UNIT 9 Flashcards

(51 cards)

1
Q

What is the correct formula for calculating Return on Investment (ROI)?
a) Cost ÷ Benefit
b) (Benefit − Cost) ÷ Benefit
c) (Benefit − Cost) ÷ Cost
d) Benefit + Cost

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

According to CRA guidelines, how long must documents related to employee earnings be retained?
a) 1 year
b) 3 years
c) 5 years
d) 6 years

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

According to CRA, how long must other HRIS-related information be retained?
a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 3 years
d) 6 years

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are Human Capital Metrics used for?
a) Measuring customer satisfaction with HR services
b) Tracking the physical assets of an organization
c) Assessing the value, performance, and impact of an organization’s workforce
d) Evaluating marketing strategies

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What do HR Metrics primarily measure?
a) Market share of the HR department
b) The efficiency and impact of HR practices and policies
c) The total revenue generated by employees
d) Employee happiness on a weekly basis

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the purpose of an HR audit?
a) To evaluate marketing strategies
b) To assess employee social media use
c) To review HR policies, programs, and documentation for improvement and compliance
d) To determine salary increases

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the key difference between efficiency and effectiveness metrics in HR?
a) Efficiency measures focus on doing the right things; effectiveness measures focus on doing things quickly
b) Efficiency is about speed, while effectiveness is about cost
c) Efficiency measures whether things are done right; effectiveness measures whether the right things are being done
d) There is no difference between the two—they are used interchangeably

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the primary focus of operational metrics in HR?
a) Evaluating employee satisfaction over decades
b) Assessing compliance with employment legislation only
c) Measuring the efficiency and effectiveness of HR programs and services with short-term impact
d) Linking HR efforts to long-term organizational strategy

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What distinguishes strategic metrics from operational metrics?
a) Strategic metrics focus only on employee turnover
b) Strategic metrics are short-term, while operational metrics are long-term
c) Strategic metrics evaluate the immediate costs of HR activities
d) Strategic metrics assess how HR supports long-term organizational goals

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does the 5C Model of HRM Impact help organizations evaluate?
a) Employee vacation schedules
b) Organizational structure designs
c) How HR practices contribute to organizational success
d) Only the legal compliance aspect of HR

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following is not one of the five Cs in the 5C Model of HRM Impact?
a) Compliance
b) Client Satisfaction
c) Career Advancement
d) Cost Control

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are metrics primarily used for in HR?
a) Hiring new employees
b) Calculating payroll
c) Establishing baselines, benchmarking, tracking trends, and justifying decisions
d) Training frontline staff

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does the Service-Profit Chain demonstrate?
a) The link between product cost and market demand
b) How employee satisfaction leads to customer satisfaction and profitability
c) How to reduce service delivery times
d) The relationship between marketing and sales

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In a research context, which of the following best describes the relationship between dependent and independent variables?
a) The independent variable is what you are trying to measure, and the dependent variable is what influences it
b) The dependent variable influences the independent variable
c) The independent variable influences the dependent variable
d) Both variables remain unchanged during research

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following are common types of research designs?
a) Strategic, Financial, Operational, Cultural
b) Surveys, Experimental, Qualitative, Existing research
c) Marketing, Sales, Customer service, Logistics
d) Predictive, Retrospective, Real-time, Adaptive

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What distinguishes stratified sampling from random sampling?
a) Stratified sampling selects employees only from one department, while random sampling selects from all departments
b) Stratified sampling involves selecting a sample that represents specific subgroups within the population, while random sampling selects any individuals purely by chance
c) Random sampling targets a specific group, stratified sampling does not
d) Stratified sampling is used when there is no need to represent the population accurately

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is meant by sampling error?
a) When the sample perfectly reflects the population
b) When the sample is too large and causes unnecessary data
c) When the sample is insufficient or unrepresentative, failing to accurately reflect the entire population
d) When researchers choose samples intentionally

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is an acquiescence response style in surveys?
a) When respondents answer questions randomly without reading them
b) When a person consistently gives favorable responses to every question regardless of content
c) When respondents refuse to answer certain sensitive questions
d) When a person alternates between positive and negative answers on purpose

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Why is it important to word some survey questions positively and others negatively?
a) To confuse respondents and reduce bias
b) To reduce acquiescence response bias by encouraging thoughtful answers
c) To increase the total number of questions
d) To simplify data analysis

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which strategy is least effective in minimizing acquiescence response bias?
a) Mixing positively and negatively worded questions
b) Using forced-choice response formats
c) Providing detailed instructions to respondents
d) Asking only yes/no questions

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does “criterion relevance” ensure in research methods?
a) That irrelevant criteria are included in assessments
b) That all necessary competencies related to the job are assessed
c) That some important competencies are missing from the assessment
d) That the criteria used are easy to measure

22
Q

Which of the following best describes criterion deficiency?
a) Measuring irrelevant competencies in an assessment
b) Failing to include important competencies in an assessment
c) Including all necessary competencies for the job
d) Ensuring all criteria relate to the desired outcome

23
Q

Criterion contamination occurs when:
a) All the right competencies are measured accurately
b) Unrelated factors influence the assessment results
c) Important criteria are missing from the assessment
d) The assessment perfectly predicts job performance

24
Q

The main purpose of criterion measures is to:
a) Ensure we assess irrelevant traits
b) Measure what is important for predicting job success
c) Include as many criteria as possible
d) Minimize the length of assessment tools

25
Which statement correctly differentiates criterion relevance, criterion deficiency, and criterion contamination? a) Criterion relevance means measuring irrelevant criteria; criterion deficiency means including all important criteria; criterion contamination means missing some criteria. b) Criterion relevance ensures all necessary criteria are assessed; criterion deficiency means some important criteria are missing; criterion contamination means irrelevant factors are measured. c) Criterion relevance means some important criteria are missing; criterion deficiency means irrelevant factors are measured; criterion contamination means all criteria are relevant. d) Criterion relevance means unrelated factors influence assessment; criterion deficiency means the criteria are perfectly relevant; criterion contamination means the criteria are incomplete.
B
26
Which of the following is an example of a nominal scale? a) Ranking employee satisfaction from highest to lowest b) Categorizing employees by department name c) Measuring the temperature difference between two offices d) Calculating sales per employee
B
27
Which statement best describes an ordinal scale? a) It measures exact mathematical differences between values. b) It classifies data with a meaningful order but without consistent intervals. c) It provides a true zero point and meaningful ratios. d) It categorizes variables without any order or ranking.
B
28
What distinguishes an interval scale from other measurement scales? a) It groups observations into distinct categories without using numbers. b) It ranks data with intervals that may not be evenly spaced. c) It uses equal units of measurement but does not have an absolute zero. d) It permits full mathematical operations, including ratio comparisons, due to a fixed zero point.
C
29
Which example best illustrates a ratio scale? a) Employees’ favorite departments listed alphabetically b) Job satisfaction levels ranked from low to high c) Temperature measured in Celsius d) Sales revenue generated per employee
D
30
Which of the following is NOT one of the four types of measurement scales? a) Nominal b) Ordinal c) Interval d) Absolute e) Ratio
D
31
What is the main difference between validity and reliability? a) Validity measures consistency; reliability measures accuracy b) Validity measures accuracy; reliability measures consistency c) Validity measures frequency; reliability measures relevance d) Validity measures bias; reliability measures fairness
B
32
What does Content Validity ensure? a) The measure predicts future outcomes b) The measure accurately assesses what it is supposed to c) The measure is consistent across raters d) The measure evaluates abstract traits
B
33
Criterion-related Validity ensures that: a) The test scores are reliable over time b) The measure is relevant to what is being assessed c) Abstract constructs are accurately measured d) Test results are consistent across different versions
B
34
Construct validity refers to: a) Measuring specific job-related tasks b) Measuring intangible traits such as personality or intelligence c) Checking consistency in repeated test use d) Estimating future job success
B
35
Predictive Validity is demonstrated when: a) The test measures abstract concepts b) Scores predict the outcome of the dependent variable c) Two halves of a test produce similar scores d) Current high performers score well on the test
B
36
Concurrent Validity is shown when: a) Test results predict future behavior b) Different raters score similarly c) Current high performers score well on the test d) Test results are consistent over time
C
37
Test-retest Reliability means: a) Scores on two halves of a test are similar b) A person gets similar scores when tested at two different times c) Different raters give similar scores d) Test measures abstract traits
B
38
Split-half Reliability (Internal Consistency) means: a) Scores are consistent between two halves of a test b) Scores predict future job performance c) Scores are consistent across raters d) Scores are consistent over multiple test versions
A
39
Inter-rater Reliability ensures: a) Scores predict future success b) Scores are consistent over time c) Different raters give similar scores to the same candidate d) Scores measure the right content
C
40
What is the mean? a) The middle value in an ordered list b) The average of all values c) The most frequently occurring value d) The difference between the highest and lowest value
B
41
What is the median? a) The average of all values b) The most frequently occurring value c) The middle value in an ordered list d) The value that appears only once
C
42
What is the mode? a) The most frequently occurring value b) The average of all values c) The middle value in an ordered list d) The range of values
A
43
What is regression analysis primarily used for? a) Identifying the most frequent data value b) Finding the average of data points and thier significance c) Analyzing how variables are related d) Sorting data into order to analyze trends
C
44
What is the purpose of Affinity Diagrams or Mind Maps as an analytic tool? a) To calculate statistical relationships between variables b) To group related issues and visualize them as a whole c) To test hypotheses using experimental data d) To rank job positions by importance
B
45
What is the main purpose of a Cause and Effect Diagram (Fish Bone Diagram)? a) To schedule project tasks by date b) To identify a problem and categorize its causes c) To estimate the dollar value of an initiative d) To conduct brainstorming using questionnaires
B
46
What do Gantt Charts primarily show? a) The causes of a problem b) The sequence of tasks to complete a project c) Activities plotted against a timeline d) The dollar value of an initiative
C
47
What does the Critical Path represent in project management? a) The shortest time needed to complete a project b) A brainstorming technique for decision making c) A method to calculate project cost benefits d) Voting results after brainstorming
A
48
What is the Delphi Technique used for? a) Ranking ideas through voting after brainstorming b) Brainstorming using a structured questionnaire process c) Plotting activities over time in a chart d) Analyzing strengths and weaknesses
B
49
What is the Nominal Group Technique? a) A method of voting after a brainstorming session b) A way to calculate project duration c) A tool to categorize causes of problems d) A chart to map activities over dates
A
50
What does SWOT Analysis help an organization do? a) Plan project timelines b) Analyze strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats c) Estimate the financial value of HR initiatives d) Brainstorm anonymously with questionnaires
B
51
What is the focus of Utility Analysis in HR analytics? a) Scheduling project activities over time to determine any conflicts in schedules b) Evaluating the monetary value of an HR program’s effect on performance c) Classifying potential causes of workplace issues in order to find solutions d) Gathering ideas through anonymous participation
B