Upper GI Flashcards

(55 cards)

1
Q

Which organ in the GI tract is responsible for producing bile to metabolise carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and drugs?

A

The liver.

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2
Q

What is the primary function of the gall bladder in the digestive system?

A

It stores and concentrates bile from the liver.

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3
Q

Which organ is responsible for the release of digestive enzymes into the GI tract?

A

The pancreas.

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4
Q

How does the small intestine facilitate the maximum absorption of nutrients?

A

It is coated with microvilli to increase the surface area.

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5
Q

What are the two primary functions of the large intestine?

A

It absorbs water and expels waste.

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6
Q

The process of moving material through the gastrointestinal tract via wave-like muscle contractions is known as _____.

A

Peristalsis.

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7
Q

What is the common clinical term used to describe indigestion?

A

Dyspepsia.

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8
Q

What occurs physiologically in Gastro-oesophageal Reflux Disease (GORD)?

A

The oesophageal sphincter is weakened, allowing stomach contents to reflux into the oesophagus.

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9
Q

Which bacterium is the most common cause of inflammation in the stomach lining (gastritis)?

A

$H. \text{pylori}$ ($Helicobacter \text{ pylori}$).

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10
Q

If left untreated, what condition can chronic gastritis eventually result in?

A

Peptic ulceration.

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11
Q

Which two substances are noted for increasing the risk of developing gastritis?

A

Alcohol and NSAIDs (Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs).

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12
Q

What is the difference between a gastric ulcer and a duodenal ulcer?

A

Gastric ulcers develop in the stomach, while duodenal ulcers develop in the duodenum.

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13
Q

List three common symptoms of dyspepsia related to abdominal comfort.

A

Bloating, flatulence, and a feeling of fullness.

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14
Q

Which psychological factors are identified as risk factors for dyspepsia?

A

Stress, anxiety, and depression.

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15
Q

Why is it important to ask a dyspepsia patient about their use of OTC, herbal, and prescription medications?

A

Certain medications, such as NSAIDs, can cause or aggravate dyspepsia symptoms.

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16
Q

At what age does the first incidence of dyspepsia become a ‘Red Flag’ requiring referral?

A

Over 50 years old.

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17
Q

Why is ‘black tarry stool’ considered a red flag in patients with upper GI symptoms?

A

It indicates the presence of digested blood, suggesting a potential GI bleed.

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18
Q

What red flag symptom involves the physical sensation of swallowing?

A

The feeling of food sticking in the throat.

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19
Q

Which types of antacid salts provide a rapid onset but have a short duration of action?

A

Sodium and potassium salts.

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20
Q

How do magnesium and aluminium salts differ from sodium salts in the treatment of dyspepsia?

A

They dissolve more slowly but provide a longer duration of action.

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21
Q

Which antacid salt is characterised by both a fast onset and a long duration of action?

A

Calcium.

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22
Q

When is the optimal time for a patient to take antacids and alginates for maximum effect?

A

After food and before bed.

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23
Q

Regarding formulation, why might a patient prefer liquid antacids over tablets during an acute episode?

A

Liquid formulations act the quickest.

24
Q

Which common alginate brand is specifically noted as safe for use during pregnancy?

25
In Gaviscon, what is the specific role of sodium alginate?
It reacts with acid to form a low-density gel (raft) that blocks stomach contents from entering the oesophagus.
26
How does calcium carbonate contribute to the efficacy of Gaviscon?
It reduces acid pH and releases calcium ions that strengthen the alginate gel raft.
27
What is the function of sodium bicarbonate in the Gaviscon 'raft' mechanism?
It reacts with acid to produce $CO_{2}$, which makes the alginate raft float on top of the stomach acid.
28
Mechanism of Action: Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPIs)
They irreversibly inhibit Proton ($H^{+}$) pumps in parietal cells to reduce gastric acid secretion.
29
Which two PPIs are available Over-The-Counter (OTC) in the UK?
Esomeprazole and Omeprazole.
30
What is the minimum age requirement for purchasing OTC Proton Pump Inhibitors?
18 years old.
31
What is the maximum licenced duration for the continuous use of OTC PPIs?
14 days.
32
Why should patients be advised that PPIs are not for immediate symptom relief?
They are slow-acting and typically take 1–2 days to have a full effect.
33
What lifestyle modification is recommended for patients experiencing nocturnal (night-time) reflux?
Raising the head of the bed by adding more pillows.
34
How is a diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease definitively confirmed?
Via endoscopy.
35
What are the three major complications associated with peptic ulcer disease?
Haemorrhage, perforation, and gastric outlet obstruction.
36
Describe the typical timing and nature of pain associated with stomach ulcers.
A burning pain that often occurs between meals or at night when the stomach is empty.
37
Why might a patient with a chronic stomach ulcer experience fatigue?
It can be secondary to anaemia caused by chronic internal bleeding.
38
To avoid aggravating an ulcer, how long before bed should a patient ideally eat their evening meal?
3–4 hours before bed.
39
What is the 'gold standard' advice for patients who must take NSAIDs but are at risk of ulcers?
Ensure the NSAIDs are taken with food.
40
Term: Nausea
Definition: A sensation of discomfort or unease in the stomach that often precedes vomiting.
41
Term: Vomiting
Definition: The forceful expulsion of gastric contents.
42
Where in the brain is the 'vomiting centre' located?
The medulla oblongata.
43
What is the function of the Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone (CTZ)?
It detects toxins or drugs in the blood and sends signals to the GI tract to induce vomiting.
44
Which inner ear infection is a common cause of nausea and dizziness?
Labyrinthitis.
45
What dietary advice involving specific herbs is recommended to alleviate nausea?
Drinking ginger or peppermint tea or eating foods containing ginger.
46
Approximately what percentage of women are affected by nausea and vomiting in early pregnancy?
Greater than $50\% $.
47
By which week of gestation does pregnancy-related nausea and vomiting usually resolve?
16–20 weeks.
48
List two risk factors for severe nausea and vomiting in pregnancy ($Hyperemesis \text{ Gravidarum}$).
Increased placental mass (e.g., multiple pregnancy) and obesity.
49
What simple morning dietary intervention is suggested for pregnancy-related nausea?
Eating plain biscuits or crackers in the morning.
50
Why are cold meals often better tolerated than hot meals in smell-related pregnancy nausea?
Cold meals generally produce fewer odours that trigger symptoms.
51
Which specific acupressure point is suggested for managing nausea?
The P6 point on the ventral aspect of the wrist.
52
In children, what age and duration threshold for vomiting constitutes a Red Flag?
Vomiting in children under 1 year old that lasts more than 24 hours.
53
Why is 'early morning vomiting' a specific Red Flag in women of childbearing age?
It is a primary indicator of pregnancy that requires confirmation.
54
Which red flag symptom for N&V is particularly concerning during pregnancy due to the risk of malnutrition or dehydration?
Unexplained loss in body weight.
55
What is the recommended dietary pattern for someone suffering from nausea to avoid overloading the stomach?
Eat smaller, more frequent meals.