1
Q
What type of cells produce haploid gametes?
A
Germline stem cells (diploid)
Haploid gametes are essential for sexual reproduction.
2
Q
Where are sperm produced in the male reproductive system?
A
In the testes, specifically in the seminiferous tubules
The interstitial cells of the testes produce testosterone.
3
Q
What hormone is produced by the interstitial cells of the testes?
A
Testosterone
Testosterone is crucial for sperm production and male secondary sexual characteristics.
4
Q
What do the prostate gland and seminal vesicles secrete?
A
Fluids that maintain the mobility and viability of the sperm
These fluids are essential for successful fertilization.
5
Q
What surrounds each egg (ovum) in the ovaries?
A
A follicle
The follicle protects the developing ovum and secretes hormones.
6
Q
What is formed when a male and female nucleus fuse during fertilisation?
A
A zygote (diploid)
Fertilisation occurs in the oviduct after the mature ova are released.
7
Q
What hormones control the onset of puberty?
A
- Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
- Luteinising hormone (LH) in women
- Interstitial cell stimulating hormone (ICSH) in men
These hormones are released by the pituitary gland in response to a releaser hormone from the hypothalamus.
8
Q
What does FSH target in the male reproductive system?
A
The testes
FSH stimulates sperm production in the seminiferous tubules.
9
Q
What does ICSH stimulate in the testes?
A
Production of testosterone in the interstitial cells
Testosterone is vital for sperm production and activates accessory glands.
10
Q
How does negative feedback control work in regulating testosterone levels?
A
- High testosterone inhibits FSH and ICSH secretion
- Low testosterone stimulates FSH and ICSH production
This feedback mechanism helps maintain hormonal balance.
11
Q
The menstrual cycle takes approximately how many days?
A
28 days
The first day of menstruation is regarded as day one of the cycle.
12
Q
What hormone stimulates the development of a follicle and the production of estrogen during the follicular phase?
A
FSH
FSH stands for Follicle-Stimulating Hormone.
13
Q
What effect does estrogen have on the endometrium?
A
Thickening by proliferation
This prepares the endometrium for implantation.
14
Q
What does estrogen cause cervical cells to release?
A
Watery mucus
This makes it easier for sperm to penetrate.
15
Q
What triggers ovulation?
A
Surge in LH
LH stands for Luteinizing Hormone.
16
Q
Ovulation usually occurs around the _______ of the menstrual cycle.
A
mid-point
This is when the egg (ovum) is released from a follicle in the ovary.
17
Q
In the luteal phase, what does LH stimulate the corpus luteum to secrete?
A
Progesterone
Progesterone promotes further thickening and vascularization of the endometrium.
18
Q
High levels of estrogen inhibit the production of which hormone?
A
FSH
This is part of the negative feedback mechanism.
19
Q
What hormone does progesterone inhibit the production of?
A
FSH and LH
This prevents further follicles from developing.
20
Q
The lack of LH leads to the degeneration of the _______.
A
corpus luteum
This results in a drop in progesterone levels and leads to menstruation.
21
Q
If fertilization occurs, what happens to the corpus luteum?
A
It does not degenerate
Progesterone levels stay high.
22
Q
Males show continuous fertility due to the production of sperm in their _______.
A
testes
This is due to relatively constant levels of pituitary hormones.
23
Q
Females are most likely to conceive during a fertile period of approximately _______ days around ovulation.
A
six days
This is when they show cyclical fertility.
24
Q
The fertile period can be identified by a slight rise in body temperature of _______ °C after ovulation.
A
0.5 °C
This is one of the indicators of the fertile period.
25
What happens to cervical mucus during the fertile period?
Becomes thin and watery
## Footnote
This change aids in conception.
26
What is the first treatment for **infertility** mentioned?
Stimulating Ovulation
## Footnote
Female infertility may be due to failure to ovulate, which can be treated with drugs mimicking FSH and LH.
27
What drugs are used to stimulate ovulation?
* Drugs mimicking FSH
* Drugs mimicking LH
## Footnote
These drugs can cause super ovulation or be used to collect ova for IVF.
28
What is the purpose of **in vitro fertilisation (IVF)**?
To mix eggs with sperm outside the female's body
## Footnote
Eggs are surgically removed after hormonal stimulation and incubated until they form at least eight cells.
29
What does **pre-implantation genetic diagnosis (PGD)** check for?
* Single gene disorders
* Chromosomal abnormalities
## Footnote
PGD is used in conjunction with IVF.
30
Define **artificial insemination**.
Insertion of sperm into the woman's reproductive tract using a method other than sexual intercourse
## Footnote
Useful if the male has a low sperm count or if a donor is used.
31
What is **intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)** used for?
To fertilise an egg with defective or very low numbers of mature sperm
## Footnote
The head of the sperm is injected directly into the egg.
32
What is the biological basis of **physical methods** of contraception?
Prevention of sperm reaching the egg
## Footnote
Examples include barrier methods like condoms, diaphragms, and IUDs.
33
What does the **oral contraceptive pill** contain?
* Synthetic oestrogen
* Progesterone
## Footnote
It mimics negative feedback preventing the release of FSH and LH from the pituitary gland.
34
What is the function of the **progesterone-only (mini) pill**?
Causes thickening of the cervical mucus
## Footnote
This makes it harder for sperm to reach the egg.
35
What is the purpose of **emergency hormonal contraceptive pills**?
Prevent or delay ovulation
## Footnote
They can be effective up to 72/120 hours after intercourse, depending on the type.
36
What is the purpose of **antenatal screening**?
Identifies the risk of a disorder for further tests and prenatal diagnosis
## Footnote
Antenatal screening helps in monitoring the health of the mother and developing fetus.
37
What are the two types of **ultrasound scans** given to pregnant women?
* Dating scans (8-14 weeks)
* Anomaly scans (18 to 20 weeks)
## Footnote
Dating scans determine pregnancy stage and due date, while anomaly scans may detect serious physical abnormalities.
38
What is the significance of **blood and urine tests** during pregnancy?
Monitor concentrations of marker chemicals
## Footnote
Measuring a chemical at the wrong time could lead to a false positive result.
39
What are the two types of **diagnostic testing** mentioned?
* Amniocentesis
* Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
## Footnote
CVS can be performed earlier in pregnancy than amniocentesis, but has a higher risk of miscarriage.
40
True or false: **CVS** has a higher risk of miscarriage compared to **amniocentesis**.
TRUE
## Footnote
Amniocentesis has a slightly lower risk of miscarriage.
41
What type of cells are obtained from **CVS**?
Cells from the placenta
## Footnote
With amniocentesis, cells are obtained from amniotic fluid.
42
What is a **karyotype**?
An individual's chromosomes arranged as homologous pairs
## Footnote
Cells from samples are cultured to produce a karyotype to diagnose a range of conditions.
43
What is the purpose of **antenatal screening**?
Identifies the risk of a disorder for further tests and prenatal diagnosis
## Footnote
Antenatal screening helps in monitoring the health of the mother and developing fetus.
44
What are the two types of **ultrasound scans** given to pregnant women?
* Dating scans (8-14 weeks)
* Anomaly scans (18 to 20 weeks)
## Footnote
Dating scans determine pregnancy stage and due date, while anomaly scans may detect serious physical abnormalities.
45
What is the significance of **blood and urine tests** during pregnancy?
Monitor concentrations of marker chemicals
## Footnote
Measuring a chemical at the wrong time could lead to a false positive result.
46
What are the two types of **diagnostic testing** mentioned?
* Amniocentesis
* Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
## Footnote
CVS can be performed earlier in pregnancy than amniocentesis, but has a higher risk of miscarriage.
47
True or false: **CVS** has a higher risk of miscarriage compared to **amniocentesis**.
TRUE
## Footnote
Amniocentesis has a slightly lower risk of miscarriage.
48
What type of cells are obtained from **CVS**?
Cells from the placenta
## Footnote
With amniocentesis, cells are obtained from amniotic fluid.
49
What is a **karyotype**?
An individual's chromosomes arranged as homologous pairs
## Footnote
Cells from samples are cultured to produce a karyotype to diagnose a range of conditions.
50
What is the term for a developing human before birth?
fetus
## Footnote
The term refers to the stage of development from the ninth week of pregnancy until birth.
51
What does **prenatal** refer to?
Before birth
## Footnote
It encompasses all aspects of development and care prior to childbirth.
52
What are the **standard genetic terms** used in genetic screening?
* alleles
* dominant
* recessive
* homozygous
* heterozygous
* carriers
* genotype
* phenotype
* autosomes
* sex chromosomes
## Footnote
These terms are essential for understanding genetic inheritance and disorders.
53
In **autosomal recessive** inheritance, what is required for the condition to manifest?
Two recessive alleles
## Footnote
This means that an individual must inherit one recessive allele from each parent.
54
In **autosomal dominant** inheritance, how many alleles are needed for the condition to manifest?
One dominant allele
## Footnote
This means that only one parent needs to pass on the dominant allele for the condition to appear.
55
What is **incomplete dominance**?
Both alleles are shown in the phenotype
## Footnote
This results in a blending of traits in the offspring.
56
What is a **carrier** in genetics?
A female who is normal for a given characteristic yet is heterozygous
## Footnote
Carriers can pass on recessive alleles without showing the trait themselves.
57
Why are **males** more likely to be affected by sex-linked disorders?
They only need to inherit one affected allele
## Footnote
Males have one X and one Y chromosome, so a recessive gene on the X will manifest.
58
What is the significance of the **X chromosome** in sex-linked genetics?
Only the X chromosomes carry the sex-linked gene
## Footnote
Males have one X chromosome from their mother and a Y chromosome from their father.
59
What is **postnatal screening**?
Testing after birth
## Footnote
It is used to detect metabolic disorders and other conditions in newborns.
60
What metabolic disorder is detected through **diagnostic testing** in postnatal screening?
PKU (Phenylketonuria)
## Footnote
It is caused by a substitution mutation affecting enzyme function.
61
What happens if **PKU** is not detected soon after birth?
The baby's mental development is affected
## Footnote
High levels of phenylalanine can lead to severe cognitive impairment.
62
What dietary restriction is placed on individuals with high levels of **phenylalanine**?
Restricted diet
## Footnote
This helps manage the levels of phenylalanine in the body.
63
What is **pressure filtration** in the context of tissue fluid exchange?
The process that forces plasma to pass through capillary walls into the tissue fluid surrounding the cells
## Footnote
This process is essential for supplying cells with glucose, oxygen, and other substances.
64
What do **tissue fluid** and **blood plasma** have in common?
They are similar in composition, except for plasma proteins, which are too large to be filtered through the capillary walls
## Footnote
Tissue fluid supplies cells with necessary nutrients while allowing metabolic wastes to diffuse out.
65
What role do **lymphatic vessels** play in the circulatory system?
They absorb excess tissue fluid and return it as lymph to the circulatory system
## Footnote
This helps maintain fluid balance in the body.
66
Define **cardiac output**.
The volume of blood pumped through each ventricle per minute
## Footnote
Measured in litres/minute or cm/minute.
67
How is **cardiac output** calculated?
By multiplying heart rate (HR) by stroke volume (SV)
## Footnote
Formula: CO = HR X SV.
68
What is the **stroke volume**?
The volume of blood pumped out by one ventricle with each heartbeat
## Footnote
Measured in cm³.
69
What is the **heart rate** also known as?
Pulse rate
## Footnote
Measured in beats per minute.
70
True or false: The left and right ventricles pump different volumes of blood.
FALSE
## Footnote
Both ventricles pump the same volume of blood through the aorta and pulmonary artery.
71
What occurs during **Diastole** in the cardiac cycle?
* Atria and ventricles are relaxed
* Blood flows from the atria into the ventricles
* Deoxygenated blood fills the right atrium
* Oxygenated blood fills the left atrium
* AV valves open when atrial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure
* Semi-lunar valves are closed
## Footnote
Diastole is the phase where the heart chambers fill with blood.
72
What happens during **Atrial Systole**?
* Atria contract
* Blood is forced into the ventricles through open AV valves
* Semi-lunar valves are closed
* Ventricles are relaxed
## Footnote
Atrial systole is the phase where the atria push blood into the ventricles.
73
What occurs during **Ventricular Systole**?
* Ventricles contract
* AV valves close
* Blood is forced out through semi-lunar valves
* Blood moves to the pulmonary artery and aorta
## Footnote
Ventricular systole is the phase where the ventricles pump blood out of the heart.
74
What is the role of the **AV valves** during the cardiac cycle?
* Open during diastole
* Close during ventricular systole
## Footnote
The AV valves prevent backflow of blood into the atria when the ventricles contract.
75
Where is the **sino-atrial node (SAN)** located?
In the wall of the right atrium
## Footnote
The SAN acts as the heart's pacemaker, setting the contraction rate.
76
What is the function of the **atrioventricular node (AVN)**?
* Located in the center of the heart
* Receives impulses from the SAN
* Sends impulses to the ventricles
## Footnote
The AVN coordinates the timing of contractions between the atria and ventricles.
77
What initiates the **contraction of cardiac muscle cells**?
Electrical impulses from the SAN
## Footnote
These impulses cause simultaneous contraction of the atria and later the ventricles.
78
True or false: The **cardiac cycle** and the **cardiac conducting system** are the same.
FALSE
## Footnote
The cardiac cycle refers to the phases of heart activity, while the conducting system refers to the electrical impulses that regulate heartbeats.
79
What is the significance of the **opening and closing of the AV and SL valves**?
Responsible for heart sounds heard with a stethoscope
## Footnote
These sounds are crucial for diagnosing heart conditions.
80
What generates **currents** that can be detected by an **electrocardiogram (ECG)**?
Impulses in the heart
## Footnote
ECG is used to monitor heart activity.
81
What are the three key components of an **ECG**?
* P wave
* QRS complex
* T wave
## Footnote
Each component represents different phases of the heart's electrical activity.
82
What does the **P wave** represent in an ECG?
Atrial systole
## Footnote
It is the wave of electrical impulses spreading over the atria from the SAN.
83
What does the **QRS complex** represent in an ECG?
Ventricular systole
## Footnote
It indicates the electrical impulses through the ventricles.
84
What does the **T wave** represent in an ECG?
Electrical recovery of the ventricles
## Footnote
It occurs at the end of ventricular systole.
85
What phase is represented by the interval from **T to P** in an ECG?
Diastole
## Footnote
This phase indicates the relaxation of the heart.
86
How can you calculate **heart rate** from an ECG?
By interpreting the waves
## Footnote
Heart rate can be derived from the frequency of the waves.
87
What initiates each **heart beat**?
The pacemaker
## Footnote
The pacemaker is influenced by nervous and hormonal activity.
88
Which part of the brain controls the **cardiac cycle**?
The medulla
## Footnote
It regulates the rate of the SAN through the autonomic nervous system.
89
What does the **sympathetic nerve** release to increase heart rate?
Noradrenaline
## Footnote
This neurotransmitter stimulates an increase in heart rate.
90
What does the **parasympathetic nerve** release to decrease heart rate?
Acetylcholine
## Footnote
This neurotransmitter has the opposite effect of noradrenaline.
91
True or false: The **sympathetic and parasympathetic systems** have the same effect on the heart.
FALSE
## Footnote
They are antagonistic, having opposite effects on heart rate.
92
What hormone is released during stress or exercise that increases heart rate?
Adrenaline
## Footnote
It is released by the adrenal glands under sympathetic nervous system activation.
93
Where is **blood pressure** highest and lowest in the circulatory system?
Highest in the aorta, lowest in the vena cava
## Footnote
Blood pressure varies throughout the cardiac cycle.
94
What happens to blood pressure during **ventricular systole**?
Increases
## Footnote
Blood pressure reaches its maximum during this phase.
95
What is the typical blood pressure reading for a **young adult**?
120/80 mmHg
## Footnote
This reading is considered normal.
96
What device is used to measure **blood pressure**?
Sphygmomanometer
## Footnote
It uses an inflatable cuff to detect blood flow.
97
What is **hypertension**?
High blood pressure
## Footnote
It is a major risk factor for coronary heart disease and strokes.
98
99
What is **atherosclerosis**?
Accumulation of fatty material forming an atheroma or plaque
## Footnote
Atheromas consist mainly of cholesterol, fibrous material, and calcium.
100
Where does the **atheroma** form in the artery?
Under the endothelium of the artery wall
## Footnote
As the atheroma grows, the artery thickens and loses elasticity.
101
What happens to the **lumen diameter** as atheroma grows?
It becomes reduced
## Footnote
This leads to restricted blood flow and increased blood pressure.
102
What is often referred to as the **hardening of the arteries**?
Atherosclerosis
## Footnote
It is the root cause of various cardiovascular diseases.
103
List some cardiovascular diseases caused by **atherosclerosis**.
* Angina
* Heart attack
* Stroke
* Peripheral vascular disease
## Footnote
These conditions arise due to the effects of atherosclerosis.
104
What is **thrombosis**?
Formation of a blood clot (thrombus) in a blood vessel
## Footnote
Atheromas may rupture, damaging the endothelium and triggering clotting.
105
What does the rupture of an **atheroma** release?
Clotting factors
## Footnote
This activates a cascade of reactions leading to thrombus formation.
106
What enzyme is converted into its active form **thrombin** during thrombosis?
Prothrombin
## Footnote
Thrombin causes fibrinogen to form threads of insoluble fibrin protein.
107
What do the fibrin threads form during thrombosis?
* Clots the blood
* Seals the wound
* Provides a scaffold for scar tissue
## Footnote
Platelets adhere to the fibrin threads to form a clot.
108
What happens if a **thrombus** breaks loose?
It forms an **embolus**
## Footnote
The embolus can block a blood vessel as it travels through the bloodstream.
109
A thrombosis in a coronary artery may lead to a **myocardial infarction** (MI), commonly known as a __________.
heart attack
## Footnote
This condition occurs when blood flow to the heart is blocked.
110
What can a thrombosis in an artery in the brain lead to?
A stroke
## Footnote
Cells are deprived of oxygen, leading to tissue death.
111
What is **peripheral vascular disease**?
Narrowing of the arteries due to atherosclerosis in arteries other than those of the heart or brain
## Footnote
The arteries to the legs are most commonly affected.
112
What symptom is experienced in the leg muscles due to **peripheral vascular disease**?
Pain due to limited supply of oxygen
## Footnote
This occurs as a result of narrowed arteries.
113
What is **DVT** (deep vein thrombosis)?
Formation of a blood clot in a deep vein, most commonly in the leg
## Footnote
It can lead to serious complications if not treated.
114
What is a **pulmonary embolism**?
Blockage in the lungs caused by a part of a thrombus breaking free
## Footnote
It can result in chest pain and breathing difficulties, and if untreated, can lead to death.
115
What is **cholesterol** classified as?
A type of lipid found in the cell membrane
## Footnote
Cholesterol is also used to make sex hormones like testosterone and estrogen.
116
What percentage of total cholesterol production occurs in the **liver**?
25%
## Footnote
Most cholesterol is synthesized by the liver from saturated fats in the diet.
117
What do **lipoproteins** contain?
* Lipid
* Protein
## Footnote
Lipoproteins are responsible for transporting cholesterol in the body.
118
What is the function of **HDL (high density lipoprotein)**?
Transports excess cholesterol from body cells to the liver for elimination
## Footnote
This prevents accumulation of cholesterol in the blood.
119
What does **LDL (low density lipoprotein)** do?
Transports cholesterol to body cells
## Footnote
Most cells have LDL receptors that take LDL into the cell where it releases cholesterol.
120
What happens when a cell has sufficient cholesterol?
A negative feedback system inhibits the synthesis of new LDL receptors
## Footnote
This results in LDL circulating in the blood, potentially depositing cholesterol in arteries.
121
What is the relationship between the ratio of **HDL to LDL** and atherosclerosis?
A higher ratio results in lower blood cholesterol and reduced chance of developing atherosclerosis
## Footnote
Conversely, a lower ratio increases the chance of developing atherosclerosis.
122
What are the benefits of **regular physical activity** on cholesterol levels?
Tends to raise HDL levels
## Footnote
Regular exercise is beneficial for maintaining healthy cholesterol levels.
123
What dietary changes can help reduce cholesterol levels?
* Low fat diet
* Replace saturated fats with unsaturated fats
## Footnote
These changes aim to reduce total fat levels in the diet.
124
What is the role of **statins** in cholesterol management?
Reduce blood cholesterol by inhibiting the synthesis of cholesterol by liver cells
## Footnote
Statins are prescribed medications for managing cholesterol levels.
125
What can **chronic elevated blood glucose levels** lead to?
* Atherosclerosis
* Blood vessel damage
## Footnote
This can result in cardiovascular disease, stroke, or peripheral vascular disease.
126
What damage can small blood vessels experience due to elevated glucose levels?
* Haemorrhage in the retina
* Renal (kidney) failure
* Peripheral nerve dysfunction
## Footnote
These conditions can affect nerves leading to extremities.
127
What are the **two hormones** that the pancreas uses to control blood glucose levels?
* Insulin
* Glucagon
## Footnote
These hormones act antagonistically, having opposite effects on blood glucose concentration.
128
How do **pancreatic receptors** respond to raised blood glucose levels?
By increasing secretion of insulin
## Footnote
Insulin helps decrease blood glucose concentration by converting glucose to glycogen in the liver.
129
What effect does **insulin** have on liver cells?
* Activates conversion of glucose to glycogen
* Increases permeability to glucose
## Footnote
This results in decreased blood glucose concentration.
130
How do **pancreatic receptors** respond to lowered blood glucose levels?
By increasing secretion of glucagon
## Footnote
Glucagon activates the conversion of glycogen to glucose in the liver, increasing blood glucose concentration.
131
What role does **adrenaline** play in blood glucose regulation during emergencies?
* Raises glucose levels
* Stimulates glucagon secretion
* Inhibits insulin secretion
## Footnote
This response is part of the body's fight or flight mechanism.
132
What is the **regulation of blood glucose level** an example of?
Negative feedback control
## Footnote
This mechanism helps maintain homeostasis in blood glucose levels.
133
When does **Type 1 diabetes** usually occur?
In childhood
## Footnote
Individuals with Type 1 diabetes are unable to produce insulin.
134
How is **Type 1 diabetes** treated?
With regular injections of insulin
## Footnote
This treatment compensates for the lack of insulin production.
135
What typically causes **Type 2 diabetes** to develop?
Being overweight
## Footnote
Type 2 diabetes is also known as adult onset diabetes.
136
In **Type 2 diabetes**, what happens to insulin receptors on liver cells?
They become less sensitive
## Footnote
This insulin resistance leads to a failure to convert glucose to glycogen.
137
How is **Type 2 diabetes** treated?
* Lifestyle changes
* Weight loss
* Exercise
* Dietary changes
## Footnote
These changes help improve insulin sensitivity.
138
What happens to blood glucose levels after a meal in both types of diabetes?
They rise rapidly
## Footnote
The kidneys will remove some glucose, resulting in glucose appearing in urine.
139
What indicates **diabetes** in a urine test?
Glucose present in urine
## Footnote
The presence of glucose in urine is a key indicator of diabetes.
140
What test is used to diagnose **diabetes**?
Glucose tolerance test
## Footnote
This test measures blood glucose concentrations before and after consuming a glucose solution.
141
During the glucose tolerance test, how does a **diabetic's blood glucose concentration** compare to that of a non-diabetic?
* Starts at a higher level
* Increases to a much higher level
* Takes longer to return to starting concentration
## Footnote
These differences help in diagnosing diabetes.
142
What is a major risk factor for **cardiovascular disease**?
Obesity
## Footnote
Obesity is characterized by excess body fat in relation to lean body tissue.
143
How is **obesity** commonly measured?
Body mass index (BMI)
## Footnote
BMI is calculated as weight (kg) / height (m) and a BMI greater than 30 indicates obesity.
144
What is a limitation of using **BMI** as a measure of obesity?
It can wrongly classify muscular individuals as obese
## Footnote
For example, bodybuilders may have high BMI but low body fat.
145
What dietary factors are linked to **obesity**?
* High fat diets
* Decrease in physical activity
## Footnote
These factors contribute to energy imbalance and weight gain.
146
What should the energy intake in the diet limit to reduce **obesity**?
* Fats
* Free sugars
## Footnote
Fats have a high calorific value, and free sugars require no metabolic energy for digestion.
147
How does **exercise** help reduce risk factors for **CVD**?
* Keeps weight under control
* Minimizes stress
* Reduces hypertension
* Improves HDL blood lipid profiles
## Footnote
Regular exercise is crucial for cardiovascular health.
148
What indicates **diabetes** when present in urine?
Glucose
## Footnote
The presence of glucose in urine is a key indicator of diabetes.
149
What test is used to diagnose **diabetes**?
Glucose tolerance test
## Footnote
This test measures blood glucose concentrations before and after consuming a glucose solution.
150
In the glucose tolerance test, how long are blood glucose concentrations measured after drinking the glucose solution?
At least two hours
## Footnote
This duration allows for observation of changes in blood glucose levels.
151
How does the blood glucose concentration of a **diabetic** compare to that of a **non-diabetic** at the start of the glucose tolerance test?
Higher level
## Footnote
Diabetics typically start with a higher blood glucose concentration.
152
During the glucose tolerance test, how does a diabetic's blood glucose concentration behave compared to a non-diabetic?
* Increases to a much higher level
* Takes longer to return to starting concentration
## Footnote
This reflects impaired glucose metabolism in diabetics.
153
What is **obesity** characterized by?
Excess body fat in relation to lean body tissue
## Footnote
Obesity can impair health and is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease.
154
What index is commonly used to measure **obesity**?
Body mass index (BMI)
## Footnote
BMI can sometimes misclassify muscular individuals as obese.
155
What is the formula for calculating **BMI**?
BMI = weight (kg) / height (m)²
## Footnote
This formula helps assess body weight in relation to height.
156
A BMI greater than **30** indicates what condition?
Obesity
## Footnote
This threshold is commonly used to classify obesity.
157
What dietary factors are linked to **obesity** and cardiovascular disease (CVD)?
* High fat diets
* Decrease in physical activity
## Footnote
These factors contribute to the development of obesity and related health issues.
158
What should the energy intake in the diet limit to reduce obesity?
* Fats
* Free sugars
## Footnote
Limiting these components can help manage weight and health.
159
Why are **fats** significant in terms of caloric value?
High calorific value per gram
## Footnote
This means fats contribute significantly to energy intake.
160
What is notable about **free sugars** in digestion?
Require no metabolic energy to be expended
## Footnote
This characteristic makes free sugars easily accessible energy sources.
161
How does **exercise** help reduce risk factors for CVD?
* Keeps weight under control
* Minimizes stress
* Reduces hypertension
* Improves HDL blood lipid profiles
## Footnote
Regular physical activity is crucial for cardiovascular health.
Higher Human Bio
flashcards
Decks in class (22)
# Cards
-
Differntiation And Division26
-
Structure And Replication Of DNA29
-
Amplification And Detection Of DNA Sequences14
-
Gene Expression41
-
Mutations28
-
Human Genomics9
-
Metabolic Pathways26
-
Cellular Respiration28
-
Energy Systems In Muscle Cells25
-
Gamete Production And Fertilisation16
-
Hormonal Control Of Reproduction54
-
The Biology Of Controlling Fertility29
-
Antenatal And Postnatal Screening44
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Arteries, Capillaries And Veins30
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The Structure And Function Of The Heart34
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Cardiac Conducting System46
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Cardiovascular Disease30
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biology but its just all the questions ive gotten wrong in past papers8
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antanatal, postnatal and inheritance2
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Unit One0
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Unit 2161
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Unit 3135
