State Milton Friedman’s quantity theory of money.
Where:
r… = interest rates on money, bonds and equities.
Thing with the derivative is the expected inflation rate. (Also cost of holding assets).
wt = share of wealth in non-human form.
ug = Liquidity preference & other tastes.

How can milton friedman’s equation be restated for real money and M/P?
M/P = Remove Yt/Pt.
M/Y = Make Use Pt/Yt instead of Yt/Pt.
Show how an expansion in the money supply works through in the monetarist perspective in an ISLM model with nominal interest rates.

What is the philips curve?

What happened to the Philips curve in the 70’s and 80’s?
It disappeared.

How can the supposed disapearence of the philips curve be explained?
(From the 60’s to the 80’s.)
There is a long run level of unemployment, that the short run philips curve shifts around.
In a dynamic model with constand money growth, consider the effects of an increase in the rate of that growth, from 5% to 10%, where the economy grows at 2% in real terms.

What is superneutrality?
Why did the german economy undergo hyperinflation?
What are the three sources of hyperinflation?
What are Philip Cagans puzzles?
Summarise Cagan’s model.
Addresses his ‘puzzles’ by stating:
Formalize Cagan’s Model
Et = βCt-1 + (1-β)Et-1
Where E = Expected price change.
C = Actual price change.
So by substitution:
Et = βCt-1 + β(1-β)Et- + β(1-β)2Ct-3
i.e. People form their expectations with a weighting on the most recent periods.
How does Cagan’s model compare to Milton’s?
Cagan emphasises Friedman’s point that the cost of holding money is given by an expectation, by estimating:

Descriptively, how does Cagan see expected inflation?
How do monetists see the printing of money by governments?