? a) Automatically, when DC power is supplied to the DC BAT bus and the BAT switches are ON b) Manually, by switching the AC ESS FEED switch to ALTN c) Automatically, when AC power is supplied to the AC ESS bus and the BAT switches are OFF d) Manually, by turning the BATT switches to OFF

Automatically, when DC power is supplied to the DC BAT bus and the BAT switches are ON

In the event of a TR failure, how is the DC system reconfigured? a) DC buses 1 and 2 will interconnect through the DC BATT bus. ESS TR powers the DC ESS bus. b) The associated DC bus and DC BATT bus is lost. c) The static inverter is automatically powered to supply power to the DC ESS bus. d) The ESS TR automatically powers DC bus 1 or DC bus 2.

DC buses 1 and 2 will interconnect through the DC BATT bus. ESS TR powers the DC ESS bus.

What will cause the aircraft to revert to the emergency electrical configuration? a) Loss of AC busses 1 and 2 above 100 knots b) Batteries supplying power to AC busses 1 and 2 c) Emergency generator supplying power to DC busses 1 and 2 d) Significant voltage discrepancy between the batteries

Loss of AC busses 1 and 2 above 100 knots

In the emergency electrical configuration, which Electronic Instrument System (EIS) displays are powered? a) PFD 2, ND 2, and lower ECAM display b) PFD 1, ND 1, and upper ECAM display c) PFD 1, ND 1, and lower ECAM display d) PFD 2, ND 2, and upper ECAM display

PFD 1, ND 1, and upper ECAM display

With a single IDG failure, the remaining IDG powers: a) the onside AC channel b) only the essential busses c) the entire electrical system, with the exception of the main galley bus d) the entire electrical system including the main galley bus

the entire electrical system, with the exception of the main galley bus

How many fuel pumps are operating in the smoke configuration? a) All pumps b) One in each wing tank c) Both center tank pumps d) APU fuel pump

One in each wing tank

How is fuel fed to the engines in the emergency electrical configuration? a) By one fuel pump in each in each wing tank b) All fuel pumps operate to feed the engines c) Both center tank pumps feed the engines d) No pumps operate, the engines are gravity fed

No pumps operate, the engines are gravity fed

The EXT PWR AVAIL light indicates external power is: a) plugged in regardless of frequency or voltage. b) plugged in and electrical parameters are normal. c) connected to the tie bus. d) connected and the battery switches are ON

plugged in and electrical parameters are normal.

Pushing the depicted MAN ON switch extends the RAT: (RAT MAN ON pb) a) only on the ground with engines running. b) only in the air. c) anytime since it is always powered. d) only with the loss of one or more AC busses.

anytime since it is always powered.

A battery with low voltage can be charged by: a) switching external power to AVAIL and ensuring the affected BAT switch is ON. b) switching external power to ON and ensuring the affected BAT switch is ON. c) switching external power to ON and ensuring the affected BAT switch is OFF. d) starting the APU since the batteries can only be charged by the APU generator.

switching external power to ON and ensuring the affected BAT switch is ON.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the battery power system? a) An automatic cutoff logic prevents the batteries from becoming completely discharged on the ground. b) The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) automatically extends if both batteries lose their charge. c) The batteries can supply power for cargo door operation. d) BAT 1 and BAT 2 are connected in parallel.

An automatic cutoff logic prevents the batteries from becoming completely discharged on the ground.

In descending order, what is the priority of electrical power? a) Onside engine generator, external power, APU, remaining engine generator b) APU, engine generators, external power c) External power, onside engine generator, APU, remaining engine generator d) APU, external power, engine generators

Onside engine generator, external power, APU, remaining engine generator

Following pushback, what is the configuration of the electrical system when engine 1 is running and the APU is operating? a) The APU powers all airplane systems until it is shut down. b) GEN 1 powers all airplane systems until engine 2 is started. c) The APU generator should be selected off. d) GEN 1 powers AC bus 1 and the APU generator powers AC bus 2.

GEN 1 powers AC bus 1 and the APU generator powers AC bus 2.

On earlier A320s, the emergency generator operates only with: a) the landing gear retracted. b) the batteries faulty or depleted. c) the APU GEN online. d) the landing gear down.

the landing gear retracted.

In the normal configuration, which bus feeds the AC ESS bus? a) ESS TR b) AC bus 1 c) AC bus 2 d) AC ESS SHED bus

AC bus 1

On later A320s and all A319s, the emergency generator operates: a) until touchdown, regardless of landing gear position. b) only if DC BUS 1 and 2 are unpowered. c) only if GEN 1 and GEN 2 have failed and the APU GEN is on line. d) until the batteries are faulted or depleted.

until touchdown, regardless of landing gear position.

What bus provides an alternate source of power for the AC ESS bus? a) AC ESS SHED bus b) DC Bus 1 c) DC Bus 2 d) AC bus 2

AC bus 2

When flying on battery power only, what is the approximate battery endurance? a) 22 minutes b) 24 minutes c) 26 minutes d) 28 minutes

22 minutes

What occurs when an IDG is disconnected? a) The corresponding generator can no longer supply power. b) The APU GEN is also disconnected. c) The IDG can be reset inflight. d) The corresponding generator can still supply power

The corresponding generator can no longer supply power.

Which VHF radio and RMP are available when on emergency generator power only? a) VHF1/RMP 1 b) VHF 2/RMP 2 c) VHF 3/RMP 3 d) VHF 2/RMP 1

VHF1 / RMP1

To prevent damage to the disconnect mechanism, do not hold the IDG switch in for more than: a) 2 seconds. b) 3 seconds. c) 4 seconds. d) 5 seconds.

3 seconds.

With the APU running and EXT PWR plugged in, what would be the indication that the APU generator is powering the AC tie bus? a) EXT PWR switch ON light illuminated. b) EXT PWR switch AVAIL light illuminated. c) BUS TIE switch OFF light illuminated. d) APU generator FAULT light illuminated.

EXT PWR switch AVAIL light illuminated.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the ECAM monitored circuit breakers? a) They are color-coded yellow. b) A continuous repetitive chime warning will sound if tripped or pulled for more than one minute. c) An ECAM C/B TRIPPED caution will appear if tripped or pulled for more than one minute. d) They are color-coded red

An ECAM C/B TRIPPED caution will appear if tripped or pulled for more than one minute.

What occurs with the AC and DC ESS SHED busses when the airplane is on battery power only? a) Provide power for critical flight, communication and navigation equipment. b) Are powered by DC BUS 2 in the emergency electrical configuration. c) Can be powered by batteries in case of loss of all generators. d) Both buses are shed.

Both buses are shed.

When should a tripped wing tank fuel pump circuit breaker be reset? a) Only on the ground b) Never c) Only in the air d) Only after consulting with Maintenance

Never

On which aircraft configurations does the following statement apply? If the gear is retracted in the emergency electrical configuration, the EMER ELEC PWR MAN ON switch must be pushed to regain the emergency generator. a) All 320s b) All 319s c) Earlier 320s d) Earlier 319s

Earlier 320s

The BAT FAULT light indicates that the: a) batteries are 95% discharged. b) charging current is outside normal limits. c) APU battery start is in progress. d) batteries have been turned off.

charging current is outside normal limits.

A GEN FAULT light indicates: a) the generator load is above 100% of rated capacity. b) smoke is detected in the avionics bay. c) the line contactor is open without selecting the respective GEN switch OFF. d) the generator is low on oil.

the line contactor is open without selecting the respective GEN switch OFF.

The AC ESS FEED FAULT light indicates: a) automatic transfer of AC ESS BUS power from AC BUS 1 to AC BUS 2. b) the AC ESS BUS is being powered by the emergency generator. c) amber when the AC ESS BUS is not electrically powered. d) the AC ESS BUS is being powered by the batteries.

amber when the AC ESS BUS is not electrically powered.

The GALY & CAB FAULT light indicates: a) the AC ESS SHED BUS is not powered. b) the emergency generator is powering the galley. c) the main galley bus is not powered. d) a generator load in excess of 100% of rated output

a generator load in excess of 100% of rated output.

If you push the IDG 1 switch in flight, a) IDG 1 can only be reconnected by Maintenance on the ground. b) you can push it again to reconnect IDG 1. c) you are backing up the auto-disconnect feature of the IDG. d) the RAT will automatically deploy.

IDG 1 can only be reconnected by Maintenance on the ground.

The bus tie contactors open or close automatically to maintain power supply to AC busses 1 and 2 when the bus tie switch is in which position? a) AUTO (lights extinguished) b) MANUAL c) ALTN d) OFF

AUTO (lights extinguished)

In flight, with only one engine generator operating, how is the electrical system configured? a) The AC ESS SHED bus is automatically shed. b) The main galley power supply is automatically shed. c) The RAT powers the ESS buses. d) The ESS TR powers the DC ESS bus

The main galley power supply is automatically shed.

To power the essential bus from AC bus 2 due to a loss of AC bus 1, what pilot action is required? a) Push the MAN ON switch. b) No action required; system is automatic. c) Select BUS TIE switch to OFF. d) Disconnect number 2 IDG.

No action required; system is automatic.

The SMOKE light illuminates amber when: (Emer Elect Per panel) a) smoke is detected in the avionics ventilation system. b) there is a GEN 1 fire. c) there is a short circuit in GEN 1. d) testing the emergency generator.

smoke is detected in the avionics ventilation system.

In case of AC bus 1 failure, the AC ESS bus can be transferred to AC bus 2 by: a) connecting the APU generator to the tie bus. b) doing nothing, system switching is automatic. c) selecting the BUS TIE switch to OFF. d) disconnecting the number 2 IDG.

doing nothing, system switching is automatic.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the electrical system? a) The APU has priority over engine generators for supplying electrical power to the AC buses. b) System operation is normally automatic. c) The power sources are not normally isolated from one another. d) IDGs are backed up by battery power only.

System operation is normally automatic.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the APU electrical system? a) The APU can power the entire airplane on the ground. b) The APU and external power can be used simultaneously. c) The APU has priority over external power. d) The APU supplies only AC channel 1.

The APU can power the entire airplane on the ground.

With a loss of TR 1, what pilot action is required? a) No action required; system automatically powers DC bus 1 with the ESS TR. b) No action required; system automatically powers DC bus 1 with TR 2. c) Select AC ESS FEED switch to ALTN. d) Select BUS TIE switch to OFF

No action required; system automatically powers DC bus 1 with TR 2.

(NEO) When N2 increases to greater than ___ percent, the FADEC no longer monitors start parameters. a) 55 b) 50 c) 45 d) 40

(NEO) Continuous ignition is automatically provided when: a) a thrust control malfunction is detected. b) wing anti-ice is selected on. c) engine oil low pressure is indicated. d) in turbulent air.

a thrust control malfunction is detected.

(NEO) Approach idle is selected inflight with _____ or _____ or when landing gear is down. a) CONF 3, FULL b) CONF 1, CONF 2 c) CONF 0, CONF 1 d) CONF 2, CONF 3

CONF 3, FULL

Engine limit protections are NOT provided in the ____mode. a) EPR b) N1 rated c) N1 unrated d) Autostart

N1 unrated

(CEO) When N2 increases to greater than ____ percent, the FADEC no longer monitors start parameters. a) 20 b) 30 c) 50 d) 62

Pack valves will automatically re-open 30 seconds after: a) first engine start if second engine start is delayed. b) placing the ENG MODE selector to NORM. c) APU start. d) placing the ENG MASTER switch to ON

first engine start if second engine start is delayed.

During a manual start, ____ is not available. a) automatic abort b) dual ignition c) ECAM d) FADEC monitoring

automatic abort

During an autostart, the FADEC automatically ________ the igniters at each start. a) cleans b) lubricates c) alternates d) circulates

alternates

Which igniter(s) is(are) used during a manual start?

A and B

When is continuous ignition NOT automatically provided in flight? a) Engine surge or stall b) Engine low oil pressure indicated c) ENG ANTI ICE switch ON d) FLAPS lever other than 0

b) Engine low oil pressure indicated

Continuous ignition is selected manually by positioning the ENG MODE selector to: a) CRANK. b) NORM. c) IGN/START. d) ON

IGN / START

The autothrust system is armed on the ground by setting the thrust levers to ____ with at least one FD on. a) FLX with no FLEX temperature entered in the FMGC b) FLX with a FLEX temperature entered in the FMGC c) CLB d) above IDLE

FLX with a FLEX temperature entered in the FMGC

The autothrust system will not arm when the thrust levers are advanced for takeoff if both ___ are OFF. a) LGCIUs b) MCDUs c) FDs d) BSCUs

FDs

The engagement range of the A/THR with both engines running is when the thrust levers are: a) from the IDLE detent to FLX/MCT detent range. b) forward of IDLE detent to FLX/MCT detent. c) from the reverse IDLE detent to FLX/MCT detent. d) forward of IDLE detent to CLB detent

forward of IDLE detent to CLB detent.

How is the autothrust system engaged in flight? a) Setting thrust levers in the engagement range with the autothrust system armed b) Simultaneously pushing the A/THR switch and FD switch c) Pushing the FD switch with the thrust levers in the engagement range d) Setting the thrust levers in the armed range and pushing the A/THR switch

Setting thrust levers in the engagement range with the autothrust system armed

Which action will NOT disconnect the autothrust system? a) Pushing the autothrust disconnect buttons on the thrust levers. b) Positioning both thrust levers to the idle stop. c) Pushing the A/THR button on the FCU with A/THR system engaged. d) Flying the airplane into an ALPHA FLOOR condition.

Flying the airplane into an ALPHA FLOOR condition.

The autothrust system can be disconnected by: a) positioning both thrust levers to the idle stop. b) positioning both thrust levers in the MCT detent. c) activation of alpha floor regardless of thrust lever position. d) setting symmetrical thrust levers.

positioning both thrust levers to the idle stop.

How can a change in thrust be avoided when disconnecting the autothrust system? a) Using the A/THR switch on the FCU b) Holding the autothrust disconnect switch for 30 seconds c) Matching the thrust lever to existing power setting before disconnecting d) Switching to the flight path vector mode on the FCU

Matching the thrust lever to existing power setting before disconnecting

How can thrust control be regained after a TOGA LK condition? a) Disconnecting the autothrust b) Engaging the autopilots c) Retarding both thrust levers to CL d) Retarding both thrust levers to FLX/MCT

Disconnecting the autothrust

The A/THR RETARD mode is ONLY available during a(n) ____landing. a) manual b) automatic c) emergency d) crosswind

automatic

THR LK is caused by: a) failure of the autothrust system. b) flying the airplane into an ALPHA FLOOR condition. c) PWS activation. d) windshear

failure of the autothrust system.

During a manual start, what function does the FADEC perform? a) Provides ECAM start fault detection, however, automatic abort and crank capabilities are not available b) Controls the start sequence and takes corrective action in the event of a start fault c) Has no function during a manual start d) Performs same function as during an automatic start

Provides ECAM start fault detection, however, automatic abort and crank capabilities are not available

During the automatic start sequence of ENG 1, you notice that only igniter A is powered. Is this normal?. a) Yes, igniter B is only used for engine anti-ice. b) No, normally both igniters are used for all engine starts. c) Yes, igniter A is always used for ENG 1 start. d) Yes, igniters are used alternately for automatic engine start, in this case igniter A

Yes, igniters are used alternately for automatic engine start, in this case igniter A.

Continuous ignition is NOT automatically provided for which of the following conditions? a) FLEX or TOGA thrust selected for takeoff b) FLAPS lever position other than 0 in flight c) Turbulent air d) Engine surge or stall in flight

Turbulent air

The FADEC controls all of the following except: a) engine limits. b) automatic and manual starting sequences. c) engine anti-ice. d) thrust reverser limits

engine anti-ice.

When the engines are running, the FADEC is powered by: a) a vortex generator. b) its own alternator. c) an internal battery. d) airplane electrical power

its own alternator

The FADEC normal control mode meters fuel to maintain a reference: a) EPR. b) N1. c) N2. d) RPM.

EPR

If the FADEC detects a non-normal condition during an automatic start with N2 below 50%, it will: a) send an ECAM signal to the LGCIU. b) require pilot action to resolve the abnormal condition. c) sound a horn in the nose wheel well. d) abort the start and auto-crank the engine

abort the start and auto-crank the engine.

The FADEC alternate control mode meters fuel to maintain a reference. a) EPR. b) N1. c) N2. d) RPM

If the EPR mode fails, the FADEC automatically reverts to the: a) EPR mode. b) N1 mode. c) N2 mode. d) RPM mode.

N1 mode

What protection is lost if the EPR mode fails? a) Alpha floor protection b) High angle of attack protection c) Roll protection d) Pitch protection

Alpha floor protection

What action is required if continuous ignition is required after the engines are started? a) The ENG MODE selector must be cycled to NORM and then back to IGN/START. b) Either thrust lever advanced to idle c) The FLAPS lever positioned to 0 d) The MAN START switch must be selected OFF and APU BLEED selected OFF.

a) The ENG MODE selector must be cycled to NORM and then back to IGN/START.

Which is NOT a source of air for engine start? a) PTU b) Ground cart c) Another engine d) APU

PTU

The engaged mode of the A/THR is displayed in ___ in Column 1 of the FMA. a) blue b) green c) amber d) magenta

green

Which is NOT a thrust lever position defined by a stop or detent? a) CL b) TO/GA c) FLX/MCT d) REV IDLE

d) REV IDLE

After recovery from an ALPHA FLOOR engagement, when angle of attack is reduced, ____ (surrounded by an amber box) is annunciated in green on the FMA. a) THR LK b) TOGA LK c) THR MCT d) SPEED

b) TOGA LK

With both engines running, the thrust levers are in the engagement range: a) when both thrust levers are just above idle but not above the CL detent. b) when both thrust levers are just above idle but not above the MCT detent. c) from idle to the TO/GA detent. d) from the CL detent to the TO/GA detent.

a) when both thrust levers are just above idle but not above the CL detent.

On the ground or in flight, autothrust arming is confirmed when A/THR is displayed in ____ in Column 5 of the FMA, and the A/THR button is illuminated on the FCU. a) blue b) white c) amber d) green

blue

The engagement range of the A/THR with one engine running is: a) from the IDLE detent to FLX/MCT detent. b) forward of IDLE detent to FLX/MCT detent. c) from reverse IDLE detent to FLX/MCT detent. d) forward of IDLE detent to CLB detent.

b) forward of IDLE detent to FLX/MCT detent.

How should you cancel an ENG THR LEVERS NOT SET caution during takeoff? a) Abort the takeoff. b) Quickly enter a FLEX temperature in the MCDU. c) Advance the thrust levers to TO/GA. d) Ensure the thrust levers are in the FLX/MCT detent.

c) Advance the thrust levers to TO/GA.

What does an illuminated ENG 1 FAULT light on the ENG panel indicate? a) FADEC fault b) Manual start aborted c) Primary fuel pump failure d) Automatic start aborted

d) Automatic start aborted

Holding an autothrust disconnect button for more than ___ seconds will cause a loss of ALPHA FLOOR protection for the remainder of the flight. a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) 30

c) 15

Verify a ____ bleed pressure indication during a Manual start. a) 25 psi. b) 30 psi. c) 35 psi. d) Green

d) Green

Which statement best describes the APU during the start process? a) Ignition is provided prior to the FLAP OPEN indication b) It is completely automatic once initiated c) Pilot must select the APU fuel pump ON prior to initiating the start sequence d) Can only be started with external power

b) It is completely automatic once initiated

During the preflight, you hear a horn in the nosewheel well. This may indicate: a) the cargo door is opening. b) the ENG MODE selector has been placed to the IGN/START position. c) the nosewheel steering has been engaged. d) an APU fire.

d) an APU fire.

What pilot action is required for an APU fire on the ground?. a) Follow ECAM procedure. APU auto shutdown and fire extinguishing is automatic. b) Turn APU start switch ON. c) Turn APU bleed switch ON. d) Push APU fire AGENT switch.

a) Follow ECAM procedure. APU auto shutdown and fire extinguishing is automatic.

The APU can be started using normal electrics up to: a) two minutes after takeoff. b) 10,000 feet. c) 20,000 feet. d) 39,000 feet.

d) 39,000 feet.

The majority of the APU's system logic is performed by the: a) Bleed Management Computer (BMC). b) Electronic Control Box (ECB). c) Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring System (ECAM). d) Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC).

b) Electronic Control Box (ECB).

When the APU MASTER switch is selected OFF, the APU may continue to run for up to ___ minute(s) to cool before shutting down: a) 1 b) 2 c) 5 d) 10

b) 2

Fuel is normally supplied to the APU from: a) the APU fuel pump. b) any fuel tank. c) the left fuel feed line. d) the right fuel feed line.

c) the left fuel feed line.

During the flight deck safety inspection flow, you notice an illuminated APU MASTER switch FAULT light. What does this indicate? a) APU generator is supplying less than rated voltage b) APU has shut down automatically c) Main galley has overheated d) APU generator drive shaft has sheared

b) APU has shut down automatically

The APU MASTER switch FAULT light illuminates amber when: a) the APU generator load is 100 percent. b) the APU generator voltage is 115V. c) an automatic APU shutdown occurs. d) he APU N indication is 95 percent.

c) an automatic APU shutdown occurs.

Why are both igniters powered during the ENG 1 start sequence shown on the graphic? a) The FADEC is testing both igniters before selecting the one to be used. b) This is a manual start and both igniters are always used c) Wing anti-ice has been selected on prior to engine start. d) Both igniters are always used for every start. (IMAGE SHOWS A & B IGNITERS FIRING DURING START)

b) This is a manual start and both igniters are always used

An APU automatic shutdown occurs, and the APU MASTER switch FAULT light illuminates for which of the following? a) High oil pressure b) Low oil temperature c) APU overspeed or underspeed d) APU air inlet flap not closed

c) APU overspeed or underspeed

How many fire extinguishers are associated with the avionics smoke detection system? a) One b) Two c) Three d) None

d) None

How does the cargo fire extinguishing system on the 319 differ from that on the 320? a) The 319 has one fire bottle that can be discharged in either the forward or aft cargo compartment. b) The 319 has two fire bottles that can be discharged in either the forward or aft cargo compartment. c) The 319 allows extinguishing in both the forward and aft compartments simultaneously. d) The 319 fire bottles discharges automatically at a predetermined temperature.

a) The 319 has one fire bottle that can be discharged in either the forward or aft cargo compartment

Failure of one of the two engine fire detection loops: a) renders the system inoperative. b) triggers an engine fire warning. c) leaves certain engine components unprotected. d) does not affect normal operation of the system.

d) does not affect normal operation of the system.

When will the APU fire protection system automatically shut down the APU and extinguish the fire? a) In flight b) On the ground c) Only with one or both engines running d) Only with external power connected

b) On the ground

Each lavatory is equipped with what type of fire protection/detection equipment? a) A waste bin extinguisher and a smoke detector b) A smoke detector and a handheld halon fire extinguisher c) A waste bin extinguisher only d) A handheld halon fire extinguisher

a) A waste bin extinguisher and a smoke detector

The 320 cargo compartments are fire protected by: a) one fire bottle. b) two fire bottles. c) three fire bottles. d) four fire bottles, two for each compartment.

b) two fire bottles.

The engines are protected by a dual fire detection loop system. In the event one of the loops fail, a) the other loop can detect a fire and generate a fire warning. b) you must manually switch to the operative loop. c) a fire warning will be generated for the associated engine. d) fire warning is not available for that engine.

a) the other loop can detect a fire and generate a fire warning.

How does the ENGINE FIRE switch affect the pneumatic system? a) It closes the engine bleed valve only. b) It closes the pack flow control valve only. c) The engine bleed valve and pack flow control valve remain as selected. d) It closes the engine bleed valve and the pack flow control valve.

d) It closes the engine bleed valve and the pack flow control valve.

When smoke is detected in a lavatory, a chime sounds in: a) the flight deck. b) all flight attendant loudspeakers. c) the nosewheel well. d) the lavatory.

b) all flight attendant loudspeakers.

Activation of the nosewheel well warning horn on the ground may be an indication of: a) a cargo fire. b) a lavatory fire. c) an engine fire. d) an APU fire.

d) an APU fire.

The second bottle of the 320 cargo fire extinguishing system can only be discharged: a) into the same cargo compartment as the first bottle. b) into a different cargo compartment than the first bottle. c) 30 minutes after the first bottle. d) after landing.

a) into the same cargo compartment as the first bottle.

When pressed, what function does the 320 CARGO SMOKE TEST button perform? a) Tests SMOKE lights once with associated ECAM. b) Tests SMOKE lights twice with associated ECAM. c) Opens the ventilation system isolation valves. d) Closes the avionics compartment inlet and extract valves.

b) Tests SMOKE lights twice with associated ECAM.

Which FAULT light(s) illuminate when avionics smoke is present? a) GEN 1 LINE SMOKE, BLOWER & EXTRACT FAULT lights b) EXTRACT FAULT light c) BLOWER FAULT light d) GEN 1 LINE SMOKE & BLOWER FAULT lights

a) GEN 1 LINE SMOKE, BLOWER & EXTRACT FAULT lights

What occurs if the engines are running and the ENG 1 FIRE switch is released? a) AGENT 1 bottle discharges. b) Engine 1 shuts down. c) AGENT 2 bottle discharges. d) A horn sounds in the nose wheel well.

b) Engine 1 shuts down.

What happens if you press the APU TEST button while the APU is running? a) The extinguisher bottle discharges. b) You will test the APU fire detection system, and the APU shuts down. c) Automatic shutdown of the APU on the ground may occur if the button is pushed for more than 3 seconds. d) APU fire detection system will not test.

c) Automatic shutdown of the APU on the ground may occur if the button is pushed for more than 3 seconds.

What occurs when the ENG 1 FIRE switch is released?. a) Both fire extinguishing agents arm, but do not discharge. b) Only one fire extinguishing agent arms. c) Both fire extinguishing agents discharge. d) AGENT 1 extinguisher discharges.

a) Both fire extinguishing agents arm, but do not discharge.

In the event of an engine fire, the associated ENG FIRE switch and ENG START panel FIRE light remain illuminated: a) as long as the respective fire warning is active. b) until the associated thrust lever is moved to IDLE. c) until the associated ENG FIRE switch is pushed. d) until the associated ENG MASTER switch is placed to OFF.

a) as long as the respective fire warning is active.

A break in both engine fire protection loops within 5 seconds: a) renders the system inoperative. b) triggers an engine fire warning. c) leaves certain engine components unprotected. d) does not affect normal operation of the system.

b) triggers an engine fire warning.

When does the DISCH AGENT 2 light illuminate on the 320 CARGO SMOKE panel? a) Immediately after AGENT 1 is discharged b) When the smoke is detected c) When the first part of the ECAM procedure is complete d) 60 minutes after AGENT 1 is discharged

d) 60 minutes after AGENT 1 is discharged

An engine fire warning appears when: a) the ECAM STS key is pushed. b) one loop detects a fire with a fault in the other loop. c) a break in both loops occurs within 30 seconds of each other. d) the ECAM ENG key is pushed.

b) one loop detects a fire with a fault in the other loop.

How is the lavatory trash bin fire extinguishing system activated? a) From the flight attendant fire panel b) From the flight deck fire panel c) Automatically d) From the lavatory fire panel

c) Automatically

What flight control surfaces do the ELACs normally control? a) Elevators and spoilers b) Ailerons, rudder and horizontal stabilizer c) Elevators, ailerons, and horizontal stabilizer d) Spoilers, flaps and slats

c) Elevators, ailerons, and horizontal stabilizer

Under which Non-Normal condition can the Airbus NOT be flown? a) Battery power only b) Mechanical backup c) Loss of all hydraulics d) AC BUS 1 & 2 failure

c) Loss of all hydraulics

Speed brakes should not be extended more than one-half when above FL ____ and less than Mach _____. a) 310/.75 b) 270/.75 c) 310/.70 d) 270/.70

a) 310/.75

What flight control surfaces do the SECs normally control? a) Elevators and spoilers b) Slats and spoilers c) Ailerons, elevators and horizontal stablilizer d) Spoilers

d) Spoilers

One of the three functions of the FACs is: a) pitch protection. b) roll protection. c) abnormal attitude protection. d) windshear detection.

d) windshear detection.

What happens to the ailerons during flap extension? a) Nothing, they remain streamlined. b) They droop 5 degrees with flaps extended. c) They droop proportional to airspeed. d) They droop proportional to the amount of flap extension.

b) They droop 5 degrees with flaps extended.

Which spoiler panels on each wing are used as ground spoilers? a) Four outboard panels b) All five panels c) Three middle panels d) Two outboard panels

b) All five panels

For automatic spoiler extension to occur during a rejected takeoff with the spoilers armed, a) the wheel speed must be greater than 72 knots with both thrust levers at forward idle. b) the wheel speed must be greater than 50 knots with both thrust levers at forward idle. c) both thrust levers must be in reverse. d) the autobrakes must be overridden via the foot pedals.

a) the wheel speed must be greater than 72 knots with both thrust levers at forward idle.

Speed brake extension is inhibited when: a) high speed protection is active. b) in flaps configuration full. c) in flaps configuration 3. d) in alternate law.

b) in flaps configuration full.

What happens to the spoilers if a SEC fault is detected or electrical power is lost? a) The affected spoiler automatically retracts. b) The affected spoiler automatically extends. c) All spoilers automatically retract. d) All spoilers automatically extend.

a) The affected spoiler automatically retracts.

For automatic spoiler extension to occur during landing, a) normal brakes must be operating. b) autobrakes must be selected. c) both thrust levers must be at forward idle with the spoilers armed. d) wheel speed must be less than 72 knots.

c) both thrust levers must be at forward idle with the spoilers armed.

If both ELACs fail, pitch control transfers to the: a) FACs. b) SECs. c) SFCCs. d) BSCUs.

b) SECs.

What happens to the stabilizer during rollout after a normal landing? a) Automatically trims to full nose down. b) Nothing, remains positioned where it was during the landing. c) Automatically trims to full nose up to aid in aerodynamic braking. d) Automatically trims to 0.

d) Automatically trims to 0.

Which hydraulic system(s) power the flaps? a) Green b) Blue and Yellow c) Green and Yellow d) Blue and Green

c) Green and Yellow

How are the slats/flaps affected if one SFCC fails? a) All flaps and slats operate at half speed. b) Flaps operate at half speed. c) Slats operate at half speed. d) Wing tip brakes lock flaps and slats.

a) All flaps and slats operate at half speed.

What effect does ALPHA LOCK have on the airplane? a) Automatically increases thrust to TO/GA b) Inhibits slat retraction at a high angle of attack or low airspeed c) Changes the PFD display d) Limits pitch to 30 degrees nose up

b) Inhibits slat retraction at a high angle of attack or low airspeed

Maximum flap speeds (UA limits) are: a) 230, 215, 200, 185, 177. b) 225, 210, 195, 180, 172. c) 220, 205, 190, 175, 167. d) 210, 200, 185, 170, 163.

c) 220, 205, 190, 175, 167.

Which protection is NOT a normal law protection? a) Load factor limitation b) Alpha lock c) High angle of attack protection d) Bank angle protection

b) Alpha lock

Which of the following is a characteristic of normal law pitch control in the flight mode? a) Normal law pitch mode is a load factor demand law. b) Pitch trim is only automatic with the autopilot engaged. c) Airplane attempts to maintain a certain angle of attack, compensating for pitch and bank angle. d) Pitch attitude protection limits are displayed with an amber x on the PFD.

a) Normal law pitch mode is a load factor demand law.

A degraded flight control law will always result in roll: a) direct law. b) alternate law. c) abnormal attitude law. d) mechanical backup.

a) direct law.

When is the normal law flight mode active? a) From liftoff to touchdown b) From liftoff until the flare mode engages during landing at 50 feet RA c) m TO/GA application to flare mode engagement at 50 feet RA d) From engine start to engine shutdown

b) From liftoff until the flare mode engages during landing at 50 feet RA

When is automatic pitch trim inhibited? a) When 25 degrees angle of bank is exceeded b) When the autopilot is engaged c) When angle of attack protection is active d) When the radio altitude is less than 2500 feet

c) When angle of attack protection is active

A degraded flight control law may be caused by: a) a single hydraulic system failure. b) alpha floor engagement. c) multiple system failures. d) high angle of attack protection.

c) multiple system failures.

Which of the following is one of the three high angle of attack protections? a) roll rate protection. b) alpha max. c) pitch rate protection. d) alpha flap.

b) alpha max.

Which of the following occurs when high angle of attack protection is active? a) Sidestick commands a load factor. b) Autopilot engages. c) Speed brakes retract. d) A/THR disconnects.

c) Speed brakes retract.

Which of the following is a characteristic of ALPHA FLOOR? a) Only occurs when airspeed is below alpha max. b) Commands TO/GA thrust regardless of thrust lever position. c) Is available in alternate law. d) Is available until touchdown in the landing configuration.

b) Commands TO/GA thrust regardless of thrust lever position.

If angle of attack protection is active, a) the side stick must be pushed forward to return to the normal mode. b) the speed brakes extend. c) the high angle of attack ECAM is complete. d) the autopilot is engaged.

a) the side stick must be pushed forward to return to the normal mode.

When could the low energy SPEED, SPEED, SPEED warning be triggered? a) When the airplane energy is insufficient to achieve a climbing flight path with pitch alone b) Only after TO/GA thrust is selected c) Only in the cruise phase d) Only if the airplane is in alternate law

a) When the airplane energy is insufficient to achieve a climbing flight path with pitch alone

High speed protection is deactivated when the: a) pilot pushes the stick forward. b) thrust levers are reduced to idle. c) airspeed returns to VMO with sidestick neutral. d) speed brakes are extended.

c) airspeed returns to VMO with sidestick neutral.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the flare mode? a) Engages at 100 feet RA b) Automatically reduces airplane pitch at 30 feet c) Eliminates the need for the pilot to flare d) Is available in direct law

b) Automatically reduces airplane pitch at 30 feet

When the landing gear is extended, pitch alternate law will: a) degrade to pitch direct law if autopilot is not engaged. b) stay in alternate law if autopilot is not engaged. c) degrade to pitch direct law with autopilot engaged. d) degrade to mechanical backup.

a) degrade to pitch direct law if autopilot is not engaged.

What occurs when the sidesticks are moved simultaneously? a) Inputs are sequentially summed. b) Inputs are nulled. c) Inputs are algebraically added. d) Inputs are geometrically subtracted.

c) Inputs are algebraically added.

When both sidesticks are moved simultaneously, the addition is limited to: a) single stick maximum deflection. b) single stick half deflection. c) both sticks maximum deflection. d) captain's stick normal deflection.

a) single stick maximum deflection.

What rudder trim inputs are required if an engine fails with the autopilot engaged? a) None, the autopilot will trim automatically. b) No rudder trim is available, the pilot must use the rudder pedals c) It must be trimmed manually. d) The rudder trim reset button must be pressed for 3 seconds.

a) None, the autopilot will trim automatically.

Which of the following is a characteristic of alternate law as a result of multiple failures of redundant systems? a) The flare mode is not available. b) The stick commands a roll rate. c) Pitch is a direct sidestick-to-elevator position relationship. d) High AOA Protection is operative.

a) The flare mode is not available.

Abnormal attitude law is caused by: a) multiple failures of redundant systems. b) triple ADR failure. c) exceeding high speed protection. d) airplane upset into an extreme attitude.

d) airplane upset into an extreme attitude.

The ailerons droop 5° when the: a) gear is extended. b) flaps are extended. c) slats are extended. d) flaps are unavailable.

b) flaps are extended.

Which computers control the flaps? a) ELACs b) SFCCs c) SECs d) FACs

b) SFCCs

The flaps are powered by which hydraulic system(s)? a) Green and Blue b) Green c) Green and Yellow d) Blue

c) Green and Yellow

The slats are powered by which hydraulic system(s)? a) Green and Blue b) Green c) Green and Yellow d) Blue

a) Green and Blue

The ECAM SPEED BRK memo flashes amber if: a) speed brakes are extended with thrust above idle. b) hydraulic pressure is low. c) loss of one or more spoilers occurs. d) speed brake deflection does not correspond to speed brake handle position.

a) speed brakes are extended with thrust above idle.

Which flight control protection is available in alternate law? a) Load factor protection b) High angle of attack protection c) Roll protection d) None

a) Load factor protection

What is the sidestick to surface relationship in the normal law ground mode? a) There is a direct stick to surface relationship. b) Stick commands a rate of movement. c) Exponential relationship is algebraically summed. d) Stick is inoperative in the ground mode.

a) There is a direct stick to surface relationship.

How is the rudder actuated? a) Electrically b) Mechanically c) Hydraulically d) Aerodynamically

c) Hydraulically

During a flaps full landing rollout with the spoilers deployed, what occurs if the speed brake handle is manually moved aft? a) Spoiler panels 2, 3, and 4 remain partially extended. b) Spoilers extend at half the normal rate. c) All spoiler panels retract. d) Spoiler panels 1 and 5 extend.

c) All spoiler panels retract.

Flap handle in position 1 will extend flaps and slats (1+F) when the: a) flaps are set to position 1 for takeoff. b) flap lever is moved from 0 to 1 in flight. c) airplane is at very slow airspeeds. d) speed brakes are extended.

a) flaps are set to position 1 for takeoff.

Normal law pitch attitude limits are displayed on the PFD by: a) amber x on the pitch scale. b) red on the pitch scale. c) green = on the pitch scale. d) white 30 on the pitch scale.

c) green = on the pitch scale.

Which protection is never displayed on the PFD speedtape? a) Alpha protection b) Alpha max c) Alpha floor d) High speed protection

c) Alpha floor

Flap position 1 will extend only the slats when the: a) flaps are set to position 1 for takeoff. b) flap lever is moved from 0 to 1 in flight. c) airplane is at very slow airspeeds. d) speed brakes are extended

b) flap lever is moved from 0 to 1 in flight.

Which of the following is a characteristic of normal roll law in the flight mode? a) Rudder input is required for turn coordination b) Stick inputs command a roll rate which is proportional to sidestick deflection c) Flight control surface deflection is directly proportional to stick input d) Ailerons are assisted by the elevators

b) Stick inputs command a roll rate which is proportional to sidestick deflection

What does an amber USE MAN PITCH TRIM on the PFD mean? a) Airplane is in pitch direct law. b) Airplane is in mechanical backup. c) Airplane is in alternate law and the autopilot IS engaged. d) Airplane is above 270 knots.

a) Airplane is in pitch direct law.

What occurs when the flight control law degrades to alternate law in flight?. a) Stick inputs in the pitch axis command an angle of attack. b) Stick inputs in the roll axis command a direct stick to surface movement. c) High angle of attack protection is available. d) High speed protection is available.

b) Stick inputs in the roll axis command a direct stick to surface movement.

Which of the following is a characteristic of direct law? a) The airplane must be flown with the autopilot on. b) The sidestick commands a roll rate. c) The gear must be manually extended. d) There are no protections provided.

d) There are no protections provided.

Loss of normal law is displayed on the PFD by: a) a green = symbol on the speed tape. b) a green O symbol on the speed tape. c) an amber x symbol on the bank angle scale. d) a red x.

c) an amber x symbol on the bank angle scale.

According to the graphic, what is the UA limit next flap extended speed? a) 250 b) 240 c) 230 d) 220 (Shows next flap speed at 230 knots on the PDF)

d) 220

What will occur if the sidestick takeover (priority) button is held for more than 40 seconds? a) The autothrust will disconnect. b) The flight directors will disconnect. c) The other sidestick will be latched. d) ALPHA FLOOR will be disabled.

c) The other sidestick will be latched.

What does amber PITCH TRIM on the F/CTL ECAM page indicate? a) Green system low pressure b) Yellow system low pressure c) Pitch trim jam d) Stabilizer is in the high speed position

c) Pitch trim jam

Which of the following is a characteristic of mechanical back-up?. a) Lateral and roll control is achieved with the sidestick. b) Pitch control is achieved by using the manual trim wheel. c) Hydraulic power is not required. d) Sidestick autotrim is only available in pitch.

b) Pitch control is achieved by using the manual trim wheel.

The beta target is displayed when: a) CONF 1- 3, either engine EPR exceeds 1.25, and difference between EPRs exceeds .25. b) single engine with flaps up. c) CONF Full and engine EPR exceeds 1.25. d) CONF 2 and difference between EPRs is less than .25

a) CONF 1 - 3, either engine EPR exceeds 1.25, and difference between EPRs exceeds .25.

What is the difference between alternate law ground mode and normal law ground mode? a) Pitch commands a load factor in normal law ground mode. b) There is no difference. c) Roll commands a roll rate in normal law ground mode. d) Rudder provides turn coordination in normal law ground mode.

b) There is no difference.

If the takeover (priority) button on both sidesticks are pushed, a) the first one activated assumes priority. b) the last one activated assumes priority. c) both sidesticks assume priority. d) both sidesticks relinquish priority.

b) the last one activated assumes priority.

You are in normal law hand-flying the airplane in a 30 degree bank turn and release the stick. What will occur? a) The bank angle will remain at 30 degrees. b) The bank angle will increase to 33 degrees. c) The bank angle will decrease to 27 degrees. d) The airplane will roll wings level.

a) The bank angle will remain at 30 degrees.

When the sidestick is released with angle of attack protection active, the: a) angle of attack returns to and maintains V alpha protection. b) angle of attack returns to and maintains V alpha max. c) airspeed increases to green dot. d) airspeed returns to speed selected on the FCU.

a) angle of attack returns to and maintains V alpha protection.

Illumination of the F/O's sidestick priority arrow indicates: a) the Captain has pushed his sidestick takeover (priority) button. b) the F/O has pushed his sidestick takeover (priority) button. c) the Captain's sidestick has failed. d) the F/O's sidestick has failed.

a) the Captain has pushed his sidestick takeover (priority) button.

What is the purpose of the sidesticks order indication? a) Allows pilots to observe commanded sidestick deflection during takeoff and landing roll. b) Allows pilots to observe commanded sidestick deflection during climb and descent phases. c) Indicates the rudder pedal deflections during the flight control check. d) Indicates the horizontal stabilizer during the flight control check.

a) Allows pilots to observe commanded sidestick deflection during takeoff and landing roll.

Degradation of the flight control laws to mechanical backup mode is caused by a: a) total hydraulic failure. b) triple ADR failure. c) complete loss of electronic flight control signals. d) dual input to the sidestick while in direct law.

c) complete loss of electronic flight control signals.

Where is Selected Altitude displayed on the altitude scale? a) Within a blue box on the altitude scale b) In the PFD altitude window in flashing magenta c) In the IVSI window d) At the bottom of the altitude scale in magenta

a) Within a blue box on the altitude scale

What does the amber = sign along the airspeed scale indicate? a) High speed protection b) Next flap extended speed (VFE next) c) Minimum flap retraction speed d) Minimum slat retraction speed

b) Next flap extended speed (VFE next)

Flying the Flight Path Vector (FPV) at 3 degrees below the attitude indicator horizon line will always produce: a) a 3 degree glidepath. b) level flight. c) a 1710 FPM descent. d) a descent dependent on external forces affecting the airplane.

a) a 3 degree glidepath.

With the flight path vector on the attitude indicator horizon line, the flight path angle of the airplane is ____ degrees. a) 0 b) 1 c) -1 d) Unknown

a) 0

The vertical deviation indicator is depicted on the PFD by the: a) yellow arrow along the speed scale. b) magenta o along the altitude scale. c) green 18 on the vertical speed scale. d) green needle on the vertical speed scale.

b) magenta o along the altitude scale.

Which ND mode displays the glideslope deviation diamond? a) ROSE VOR mode b) PLAN mode c) ARC mode d) ROSE ILS mode

d) ROSE ILS mode

The ground roll guidance command bar provides Flight Director yaw commands when: a) a localizer signal is available during takeoff. b) a non-precision approach is selected. c) the airplane is being vectored on downwind. d) the airplane is being taxied in low visibility weather.

a) a localizer signal is available during takeoff.

How is RWY TRK armed for takeoff? a) Selecting a runway in the flight plan b) Pushing the heading knob during takeoff c) Selecting a heading on the FCU d) Pulling the heading knob during takeoff

c) Selecting a heading on the FCU

What control will you use if the Captain's PFD, ND and upper ECAM screen have a diagonal line through them? a) Place ECAM/ND XFR selector to CAPT position. b) Place EIS DMC selector to F/O 3 position. c) Place EIS DMC selector to CAPT 3 position. d) Press the PFD/ND XFR button on the Captain's glareshield.

c) Place EIS DMC selector to CAPT 3 position.

If both autopilot buttons are selected on, what is the status of the FMGCs? a) FMGC 1 is the primary. b) FMGC 2 is the primary. c) The FMGCs revert to the single mode. d) The FMGCs revert to the independent mode.

a) FMGC 1 is the primary.

What is the normal FMGC mode of operation? a) Independent b) Single c) Dual d) Primary

c) Dual

How is flight path director guidance displayed on the PFD in the TRK-FPA mode? a) By a single guidance bar which combines the commands for pitch and bank angle b) The flight directors cannot be displayed in the TRK-FPA mode c) FD guidance is available as a conventional cross-bar d) TRK-FPA guidance can only be displayed during takeoff and landing

a) By a single guidance bar which combines the commands for pitch and bank angle

What are the three FMGC modes of operation? a) dual, independent and single b) primary, secondary and cross-talk c) primary, secondary and alternate d) lateral, vertical and managed

a) dual, independent and single

A DMC failure is indicated by a: a) blank DU screen. b) diagonal line on the associated display units. c) DU FAIL memo on the lower ECAM screen. d) continuous repetitive chime.

b) diagonal line on the associated display units.

If an INDEPENDENT OPERATION message appears on the MCDU, a) there is no coordination or validation of data and cross-check with raw data is recommended. b) the First Officer's navigational data is unusable since FMGC 1 is primary. c) the Captain's navigational data is unusable since FMGC 2 is primary. d) the cross-talk bus is activated to ensure validation of the data between FMGC 1 and FMGC 2.

a) there is no coordination or validation of data and cross-check with raw data is recommended.

How does the FMGC manipulate data in the DUAL mode of operation? a) Information is exchanged between both FMGCs for cross-comparison and validation. b) The cross-talk bus is nulled out to keep erroneous information from being inserted into the system. c) Entries on either MCDU are transmitted only to the onside FMGC. d) Both FMGCs are primary and act independently to display flight guidance information.

a) Information is exchanged between both FMGCs for cross-comparison and validation.

If a SET OFFSIDE RNG/MODE message appears on the ND, a) both NDs must be set to the same mode and range due to a single FMGC failure. b) the FMGCs are operating in the INDEPENDENT mode due to a cross-talk bus failure. c) the FMGCs are operating in the DUAL mode. d) both FMGCs are operating normally but are not comparing data.

a) both NDs must be set to the same mode and range due to a single FMGC failure.

Engagement of CLB mode requires which engaged lateral mode? a) HDG b) RWY TRK c) GA TRK d) NAV

d) NAV

Which vertical mode meets FMGC altitude constraints? a) OP CLB b) CLB c) V/S d) EXP CLB

b) CLB

What does a blue A/THR FMA in column 5 of the FMA indicate? a) Autothrust is armed b) Autothrust is engaged c) Autothrust is off d) Autothrust is in the N1 mode

a) Autothrust is armed

What happens to the vertical mode if a new altitude is selected on the FCU when ALT* is displayed? a) CLB or DES engages b) Current V/S engages c) Prior altitude is still captured d) Zero V/S engages

b) Current V/S engages

What is the managed speed when EXP CLB is selected? a) GRN DOT b) ECON CLB c) 250 kts d) .78 mach

a) GRN DOT

Pushing the HDG knob will arm which lateral mode? a) HDG b) NAV c) Direct d) LOC

b) NAV

Soft altitude is available in which FMGC phase of flight? a) CLB b) CRZ c) DES d) Go Around

b) CRZ

How does the flight path director provide pitch and roll guidance in the TRK-FPA mode? a) One pitch bar and one roll bar b) A single guidance bar for pitch and roll c) F/D is not available in TRK-FPA d) Magenta diamonds for pitch and roll

b) A single guidance bar for pitch and roll

(NEO) A center tank transfer pump fault light indicates: a) the associated wing tank overflows b) low pump pressure c) the center tank is empty d) a wing tank pump has failed

a) the associated wing tank overflows

The engaged vertical and lateral modes of the FMA are displayed in what color? a) Blue b) Green c) White d) Magenta

b) Green

The fuel crossfeed valve is normally: a) closed b) open c) closed, except during engine start d) open, except during engine start

a) closed

Engines can be gravity-fed from the: a) wing tanks only. b) surge tanks only. c) center tank only. d) auxiliary tanks only.

a) wing tanks only.

Each vent surge and inner wing tank is equipped with an over-pressure burst disk that: a) contaminates the fuel system if ruptured. b) affects the structural integrity of the airplane if ruptured. c) ruptures if internal and external pressure differential exceeds a predetermined level. d) leaks fuel onto the ground if ruptured

c) ruptures if internal and external pressure differential exceeds a predetermined level.

In flight with slats retracted, how is fuel sequenced to the engines with fuel in all tanks? a) Center tank pumps feed the engines first. b) Wing tank pumps feed the engines first. c) Center and wing tank pumps alternate engine feed. d) Center and wing tank pumps feed the engines simultaneously.

a) Center tank pumps feed the engines first.

The fuel system is designed so normal fuel feed sequencing is: a) automatic. b) manual. c) recirculated. d) redundant.

a) automatic.

What happens when the fuel quantity reaches 1650 pounds in either inner wing compartment? a) At least one transfer valve in each wing opens. b) The center tank pumps turn off. c) The wing tank pumps turn off. d) The fuel recirculation stops.

a) At least one transfer valve in each wing opens.

The fuel recirculation system uses fuel supplied to each engine for cooling the: a) FADEC b) PTU c) IDG oil d) BSCU

c) IDG oil

What is the maximum allowable fuel imbalance between inner tanks (Inflight and Landing) if the heavier tank is full? a) 3,000 pounds b) 3,300 pounds c) 4,100 pounds d) 5,200 pounds

b) 3,300 pounds

When will the center tank begin to feed the engines after takeoff (if there is fuel in the center tank)? a) When the landing gear is retracted b) When the crew turns the pumps on c) When the slats are retracted d) At first thrust reduction

c) When the slats are retracted

IDG heat exchanger return fuel is routed to the fuel return valve and then to the: a) center tank. b) wing tank outer compartments. c) wing tank inner compartments. d) surge tanks.

b) wing tank outer compartments.

What happens to the center tank fuel pumps (if there is fuel in the tank) after each engine is started?. a) Center tank pumps will run for two minutes after each engine reaches idle to verify operation. b) Center tank pumps are inoperative. c) Center tank pumps will run until speedbrakes are armed. d) Center tank pumps will run until TO CONFIG button is pushed.

a) Center tank pumps will run for two minutes after each engine reaches idle to verify operation.

What happens when the recirculation fuel has filled a wing tank and the center tank is supplying fuel to the engines? a) The center tank pump shuts off until approximately 1100 pounds of fuel has been burned out of the wing tank. b) The wing tank outer compartments spill into the surge tanks. c) The over pressure protection system is activated. d) The wing inner compartments transfer approximately 1650 pounds of fuel to the outer compartments.

a) The center tank pump shuts off until approximately 1100 pounds of fuel has been burned out of the wing tank.

A fuel MODE SEL FAULT light indicates: a) left or right wing tank has less than 550 pounds of fuel and center tank has more than 11,000 pounds. b) left or right wing tank has more than 550 pounds of fuel and center tank has less than 11,000 pounds. c) center tank has more than 550 pounds of fuel and the left or right wing tank has less than 11,000 pounds. d) center tank has less than 550 pounds of fuel and the left or right wing tank has less than 11,000 pounds.

c) center tank has more than 550 pounds of fuel and the left or right wing tank has less than 11,000 pounds.

A fuel pump FAULT light indicates: a) the fuel pump is in MAN mode. b) fuel pump low pressure. c) fuel pump over pressure. d) a fuel pump X FEED failure.

b) fuel pump low pressure.

With the fuel MODE SEL Switch in MAN, and the CTR TK pump switches ON, what is the effect on the center tank fuel pumps? a) There is no effect on the center tank pumps. b) The center tank pumps run continuously until turned off with the CTR TK PUMP switches. c) The center tank pumps will not operate unless the MODE SEL switch is in AUTO. d) The center tank pumps may or may not run depending on the position of the slats

b) The center tank pumps run continuously until turned off with the CTR TK PUMP switches.

What do double dashes displayed over the last two digits of the fuel on board (FOB) indication mean? a) Not all fuel aboard is usable. b) The fuel quantity indication is still operative but inaccurate. c) A disagreement has been detected between fuel measured and fuel entered on the MCDU. d) The outer wing tank fuel is unusable.

b) The fuel quantity indication is still operative but inaccurate.

In flight, with fuel MODE SEL in AUTO, and fuel in the center tank, what happens to the center tank pumps? a) Run continuously until the engines are shut down. b) Run only if slats are extended. c) Run only if the slats are retracted. d) Run only after the airplane is airborne.

c) Run only if the slats are retracted.

With the fuel MODE SEL switch in AUTO, both center tank pumps run (if there is fuel in the tank) for __ minute(s) after each engine reaches idle to verify operation. a) 1 b) 2 c) 5 d) 10

b) 2

The PTU is inhibited: a) with the parking brake off and one engine master switch on. b) with the nose wheel steering disconnect pin installed and only one engine master switch on. c) with the parking brake off and both engine master switches on. d) in flight.

b) with the nose wheel steering disconnect pin installed and only one engine master switch on.

In reference to fuel quantity indications, if a fuel imbalance greater than 3300 pounds is detected, indications of the wing inner and outer tanks with the highest fuel level: a) are unreliable. b) pulse green. c) pulse amber. d) are steady red.

b) pulse green.

A low fuel level warning may be triggered during steep descents, accelerations, or decelerations due to: a) the transfer valves opening with more than 1650 pounds of fuel in each inner tank. b) an engine low pressure fuel valve closing, shutting off fuel from the inner tank. c) an overpressure disk rupturing due to excessive differential internal and external pressure. d) the recirculation system supplying fuel to a fuel tank inner compartment.

a) the transfer valves opening with more than 1650 pounds of fuel in each inner tank.

In flight, an ENG 1 PUMP or ENG 2 PUMP FAULT light, in addition to a PTU FAULT light is an indication of a green or yellow hydraulic ______ problem. a) pump b) valve c) switch d) reservoir

d) reservoir

Which one of the following would cause an amber half box to appear around the FOB on the upper ECAM display when fuel quantity is not fully usable? a) Transfer valve failure b) One center tank pump fails c) Loss of both wing tank pumps on one side d) Unreliable fuel quantity

a) Transfer valve failure

Which hydraulic pumps are running after Number 1 engine start? a) Green and blue b) Green c) Green and yellow d) Blue and yellow

a) Green and blue

Approximately how long is the PTU inhibited after cargo door operation? a) 40 seconds b) 90 seconds c) Two minutes d) No waiting required

a) 40 seconds

The RAT can be deployed for emergency use to pressurize which hydraulic system? a) Green b) Yellow c) Blue d) Red

c) Blue

Which hydraulic pump NORMALLY powers the cargo doors? a) Yellow hand pump b) Blue electric pump c) Yellow engine pump d) Yellow electric pump

d) Yellow electric pump

When is the blue hydraulic system pressurized? a) As soon as the PTU is turned on b) As soon as the blue electric pump is manually turned on c) Automatic with first engine start d) As soon as the priority valve opens

c) Automatic with first engine start

Which hydraulic system(s) can be powered by the PTU? a) Green or yellow b) Blue and green c) Yellow system only d) Green system only

a) Green or yellow

If the ENG 2 FIRE switch is released out, a) the PTU pressurizes the yellow system. b) the yellow hydraulic system is inoperative. c) the yellow electric pump pressurizes the yellow system. d) the blue electric pump pressurizes the yellow system.

a) the PTU pressurizes the yellow system.

Which hydraulic systems have electric pumps? a) Green and yellow b) Blue and green c) Blue and yellow d) Blue, green and yellow

c) Blue and yellow

In flight a PTU FAULT light, in addition to an ENG 2 PUMP FAULT light, could indicate a: a) Blue hydraulic reservoir overheat. b) Yellow hydraulic pump failure. c) Yellow hydraulic reservoir low fluid level. d) Blue electric pump failure.

c) Yellow hydraulic reservoir low fluid level.

What is the purpose of the PTU? a) Pressurizes the blue system via the RAT. b) Enables the green system to pressurize the yellow system and vice versa. c) Enables the green system to pressurize the blue system and vice versa. d) Maintains pressure in the green system with loss of electrical power.

b) Enables the green system to pressurize the yellow system and vice versa.

The PTU is a reversible motor pump located between the: a) Blue and Yellow hydraulic systems b) Green and Blue hydraulic systems c) Green and Yellow hydraulic systems d) Yellow and Blue hydraulic systems

c) Green and Yellow hydraulic systems

When does the RAT automatically extend? a) Any time the batteries are switched off above 100 knots b) When the APU generator is the only source of power c) When there is a dual IRS failure d) With speed above 100 knots and loss of AC busses 1 and 2

d) With speed above 100 knots and loss of AC busses 1 and 2

What can be deployed as an emergency means of pressurizing the blue hydraulic system? a) PTU b) RAT c) Standby electric pump d) No alternate means exist

b) RAT

What does the RAT MAN ON switch do? a) Stows the RAT after automatic extension. b) Extends the RAT and pressurizes the blue system. c) Tests the RAT. d) Extends the RAT and activates the emergency generator. On hydraulics panel.

b) Extends the RAT and pressurizes the blue system.

The normal hydraulic system operating pressure for the green hydraulic system is ___ PSI. a) 2500 b) 3000 c) 3200 d) 3300

b) 3000

The normal hydraulic system operating pressure for the yellow hydraulic system is ___ PSI. a) 2500 b) 3000 c) 3200 d) 3300

b) 3000

The RAT pressurizes the blue hydraulic system to approximately ___ PSI. a) 2500 b) 3000 c) 3200 d) 3300

a) 2500

The maximum hydraulic system operating pressure is _____ PSI. a) 2500 +/- 200 b) 3000 +/- 200 c) 3200 +/- 100 d) 3400

b) 3000 +/- 200

In flight, in addition to the PTU FAULT light, what other Fault light will illuminate for a green or yellow system reservoir problem? a) ENG 1 or 2 PUMP FAULT light b) BLUE ELEC PUMP FAULT light c) YELLOW ELEC PUMP ON light d) ENG 1 or 2 PUMP OFF light

a) ENG 1 or 2 PUMP FAULT light

What device is used to shut off hydraulic power to heavy users if system pressure drops below a predetermined value? a) ENG FIRE switch b) LAF Accumulator c) Priority Valve d) PTU

c) Priority Valve

At what PSI would you expect to see with the RAT extended? a) 2500 on the blue system b) 2500 on the yellow system c) 3000 on the blue system d) 2500 on the green system

a) 2500 on the blue system

What does the amber PTU indication mean? a) The PTU is switched off. b) The PTU is supplying the green system. c) The PTU is supplying the yellow system. d) The PTU has overheated.

a) The PTU is switched off.

The PTU is automatically activated when there is a ___ PSI differential pressure between the _____ and _____ systems. a) 250, green, yellow b) 500, blue, yellow c) 500, blue, green d) 500, green, yellow

d) 500, green, yellow

Which hydraulic system(s) provides pressure for the NORMAL brakes? a) Green b) Blue c) Yellow d) Green and Yellow

a) Green

What initiates autobraking during landing? a) Ground spoiler extension command b) Main landing gear compression c) Thrust reversers unlocked d) Nose gear compression

a) Ground spoiler extension command

What type of brakes are available with only a green hydraulic failure? a) Standby brakes with antiskid b) Alternate brakes without antiskid c) Alternate brakes with antiskid d) Accumulator brakes without antiskid

c) Alternate brakes with antiskid

Which hydraulic system(s) provides pressure for the ALTERNATE brakes? a) Green b) Blue c) Yellow d) Green and Yellow

c) Yellow

Which hydraulic system is used for the parking brake? a) Green b) Yellow c) Blue d) Green or Yellow

b) Yellow

With a green hydraulic system failure only, which brake system is not available?. a) Parking brake b) Antiskid c) Autobrakes d) Accumulator brakes

c) Autobrakes

A brake accumulator provides at least _____ full brake applications: a) 7 b) 8 c) 9 d) 10

a) 7

The maximum speed for landing gear extension (UAL) is _____ knots. a) 220 b) 230 c) 240 d) 250

c) 240

The landing gear hydraulic safety valve is controlled by: a) FACs. b) the BSCU. c) the gear lever and ADIRU 1 and/or 3. d) ADIRU 2.

c) the gear lever and ADIRU 1 and/or 3.

Which statement best describes the use of the Green hydraulic system as it relates to normal landing gear extension?. a) Nose gear wheel spin is stopped by hydraulic pressure during gear retraction. b) The landing gear is held up hydraulically. c) The hydraulic system remains pressurized with the gear extended. d) Hydraulic interlocks allow the gear handle to be raised on the ground with either shock absorber compressed.

c) The hydraulic system remains pressurized with the gear extended.

The BSCUs control: a) alternate brakes without antiskid. b) antiskid operation. c) flap retraction. d) landing gear extension/retraction.

b) antiskid operation.

The antiskid system is deactivated with: a) groundspeed less than 20 knots. b) A/SKID and N/W STRG switch ON. c) a single BSCU failure. d) a single LGCIU failure.

a) groundspeed less than 20 knots.

The autobrake system can be disarmed by: a) applying sufficient brake pedal pressure to one pedal. b) disconnecting the autopilot. c) engaging nose wheel steering. d) arming the spoilers.

a) applying sufficient brake pedal pressure to one pedal.

What occurs when the rudder PEDALS DISC button is pressed? a) Nose wheel steering using the tiller is disconnected. b) Rudder pedal control of nosewheel steering is disconnected. c) Nose wheel steering is removed for the remainder of the flight. d) Only the rudder pedals may be used for steering.

b) Rudder pedal control of nosewheel steering is disconnected.

The brake pressure indication on the BRAKES and ACCU PRESS INDICATOR indicates pressure from what system? a) Blue b) Green c) Yellow d) Normal brakes

c) Yellow

Which of the following is a characteristic of landing gear gravity extension? a) Nosewheel steering is deactivated. b) Landing gear doors close after the third turn of the hand crank. c) Hydraulic pressure locks the landing gear in the down position. d) The gear is unlocked when the landing gear lever is placed in the DOWN position

a) Nosewheel steering is deactivated.

With the Landing Gear not down, what causes the red landing gear DOWN arrow to illuminate? a) RA less than 750 feet with power at approach settings and flaps not at 0 (zero). b) RA above 750 feet with Flaps 2 selected. c) RA below 750 feet with both engines above 90% N1. d) Flaps 2 or FULL with one radio altimeter failed.

a) RA less than 750 feet with power at approach settings and flaps not at 0 (zero).

What crew action is required with loss of normal braking and failure of the antiskid? a) Turn off the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch. b) Monitor the brake pressure using the BRAKES and ACCU PRESS indicator. c) Charge the yellow system accumulator. d) Turn off the autobrakes.

b) Monitor the brake pressure using the BRAKES and ACCU PRESS indicator.

What does an illuminated DECEL light on the AUTO/BRK Panel indicate? a) Autobrakes are engaged. b) Pilot must manually brake the airplane due to an autobrake failure. c) Actual airplane deceleration is 80% of selected rate. d) Autobrakes are armed in flight.

c) Actual airplane deceleration is 80% of selected rate.

How do you stop an airplane with a failed parking brake, during engine start? a) Release the PARK BRK handle, turn the A/SKID & NW STRG swirch OFF, and restore braking with the brake pedals. b) Cycle the PARK BRK handle to engage the accumulator. c) Restore braking with the brake pedals. d) Engage the nose wheel horn to signal the mechanic to chock the wheels.

c) Restore braking with the brake pedals.

The landing gear DOWN arrow illuminates red with associated ECAM L/G GEAR NOT DOWN warning if the landing gear is not down and: a) radio altitude below 750 feet with the power at approach settings and flaps 0. b) flaps 3 or FULL selected with both radio altimeters inoperative. c) radio altitude below 1000 feet with the power at approach settings and flaps 0. d) flaps 2 selected with both radio altimeters inoperative.

b) flaps 3 or FULL selected with both radio altimeters inoperative.

Which hydraulic system(s) extends and retracts the landing gear? a) Green b) Yellow c) Blue d) Green and yellow

a) Green

What does an amber NW STRG DISC memo indicate? a) The A/SKID & N/W STRG switch is in the OFF position. b) The nose gear steering has been deactivated for towing and the first engine is started. c) A failure in the nose wheel steering system has been detected d) There is a discrepancy between the two nose wheel steering tiller positions.

b) The nose gear steering has been deactivated for towing and the first engine is started.

There are two triangles for each gear on the ECAM WHEEL page. What do they represent? a) Each triangle represents the gear position detected by one of the two LGCIUs. b) Each triangle represents one wheel on the gear. c) Each triangle represents one of the braking systems available for that gear. d) The front triangle represents the gear and the back triangle represents the brakes.

a) Each triangle represents the gear position detected by one of the two LGCIUs.

Which landing gear system is lost with loss of the GREEN hydraulic system? a) Nose wheel steering b) Alternate brakes c) Accumulator brakes d) Parking brake

a) Nose wheel steering

Landing gear extension and retraction is electrically controlled by: a) LGCIU 1 b) LGCIU 2 c) LGCIU 1 or 2 d) BSCU

c) LGCIU 1 or 2

What does the green NW STRG DISC ECAM memo indicate? a) A lever on the towing electrical box is in the towing position and the nose wheel steering system is deactivated. b) A discontinuity failure in the nose wheel steering system has been detected. c) The nose wheel steering system is fully functional and is being used by the pilot to steer the airplane. d) The nose wheel steering computer has finished its self-test.

a) A lever on the towing electrical box is in the towing position and the nose wheel steering system is deactivated.

Which system is not active if a takeoff is rejected below 72 knots? a) Antiskid b) Autobrake c) Normal brakes d) Nose wheel steering

b) Autobrake

After landing, where would you look to find the actual brake temperature? a) In the Flight Manual tables b) On the temperature gauge located on each main wheel assembly c) On the ECAM WHEEL page d) On the maintenance panel located in the left main wheel well

c) On the ECAM WHEEL page

What happens when you push the ECAM EMER CANC button when a red ECAM WARNING is active? a) Present aural warning is cancelled. b) MASTER WARN lights flash continuously. c) All ECAM messages are cancelled. d) RCL button will no longer function for the remainder of the flight.

a) Present aural warning is cancelled.

Which item is NOT inhibited by the T.O. INHIBIT system? a) SMOKE FWD (AFT) CARGO SMOKE b) ENG 1(2) OIL LO PR c) ELEC DC BUS 1 FAULT d) BRAKES A/SKID NWS FAULT

b) ENG 1(2) OIL LO PR

When is T.O. INHIBIT active? a) From takeoff power application to 1500 feet AGL or two minutes after takeoff b) From takeoff power application to 3000 feet AGL or three minutes after takeoff c) After engine start d) When the slats are extended

a) From takeoff power application to 1500 feet AGL or two minutes after takeoff

Which of the following is a characteristic of the ECAM status page? a) Displayed manually by pushing STS button on the ECAM control panel. b) An aural warning accompanies the status page. c) Displays automatically at periodic intervals during the cruise phase of flight. d) Displays NORMAL if no active status messages exist when the CLR button is pushed.

a) Displayed manually by pushing STS button on the ECAM control panel.

What happens if the upper ECAM screen fails? a) E/WD data automatically transfers to the First Officer's ND. b) E/WD data automatically transfers to the SD. c) E/WD data automatically transfers to the Captain's ND. d) Upper ECAM data is lost.

b) E/WD data automatically transfers to the SD.

If the lower ECAM screen fails, what crew action is required to view the data normally contained on the screen? a) SD data can be displayed on the First Officer's ND by pushing and holding any SYS button. b) SD data can be displayed on the Captain's ND by pushing and holding any SYS button. c) None. Data automatically transfers to the upper ECAM screen. d) SD data can be displayed on the upper ECAM by pushing and holding any SYS button.

d) SD data can be displayed on the upper ECAM by pushing and holding any SYS button.

What type of aural warning accompanies a level 2 ECAM? a) A single chime b) A continuous repetitive chime c) The calvary charge d) A triple click

a) A single chime

A triple click aural signal indicates: a) SELCAL b) altitude alert c) landing capability change d) low energy warning

c) landing capability change

A cavalry charge aural signal indicates: a) Level 2 ECAM b) Altitude alert c) Landing capability change d) A/P disconnected

d) A/P disconnected

A continuous repetitive chime, or specific sound, or synthetic voice indicates: a) Level 3 ECAM b) Level 2 ECAM c) Altitude alert d) A/P disconnected

a) Level 3 ECAM

All of the following are tested by the T.O. CONFIG button except: a) CONFIG SLATS (FLAPS) NOT IN T.O. CONFIG. b) DOORS. c) BRAKES HOT. d) CAB PR LO DIFF PR.

d) CAB PR LO DIFF PR.

Which of the following is NOT inhibited by the T.O. INHIBIT? a) F/CTL L(R) SIDESTICK FAULT b) NAV IR 1(2)(3) FAULT c) HYD RAT FAULT d) AIR PACK 1(2) FAULT

a) F/CTL L(R) SIDESTICK FAULT

What does pushing the T.O. CONFIG button on the ECAM control panel do? a) Resets the landing gear and flap logic to avoid inadvertent spoiler extension during takeoff and gear retraction. b) Aligns the configuration of the aircraft navigation system to the proper runway coordinates for takeoff. c) Simulates an airborne condition to verify proper configuration of the left and right pitot static systems. d) Simulates takeoff power application to trigger a warning if the aircraft is not properly configured for takeoff.

d) Simulates takeoff power application to trigger a warning if the aircraft is not properly configured for takeoff.

When is LAND INHIBIT active? a) From 1500 feet AGL to touchdown b) From 800 feet AGL to 80 knots c) From beginning of descent phase to touchdown d) From slat extension to touchdown

b) From 800 feet AGL to 80 knots

What aural warning is heard when the MASTER CAUT light illuminates? a) Continuous repetitive chime (CRC) b) Single chime c) Calvary charge d) Triple click

b) Single chime

You can recall a cleared ECAM by pressing: a) the RCL button. b) and holding the CLR button for 3 seconds. c) the EMER CANC button. d) the ALL button.

a) the RCL button.

Blue colored text on the ECAM screen signifies: a) normal long-term operation. b) special messages and limitations. c) actions to be accomplished, or limitations. d) titles and remarks.

c) actions to be accomplished, or limitations.

Red colored text on the ECAM screen signifies: a) normal long-term operation. b) actions to be carried out on the ground. c) awareness but not immediate action. d) immediate action required.

d) immediate action required.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a level 3 ECAM? a) Requires immediate action. b) Indicates a system failure not affecting flight safety. c) Is accompanied by a yellow warning message on ECAM E/WD. d) Is accompanied by a single chime aural indication.

a) Requires immediate action.

The ECAM message NW STRG DISC changes from green to amber after: a) a nose wheel steering failure. b) nose wheel steering is disconnected. c) the first engine start. d) a green hydraulic failure.

c) the first engine start.

What is the purpose of the T.O. INHIBIT system? a) Eliminates unnecessary distractions during takeoff b) Prevents takeoff with an unsafe situation. c) Prevents cockpit entry during takeoff and landing. d) Suppresses critical system information.

a) Eliminates unnecessary distractions during takeoff

Which of the following would cause an ENG THR LEVERS NOT SET warning during takeoff? a) Thrust levers are in the TOGA detent and a flex temperature was not entered into the TAKEOFF performance page. b) Thrust levers are in the FLX/MCT detent and a flex temperature was not entered into the TAKEOFF performance page. c) Thrust levers are in the FLX/MCT detent and the entered flex temperature is more than sensed OAT. d) Thrust levers are in the FLX/MCT detent and a flex temperature was not entered into the INIT A page.

b) Thrust levers are in the FLX/MCT detent and a flex temperature was not entered into the TAKEOFF performance page.

A blue item on the takeoff memo indicates a checklist item that is: a) to be accomplished. b) complete. c) faulted. d) in a test subroutine.

a) to be accomplished.

A green arrow at the bottom of an ECAM E/WD memo section indicates: a) more than one page of alert messages is available for display. b) you should descend as a result of the malfunction. c) you are low on fuel. d) there is additional information on the lower ECAM screen.

a) more than one page of alert messages is available for display.

If normal electrical power is lost, essential cockpit lighting is maintained for the: a) F/O's instrument panel (powered CRTs and flood lighting). b) Captain's instrument panel (powered CRTs and flood lighting), standby compass, right dome light. c) overhead panel. d) both dome lights.

b) Captain's instrument panel (powered CRTs and flood lighting), standby compass, right dome light.

The AUTO position of the NO SMOKING switch causes which of the following signs to illuminate when the landing gear is extended and extinguish when the landing gear is retracted? a) NO SMOKING and EXIT b) NO SMOKING and FASTEN SEAT BELT c) EXIT and FASTEN SEAT BELT d) EXIT and RETURN TO YOUR SEAT

a) NO SMOKING and EXIT

The use of A/P or FD in OPEN DES or DES is limited to: a) the higher of 1000 ft or MDA/MDH. b) the lower of 1000 ft or MDA/MDH. c) 1500 ft or missed approach altitude. d) no altitude restrictions.

a) the higher of 1000 ft or MDA/MDH.

If severe turbulence is anticipated, the PF should target _____ while the PM references the table for best penetration speed. a) .72 Mach b) .74 Mach c) .76 Mach d) .78 Mach

c) .76 Mach

The maximum allowable tailwind speed at takeoff for the (319) is ____ knots. a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) 20

b) 10

The minimum altitude for autopilot engagement for (NEO) with F-G/S is: a) 50 feet AGL. b) 80 feet AGL. c) 100 feet AGL. d) 200 feet AGL.

d) 200 feet AGL.

(319/320) The minimum oil quantity required before engine start is ____ quarts. a) 12 b) 14 c) 16 d) 18

b) 14

The maximum crosswind for takeoff or landing for either a narrow or normal width runway with dry runway conditions is: a) 19 b) 25 c) 33 d) 38

d) 38

The maximum allowable tailwind speed at takeoff for the (320) (Except N4901U and N1902U) is: a) 5 knots b) 10 knots c) 15 knots d) 20 knots

c) 15 knots

The maximum allowable tailwind speed at takeoff for the (NEO) is: a) 5 knots b) 10 knots c) 15 knots d) 20 knots

c) 15 knots

(NEO) The minimum oil quantity at or above -30°C before engine start is ____ quarts. a) 12 b) 14 c) 16 d) 18

b) 14

The minimum altitude for autopilot engagement with FINAL APP or FPA is: a) 100 feet AGL. b) 150 feet AGL. c) 250 feet AGL. d) 300 feet AGL.

c) 250 feet AGL.

The minimum altitude for autopilot engaged after takeoff is: a) 50 feet AGL. b) 100 feet AGL. c) 150 feet AGL. d) 200 feet AGL.

b) 100 feet AGL.

The minimum altitude for the autopilot to be engaged during a nonautoland ILS with a CAT 2 or CAT 3 FMA is: a) 40 feet AGL. b) 80 feet AGL. c) 100 feet AGL. d) 120 feet AGL.

b) 80 feet AGL.

Icing conditions exist on the ground and for takeoff when visible moisture is present and the outside temperature is ___ degrees C OAT or below. a) 0 b) 5 c) 10 d) 15

c) 10

When must engine anti-ice be turned on in flight during descent/approach? a) When ice buildup is visible from the cockpit b) Any time the outside air temperature is 10 degrees C or below c) When the total air temperature is 10 degrees C or below in clouds, fog/mist with visibility of one mile or less, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals d) During descent when the outside air temperature is -10 degrees C or below

c) When the total air temperature is 10 degrees C or below in clouds, fog/mist with visibility of one mile or less, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals

Icing conditions exist in flight during descent/approach when visible moisture is present and the total air temperature is at or below ___ degrees C. a) 0 b) 5 c) 10 d) 15

c) 10

The maximum operating altitude is ____feet from -70C to -30C. a) 38,100 b) 39,000 c) 39,100 d) 39,900

c) 39,100

The maximum operating limit speed (VMO) is ___ KIAS. a) 350 b) 375 c) 400 d) 425

a) 350

The maximum operating limit speed (MMO) is ____ Mach. a) .80 b) .82 c) .84 d) .86

b) .82

The maximum structural weight for landing for the 319 is ____pounds. a) 134,000 b) 137,700 c) 142,200 d) 154,300

b) 137,700

The maximum structural weight for landing for the 320 is ____pounds. a) 122,200 b) 134,000 c) 137,700 d) 142,200

d) 142,200

The minimum altitude for the autopilot to be engaged during a nonautoland ILS approach with CAT 1 FMA is ____ feet AGL. a) 80 b) 120 c) 160 d) 180

c) 160

The maximum flaps/slats extended altitude is ____ feet MSL. a) 15,000 b) 17,000 c) 19,000 d) 20,000

d) 20,000

Systems Validation Flashcards

Rev: Oct 15, 2025 (427 cards)