UNIT 5 Flashcards

(58 cards)

1
Q

What does industrial relations primarily encompass?
a) Only union negotiations and collective bargaining
b) All employment issues and workplace relationships, including contracts, conflict management, and employee behaviour
c) Payroll processing and benefits administration
d) Marketing strategies for employer branding

A

B

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2
Q

Employee relations mainly refers to:
a) The relationship between management and external stakeholders
b) The direct relationship between the employer and individual employees, including company policies and problem resolution
c) Union negotiations and collective agreements
d) Government labor law enforcement

A

B

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3
Q

Labour relations focus on:
a) The relationship between a union or professional association and the employer
b) Individual employee disciplinary actions
c) Human resources recruitment strategies
d) Employee training and development programs

A

A

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4
Q

Which of the following best describes a key difference between employee relations and labour relations?
a) Employee relations involves collective bargaining; labour relations focus on individual employment contracts
b) Employee relations concerns the direct employer-employee relationship; labour relations involve unions representing employees in negotiations
c) Labour relations deals exclusively with employee attendance; employee relations manage payroll
d) Labour relations is unrelated to workplace conflict management

A

B

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5
Q

An example of a labour relations activity would be:
a) A manager conducting a one-on-one coaching session
b) Negotiating a collective agreement with a union
c) Implementing an employee wellness program
d) Developing job descriptions

A

B

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6
Q

Most employment statutes regarding minimum conditions of employment are under:
a) Federal jurisdiction for all organizations
b) Provincial jurisdiction unless the employer is federally regulated
c) Municipal jurisdiction only
d) International labor laws

A

B

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7
Q

Employment standards in most provinces are enforced under which legislation?
a) Canadian Human Rights Act
b) Employment Standards Act
c) Occupational Health and Safety Act
d) Labour Relations Act

A

B

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8
Q

Which of the following is not typically covered under the Employment Standards Act?
a) Minimum wage
b) Hours of work and overtime
c) Employee retirement savings plans
d) Pregnancy and parental leave

A

C

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9
Q

Which government body is responsible for administering the Employment Standards Program?
a) Ministry of Health
b) Ministry of Labour
c) Human Rights Commission
d) Employment Insurance Office

A

B

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10
Q

The Employment Standards Act includes regulations on all the following except:
a) Notice of termination for individuals and groups
b) Vacation and paid holidays
c) Workplace harassment policies
d) Overtime pay

A

C

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11
Q

What does the Human Rights Code primarily prohibit?
a) Paying employees above minimum wage
b) Discrimination against individuals based on protected grounds in protected social areas
c) Hiring only internal candidates
d) Employee participation in workplace social events

A

B

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12
Q

Which of the following is not typically considered a protected ground under the Human Rights Code?
a) Age
b) Citizenship
c) Educational background
d) Gender identity

A

C

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13
Q

Which of the following is an example of a protected social area under the Human Rights Code?
a) Employee lunch breaks
b) Employment, housing, and services
c) Marketing strategies
d) Employee vacation scheduling

A

B

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14
Q

What does Bona Fide Occupational Qualification (BFOQ) allow employers to do?
a) Legally discriminate based on personal preferences
b) Legally discriminate based on job-related qualifications such as vision for pilots or strength for firefighters
c) Avoid hiring employees based on age only
d) Set wages without regard to gender

A

B

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15
Q

What is the primary goal of pay equity legislation?
a) To eliminate all wage differences between employees
b) To close the wage gap resulting from systemic gender discrimination in employer pay practices
c) To increase wages across all industries regardless of gender
d) To set minimum wage rates annually

A

B

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16
Q

Which of the following is an example of a legitimate Bona Fide Occupational Qualification (BFOQ)?
a) Hiring only male employees because of company culture
b) Requiring firefighters to meet certain physical strength standards
c) Refusing to hire someone based on marital status
d) Setting different wages for employees doing the same job

A

B

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17
Q

What is the primary purpose of the Employment Equity Act?
a) To regulate employee wages in all industries
b) To ensure equitable participation of under-represented groups in the federally regulated labour force
c) To manage workplace safety programs
d) To standardize job descriptions across industries

A

B

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18
Q

The Employment Equity Act applies mainly to:
a) All private sector companies regardless of size
b) Federally regulated industries such as banking, telecommunications, and transportation
c) Municipal governments exclusively
d) International organizations operating in Canada

A

B

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19
Q

Which of the following groups is not typically one of the four designated groups under the Employment Equity Act?
a) Women
b) Indigenous peoples
c) Veterans
d) Persons with disabilities

A

C

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20
Q

What is the definition of a “visible minority” under Canadian employment legislation?
a) Individuals who belong to any religious group
b) Persons, other than Indigenous peoples, who are non-Caucasian or non-white in race or colour
c) Employees who work in physically demanding jobs
d) Citizens born outside of Canada

A

B

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21
Q

Which of the following is not a principle of employment equity?
a) Equal pay for work of equal value
b) Fair access to employment opportunities
c) Denial of employment based on distinct personal characteristics
d) Recognition of individual abilities

A

C

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22
Q

What role does the Labour Relations Board play in the certification process?
a) It determines the bargaining unit and oversees the application for certification
b) It negotiates the collective agreement
c) It forms the organizing committee
d) It conducts training for union representatives

A

A

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23
Q

What is the primary purpose of collective bargaining?
a) To set employee vacation schedules
b) To negotiate a first or renewed collective agreement focusing on wages, working conditions, grievance procedures, and benefits
c) To train managers on leadership skills
d) To establish recruitment policies

A

B

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24
Q

When can a newly certified union initiate collective bargaining?
a) Immediately after certification by giving the employer written notice to bargain
b) Only after one year of certification
c) After the employer requests negotiations
d) Only at the end of the fiscal year

25
If a collective agreement is already in place, when can either party give notice to bargain? a) Any time during the year without restrictions b) Usually within 90 days before the agreement expires or during any other period specified in the agreement c) Only after the employer requests it d) Six months after the agreement expires
B
26
Which bargaining style is characterized by competition over fixed resources, resulting in a zero-sum, win-lose outcome? a) Interest-Based Bargaining b) Distributive (Positional) Bargaining c) Attitudinal Structuring d) Intra-organizational Bargaining
B
27
What is the key focus of Interest-Based (Integrative) Bargaining? a) Maximizing individual gains at the expense of the other party b) Collaborating to find win-win solutions based on mutual interests c) Using power tactics to force concessions d) Ignoring the interests of the other party
B
28
What is the goal of attitudinal structuring in bargaining? a) Increase rivalry between parties b) Build relationships to encourage cooperation c) Restrict communication during talks d) Concentrate only on financial outcomes
B
29
In Intra-organizational Bargaining, negotiators must balance demands from: a) The union and government agencies b) Across the bargaining table and their own political organization c) External consultants and internal HR teams d) Customers and suppliers
B
30
Distributive bargaining is most likely to result in: a) A win-win outcome where both parties benefit equally b) A zero-sum outcome where one party’s gain is the other’s loss c) Increased collaboration between parties d) Joint decision-making processes
B
31
During intra-organizational bargaining, negotiators often face challenges such as: a) Managing both external talks and internal expectations b) Avoiding compromise with the other party c) Overlooking internal political pressures d) Prioritizing only short-term financial outcomes
A
32
What is a collective agreement? a) An informal verbal understanding between management and employees b) A written contract covering a group of employees represented by a trade union, detailing employment terms and conditions c) A government-issued regulation for workplace safety d) A personal employment contract for individual employees
B
33
Collective agreements generally include provisions covering all of the following areas except: a) Rights and obligations of parties b) Conditions of employment c) Individual employee performance appraisals d) General work rules and work environment
C
34
What do Residual Rights for management refer to? a) Rights granted exclusively to the union after certification b) Employer’s rights to operate the business as before unionization, except where the collective agreement changes them c) Rights to terminate employees without cause d) Rights to hire only union members
B
35
The Union Security clause in a collective agreement primarily addresses: a) Employee benefits and vacation time b) Whether employees are required to be members of the union c) The company’s financial reporting requirements d) Management’s hiring procedures
B
36
Residual Rights allow management to: a) Change any workplace rule regardless of the collective agreement b) Maintain pre-unionization operations unless altered by the collective agreement c) Override all union-negotiated provisions d) Unilaterally set wages
B
37
What best describes a Closed Shop workplace? a) Employees can choose whether or not to join the union b) Employers are required to hire and employ only union members c) Employees must pay union dues but don’t have to join the union d) Employers may hire non-union employees who must join the union later
B
38
In an Open Shop, which of the following is true? a) Union membership is mandatory for all employees b) Employees are not required to join the union as a condition of employment c) Employees must pay union dues regardless of membership d) Employers only hire union members
B
39
What distinguishes a Union Shop from other types of workplaces? a) Employees do not need to join the union or pay dues b) Employees hired may not be union members initially but must join the union afterward c) Only union members can be hired d) Union dues are optional for all employees
B
40
Which type of workplace requires all employees to pay union dues regardless of union membership? a) Closed Shop b) Open Shop c) Union Shop d) Agency Shop
D
41
What is the Rand Formula? a) A method requiring all employees to join the union regardless of choice b) A form of agency shop requiring mandatory union dues deduction but not mandatory union membership c) A rule allowing employers to refuse union dues deductions d) A law that bans union membership in certain industries
B
42
What does union density refer to? a) The percentage of workplaces that are unionized b) The percentage of workers in the labour force who are union members c) The number of unions in a particular industry d) The frequency of union elections
B
43
What does the term "whipsaw" refer to in union negotiations? a) A union tactic that pressures management through coordinated strikes b) A union tactic that plays one employer against another to gain better terms c) A management strategy to divide union members d) A legal requirement for employers to negotiate fairly
B
44
In a collective agreement, a clause that limits job freedom typically refers to: a) Job assignment b) Job promotion c) Employee attendance d) Salary negotiations
A
45
Which of the following best describes the purpose of a job assignment clause in a collective agreement? a) To allow employees to choose their own work tasks freely b) To restrict management’s ability to change employees’ job duties arbitrarily c) To outline the process for assigning work responsibilities and limit arbitrary changes d) To set pay rates for each job
C
46
What does “estoppel” mean in the context of a collective agreement? a) A clause that guarantees annual wage increases every year b) Losing the right to enforce a clause due to inconsistent application c) A union’s right to strike without giving notice to any party d) A management rule on employee discipline
B
47
Which of the following best describes "work to rule"? a) A strike where employees stop working entirely b) A slowdown where employees strictly follow all rules, reducing productivity c) A type of overtime work to meet deadlines d) A union negotiation tactic to increase wages
B
48
When can estoppel be claimed in labour relations? a) When a collective agreement clause has been ignored over time, and the advantaged party is deemed to have waived their rights b) When employees refuse to work c) When unions demand wage increases d) When management changes workplace policies unilaterally
A
49
What is the purpose of an Essential Service Agreement? a) To allow unlimited strikes by all employees b) To restrict the ability to strike for workers whose absence could significantly impact public interest c) To guarantee wage increases for essential workers d) To provide extra vacation days for essential service workers
B
50
What is a lock-out? a) A union-led strike to improve working conditions b) A legal work stoppage initiated by the employer c) A government intervention in labour disputes d) A policy to hire temporary workers during a strike
B
51
What distinguishes an Application Grievance from an Interpretation Grievance? a) Application grievance relates to the meaning of the clause; interpretation grievance relates to the clause’s enforcement b) Application grievance arises when parties agree on the clause’s meaning but disagree on its application; interpretation grievance arises when parties disagree on the clause’s meaning c) Both are the same with different names d) Application grievance deals with wage disputes only
B
52
What role does arbitration play in union grievance resolution? a) Arbitration is a voluntary mediation by union leaders b) Arbitration is a neutral third-party process resolving disputes over collective agreement interpretation or application c) Arbitration is a management-only disciplinary procedure d) Arbitration is a government investigation of workplace safety
B
53
Which of the following best describes union arbitration? a) A negotiation between union and management representatives without a third party b) A binding decision made by a neutral arbitrator acting like a judge c) An informal meeting to discuss employee concerns d) A company policy review session
B
54
What is the primary role of a mediator in labour disputes? a) To impose a binding decision on the parties b) To actively participate and help the parties find points of agreement and suggest potential solutions c) To represent the employer’s interests only d) To enforce government labour laws
B
55
How does a conciliator differ from a mediator? a) A conciliator is a neutral third party who assists in dispute resolution and often facilitates a mandatory step before a strike or lockout b) A conciliator imposes binding decisions on the parties c) A conciliator only represents union interests d) A conciliator acts as a legal advisor to management
A
56
Which of the following is true about conciliation? a) It is an informal meeting with no legal significance b) It is often a required process before a legal strike or lockout can occur c) It replaces arbitration in all labour disputes d) It involves unilateral decision-making by management
B
57
What does the bargaining zone refer to in collective bargaining? a) The time frame when negotiations occur b) The difference between the union's lowest demand and the employer's highest offer c) The legal boundaries set by labour law d) The location where bargaining meetings take place
B
58
What term describes the direct relationship between employer and employee? a) Labour Relations b) Employee Relations c) Collective Bargaining d) Industrial Relations
B