1
Q
What does the skeletal system contain?
A
Bones, cartilage, ligaments, other connective tissues
2
Q
What are the 6 functions of the skeletal system?
A
Support, protection, leverage, mineral homeostasis, triglyceride storage, hemopoiesis
3
Q
Are bones organs?
A
Yes
4
Q
What is triglyceride storage (when thinking of the skeletal system functions)
A
Energy stored in yellow marrow (lipids)
5
Q
What does each bone contain?
A
Bone/cartilage connective tissues, blood vessels and nerves, lymphatic vessels, and connective tissue coverings
6
Q
What is leverage (when thinking of the skeletal system functions)
A
Assistance in movement
7
Q
What is mineral homeostasis (when thinking of the skeletal system functions)
A
The storage and release of calcium ions
8
Q
What is hemopoiesis (when thinking of the skeletal system functions)
A
Red and white blood cell formation in red marrow
9
Q
How are bones classified?
A
Based on shape
10
Q
Describe a long bone
A
Longer than it is wide, contains an epiphysis, metaphysis, diaphysis, endosteum, periosteum, spongy bone, compact bone, medullary cavity, and articular cartilage ex: femur
11
Q
What is a periosteum?
A
A connective tissue membrane covering the external surface of bone, attaches to bone matrix via perforating fibers
12
Q
What is compact bone made of?
A
Dense osteons that cover all bones
13
Q
What are the two layers of the periosteum
A
Outer fibrous (connective tissue), inner osteogenic (cellular making of bone tissue)
14
Q
What is an endosteum
A
Lining of the inner surfaces of bone (marrow cavity, trabeculae of spongey bone, canals of compact bone)
15
Q
What type of cells does the endosteum contain
A
Ostogenic cells (important for bone growth and remodeling)
16
Q
Describe a short bone
A
Cuboidal shape, has a periosteum, endosteum, compact bone, trabeculi, and spongy bone ex: carpals
17
Q
Describe a flat bone
A
Flat, has a periosteum, endosteum, spongey bone, and compact bone ex: cranial bones, sternum
18
Q
Describe sutural bones
A
Flat-ish, not the same as flat bones, found in cranium
19
Q
Give an example of an irregular bone
A
Vertebrae
20
Q
Give an example of a pneumatized bone
A
Ethmoid
21
Q
Give an example of a sesamoid bone
A
Patella
22
Q
What is an articulation
A
A point of contact between bones (elbow), bones and cartilage (epiphyseal plates between epi/metaphysis), and bones and teeth
23
Q
What are the types of joint classification based on function?
A
Synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, diarthrosis
24
Q
What does amphiarthrosis mean (in regards to joint classification)
A
Slightly moveable joint
25
What are the types of joint classification based on anatomical structure?
Fibrous, cartilagenous, synovial
26
What is the study of joints? The study of body motion?
Arthrology; kinesiology
27
If a joint is more stable, will it have more or less mobility?
More stable joint = less mobility
28
What is the least stable joint in the body?
The shoulder joint
29
What does synarthrosis mean (in regards to joint classification)
Immoveable joint
30
What does diarthrosis mean (in regards to joint classification)
Freely moveable joint
31
What is a fibrous joint?
Dense irregular CT between bones ex: in forearm between radius and ulna
32
What is a cartilagenous joint?
Made up of hyaline cartilage between bones
33
What are the types of synarthrosis (immoveable joints)
Suture (fibrous, on skull), gomphosis (fibrous, tooth to maxilla connection), synchondrosis (cartilaginous, epiphysial plate)
34
What is a synovial joint?
A freely moving joint thats made of synovial fluid between bones
35
What are the types of amphiarthrosis (slightly moveable joints)
Syndesmosis (fibrous, tibiofibular ligament), interosseous membrane (dense fibrous CT, between fibula and tibia), and symphasis (cartilagenous joint, pubic symphysis)
36
What are the types of diarthroses (freely moveable joints)
Gliding joint, hinge joint, pivot joint, condyloid joint, saddle joint, and ball and socket joint (all diarthroses are synovial joints)
37
What is a gliding joint
Joint that allows bones to slide past each other in a single plane
38
What is a hinge joint
Joint that allows movement in one plane only
39
What is a pivot joint
Allows bones to rotate around a single axis, the end of one bone fitting into a ring shape on another bone
40
What is a condyloid joint
A joint that allows for bi-directional movement along two axes
41
What is a saddle joint
A joint that allows for a wide range of motion in two planes, made of two interlocking saddles
42
What is a ball and socket joint
A joint that allows the most movement, made of a rounded head of a bone fitting into a cup like socket
43
What does the synovial membrane do?
Secretes synovial fluid
44
What does the synovial cavity do?
Holds synovial fluid, bathes and nourishes articular cartilage
45
Is articular cartilage vascular and avascular
Avascular
46
What are the functions of synovial fluid
Lubrication of the joint, provision of nutrients to articular cartilage, shock absorption
47
What are the accessory structures of synovial joints?
Bursae, menisci (articular discs), ligaments (intracapsular and extracapsular), and tendons
48
What is osteoarthritis?
Degenerative joint disease, wears out cartilage until there is bone on bone contact
49
What is rheumatoid arthritis?
Inflammatory autoimmune joint disease, swollen and inflamed synovial membrane, feels hot
50
Describe the shoulder (glenohumeral joint)
Diarthrosis/ball and socket joint, triaxial joint (more prone to injury), least stable joint in body, stabilized by 4 ligaments and the tendons of 4 muscles
51
Describe the knee (tibiofemoral joint)
Diarthrosis/ hinge joint, mono axial joint, medial and lateral menisci cushion the joint, stabilized by 2 intracapsular joints and 5 extracapsular ligaments
52
What are the anterior extracapsular ligaments of the knee joint?
Tibial and fibular collateral ligaments, patellar ligament
53
What are the posterior extracapsular ligaments of the knee joint
Oblique and arcuate popliteal ligaments
54
What are the anterior intracapsular ligaments of the knee joint
Anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments
55
What tests a torn ACL? PCL?
Anterior drawer test; posterior drawer test
56
What is the study of bone tissue?
Osteology
57
What are osteogenic (osteoprogenitor) cells?
Bone stem cells formed from mesenchyme (embryonic connective tissue) that differentiates into osteoblasts
58
How do osteogenic cells differentiate into osteoblasts?
osteogenic cells go through mitosis to become daughter osteogenic cells, then go through differentiation to become osteoblasts
59
What are osteoblasts?
Cells that build bone by synthesizing organic components of matrix and take calcuym from blood and deposit it within matrix by exocytosis
60
Are osteoblasts mature or immature bone cells
Immature
61
What are osteocytes?
Mature bone cells that maintain bone tissue by sensing microdamage and sending signals for repair
62
What are osteoclasts?
Cells with a ruffled border that breaks down bone and absorb the minerals from it by releasing proteolytic enzymes and acids to degrade collagen and release minerals to blood, derived from myeloid stem cells
63
What is the goal of bone remodeling
To achieve strength for loading, the skeleton's peak strength, and the lightness for mobility, and maintain bone strength by removing damaged bone
64
What is the ground substance within the ECM
Contains organic and inorganic components (water, glycoproteins (chondrotin sulfate/hyaluronic acid), GAGs (trap water), noncollagenous proteins)
65
What are collagen fibers (within the ecm)
Fibrous protein arranged in a helical form, resistant to pulling forces, provides flexability and a framework for deposition of calcium crystals
66
What are the inorganic compounds of the bone ecm?
Water (attracted to ground substance) and hydroxyapatite (forms mineral plates that fill spaces within collagen fiber
67
What does collagen do?
Provides flexability
68
What do minerals do?
Provide firmness
69
The lack of what vitamin causes rickets? Scurvy?
Vitamin D; Vitamin C
70
How is spongy bone organized?
Irregular lattice of thin plates called trabeculae, osteocytes housed in lacunae
71
Where is spongy bone located?
Epipyses of long bones, surrounding marrow cavities, in flat, short, and irregular bones
72
What are the functions of spongy bone?
Withstands forces from many directions; trabeculae are arranged along lines of stress, lightens the skeleton, contains red marrow for hemopoiesis
73
Describe compact bone (organization, location, function)
Organization: solid network of bone organized in ring structures (osteons)
Location: external layer of all bones, diaphysis of long bones
Function: Gives long bones ability to withstand forces along longitudinal axis
74
What is an osteon?
A functional unit of compact bone
75
How are osteons laid down in bone formation?
Longitudinally at an angle to resist forces
76
What bones in infants are soft in certain regions?
Fontanels (soft spots on skull), epiphyses of long bones, epiphyseal plates
77
What are the bones of a fetus (before birth) made of?
Loose connective tissue (mesenchyme) and hyaline cartilage
78
What is ossification?
Replacement of connective tissue by bone (begins during second month of development and continues for many years after birth)
79
What are the two types of ossification?
Intramembranous (within membrane) and endochondrial (inside cartilage) ossification
80
What is intramembranous ossification?
Ossifies mesenchyme to make bone, forms cranial and facial bones, sternum, clavicles, sesamoid bones
81
What is endochondral ossification?
Mesenchyme turns into cartilage which is ossified into bone
82
What is heterotropic bone formation and what type of bone does it make?
Abnormal stresses that stimulate bone formation in areas where bone is not usually found, makes sesamoid bones
83
What is the difference between sesamoid bones and bone spurs
Sesamoid bones are naturally occuring bones, bone spurs are outgrowths of a pre-existing bone
84
What are the steps of intramembranous ossification?
1. Development of ossification center (mesenchymal->osteogenic->osteoblasts, osteoblasts secrete bone matrix)
2. calcification (calcium and other mineral salts deposited so ECM hardens, osteoblasts->osteocytes)
3. formation of trabeculae (ECM develops into trabeculae that fuse to form spongy bone, well vascularized)
4. development of the periosteum (mesenchyme at the periphery develops into the periosteum, spongy bone to compact bone)
85
What is calcification?
Deposition of calcium
86
What type of ossification forms most of the bones in the body?
Endrochondrial ossification
87
What type of ossification grows bones in length at the epiphyseal plate?
Endochondrial ossification
88
What are the steps of endochondrial ossification?
1. Development of cartilage model
2. Growth of cartilage model
3. Osteoblasts create a primary ossification center (bone replaces cartilage, blood vessels penetrate model and stimulate differentiation of osteogenic cells into osteoblasts)
4. Osteoblasts create a marrow cavity (spongy bone is remodeled into compact bone)
5. Secondary ossification centers form in the epiphyses
89
What growth happens at the epiphyseal plate of a bone?
Interstitial growth of cartilage, endochondral ossification
90
What is interstitial growth of cartilage?
Cartilage grows from within at the epiphyseal side of the epiphyseal plate
91
What are the steps of intersitial growth?
1.Mesenchymal cells differentiate into chondroblasts
2. Chondroblasts build matrix and differentiate into chondrocytes
3. Chondrocytes divide and spread apart
4. Cartilage tissue grows from within
92
What is interstitial growth of cartilage
Cartilage grows from within at the epiphyseal side of the epiphyseal plate
93
What is endochondral ossification?
Cartilage is replaced by bone on the diaphyseal side of the epiphyseal plate
94
What is the descending order of cartilage at the epiphyseal plate?
Resting, proliferating, hypertrophic, and calcified cartilage (will be replaced by bone), diaphysis bone
95
Does the diaphysis grow in length, width, or diameter?
Length
96
Does the epiphyseal plate grow towards or away from the epiphysis?
Towards
97
When does the epiphyseal plate close?
At the end of adolescence, 18 in females and 21 in males
98
What does the epiphyseal plate do at closure?
Epiphyseal cartilage cells stop dividing and are replaced by bone, the epiphyseal line forms
99
Describe appositional growth
Growth in cortical width, bone diameter, and medulary cavity size, generation of new osteons
100
What do periosteal osteoblasts build when going through appositional growth?
Build bone on outer surface of bone
101
What do periosteal osteogenic cells differentiate into when going through appositional growth?
Osteoblasts
102
What do endosteal osteoclasts increase when going through appositional growth?
The diameter of the marrow cavity
103
How does appositional growth generate new osteons?
Ridges in periosteum create a groove for periosteal blood vessels, periosteal ridges fuse which forms an endosteum lined tunnel, osteoblasts in endosteum build new concentric lamellae inward toward center of tunnel, forming a new osteon, and bone grows outward as osteoblasts in periosteum build new circumferential lamellae
104
What does bone remodeling do?
Increases the diameter of the bone (clubbed shape growth) and increases the size of the marrow cavity
105
What is a fracture?
A break in the continuity of bone rendering it structurally incompetent
106
What are the two classifications of fractures
Traumatic: normal bone experiencing ABnormal force
Pathologic: ABnormal bone experiencing normal forces (sneeze and break vertebrae)
107
What are the gross classifications of fractures?
Complete (loss of continuity) and incomplete (bone is partially broken in continuity)
108
What is a greenstick fracture?
An incomplete fracture that results in a bent bone and occurs in children and youths
109
What is a non displaced fracture
A complete fracture that does not result in separation of broken bone pieces
110
What is a displaced fracture
A complete fracture that results in separation of one broken piece from the other
111
What is a close (simple) fracture?
A complete, displaced fracture in which no broken piece of bone breaks the skin
112
What is an open (compound) fracture?
A complete, displaced fracture in which one or more broken pieces of bone break the skin
113
Describe a comminuted fracture
Multiple bone fragments
114
Describe an avulsion fracture
Hypertension causes flexor tendon to overstretch, tear, or pull off the bone (common in tackle football)
115
Describe an epiphyseal fracture
An incomplete or complete fracture along the epiphyseal plate between the diaphysis and the epiphysis of a long bone (improper healing can result in arm or leg lengths)
116
What are the three steps of repair for bone fractures?
Formation of fracture hematoma from fibro/chondroblasts (6-8hrs), fibrocartilage callus formation (3 weeks) then bony callus formation (3-4 months through endochondral ossification), and bone remodeling (6-9 months)
117
What is closed reduction treatment? Open reduction treatment?
Manipulation of broken bones without surgery; Involes the surgical use of rods, plates, pins to position bones and bone fragments correctly
118
What are the factors that influence bone?
Diet (minerals and vitamins A, C, D, K, B12), hormones, and exercise
119
How does calcium homeostasis occur?
Controlled calcium exit and entry with bone storage (osteoclasts break down bone), kidney excretion (filters it out), and intestinal absorption (from diet)
119
120
What is the regular blood calcium range?
9.5-11.0 mg/dL
121
Describe the calcitonin hormone
Lowers blood calcium levels, increases excretion of calcium at the kidney, inhibits the absorption of calcium at the intestine
122
Descripe the parathyroid hormone (PTH)
Raises blood calcium, stimulates osteoclast number and activity (for increased bone resorption), decreases excretion of calcium at the kidney, stimulates intestinal absorption and promotes calcitrol (vitamin D) action
123
Describe calcitrol
The active form of vitamin D, a steroid hormone derived from cholesterol, increases blood calcium, stimulates osteoclast activity, decreases calcium excretion at the kidney, increases calcium absorption at the intestine
124
How much calcium do you need in one day?
1000 mg of calcium per day from diet and supplements
125
What hormones act on osteoclasts
Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
126
What hormones act on osteoblasts
Growth hormone and estrogen/testosterone
127
Describe somatotropin
Growth hormone that stimulates cell growth and protein synthesis (collagen); stimulates secretion of insulin like growth factore (IGFs)-> stimulates osteoblast activity->stimulates bone formation
128
Describe acromegaly
Hypersecretion of GH after puberty, appositional growth in skull, hands, and feet and overgrowth of cartilage
129
What do estrogen and testosterone stimulate
Osteoblast activity, levels increase at puberty, causes closure of epiphyseal plate
130
What is interstitial growth
Longitudinal growth at the epiphyseal plate
131
Where does ossification occur
At the diaphyseal plate
132
What does long bone growth occur by?
Interstitial and appositional growth
133
Where is calcitrol produced?
The kidney, in the presence of PTH and/or low blood calcium
134
What are joint reaction forces?
Muscle pulling on bone, causes bone to change in response
135
What are ground reaction forces?
Impact, causes bone to change in response
136
Which type of bone responds to changes in mechanical loading more readily
Spongy bone, but also is the most likely to fracture
137
What is the order for reaction force remedy in response to exercise?
Force is sensed by osteocytes->proliferation of osteoblasts->bone formation greater than bone resorption in response to exercise
138
Describe osteoporosis
Porous bones (reduced bone mass), increased risk of fractures, collagen and mineral proportions are normal, higher osteoclast activity, no symptoms
139
How is osteoporosis diagnosed/found?
From a Dual X-ray Absorptionmetry (DXA)
140
What does osteoporosis cause when thinking of posture?
More slouched posture, loss of vertebral eight
141
What causes reduced bone mass?
High osteoclast activity and low osteoblast activity
142
Describe osteomalacia
Decreased mineralization of newly formed bone matrix at sites of bone remodeling as a consequence of calcium deficienty, achy bone pain
143
Describe osteogenesis imperfecta
Congential disorder that affects production of type I collagen due to genetic mutation, brittle bones, pain associated with fractures, occurs often in childhood or adolescence
144
When does your bone mass peak?
In your twenties
145
Describe the function of osteogenic cells
Immature cells that build bone by synthesizing and secreting collagen fibers into the ECM
146
The remodeling of bone is a function of which cells?
Osteoblasts and osteoclasts
147
Describe the function of osteocytes
Mature cells that sense bone damage and send signals for repair
148
What bone cell is from a different lineage and does not differentiate into other cell types
Osteoclasts
149
What are the structural components of a synovial joint?
There is a synovial cavity; bones are held together by an articular capsule and often by accessory ligaments
150
What joint is the symphysis (where two bones meet, pubic symphysis)
Cartilaginous immovable joint
151
Describe the formation step of bone remodeling
Osteoblasts are actively secreting new bone matrix
152
Describe concentric lamellae
Circular layers surrounding the central canal of an osteon
153
Describe sesamoid bones
Bones formed by endochondral ossification and within tendons in response to friction
154
What process is a marrow (medullary) cavity formed?
Primary ossification
155
During the growth in length of long bones, what occurs on the diaphyseal side of the epiphyseal plate
Endochondral ossification
156
As long bones grow by appositional growth, the diameter of the bone's diaphysis ________.
Increases
157
Describe the activation step of bone remodeling
Osteoblasts are recruited in place of osteoclasts
158
The irregularly shaped lattice of spongy bone is due to
Trabeculae
159
In intramembranous ossification, mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteogenic cells, then into _______.
Osteoblasts
160
During the process of calcification, osteoblasts deposit _____ into the _____ of teh bone
minerals; ECM
161
Is all cartilage ossified in secondary ossification
No
162
During ______ ossification, bones develop from a _______ model.
Endochondral; hyaline cartilage
163
After the epiphyseal plate closes, long bones can no longer grow in ______
Length
164
As bones grow by appositional growth, new osteons are built:
By periosteal osteoblasts on the outside of the bone
165
What type of fracture occurs when a person with a weak bone conditon fractures a bone?
Pathologic fracture
166
What is an example of an intracapsular knee ligament
Anterior cruciate
167
Ossification of the ends of long bones is characterized as?
Secondary ossification
168
The inner layer of the periosteum includes which cell type?
Osteogenic cells
169
What is the first step of intramembranous ossification
Mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteogenic cells
PSIO 201
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