Week 9 Powerpoint Flashcards

(49 cards)

1
Q

A nurse is conducting a health history with an 80-year-old client. According to Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development, which of the following is the primary task the nurse should expect the client to be navigating?

A. Generativity vs. Stagnation
B. Trust vs. Mistrust
C. Ego Integrity vs. Despair
D. Intimacy vs. Isolation

A

Answer: C. Ego Integrity vs. Despair

Rationale: Erikson’s final stage, Ego Integrity vs. Despair, occurs in late adulthood (65+). During this stage, adults reflect on their lives. A sense of Ego Integrity is achieved by accepting one’s life as having been meaningful. Despair occurs if the person has many regrets and feels their life was a waste. Generativity vs. Stagnation is for middle adulthood, Intimacy vs. Isolation is for young adulthood, and Trust vs. Mistrust is for infancy.

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2
Q

A 78-year-old client tells the nurse, “I feel like my life hasn’t mattered. I wish I had made different choices.” The nurse identifies that the client is experiencing which stage of Erikson’s development?

A. Stagnation
B. Despair
C. Isolation
D. Role Confusion

A

Answer: B. Despair

Rationale: The client’s statement, reflecting regret and a feeling that their life “hasn’t mattered,” is a classic manifestation of Despair. This is the negative outcome of Erikson’s final developmental stage, which contrasts with Ego Integrity.

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3
Q

A nurse observes a colleague consistently speaking to an alert and oriented 85-year-old client using a high-pitched, sing-song voice and simple, childlike phrases. The nurse identifies this as an example of:

A. Ageism
B. Empathy
C. Therapeutic communication
D. Reality orientation

A

Answer: A. Ageism

Rationale: This type of communication is known as “elderspeak” and is a form of ageism. It is based on the incorrect stereotype that all older adults are confused, hard of hearing, or cognitively impaired. It is demeaning and non-therapeutic.

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4
Q

Which of the following is a common stereotype about aging?

A. Most older adults live in nursing homes.
B. Older workers are less reliable than younger workers.
C. Cognitive decline is an inevitable and severe part of aging.
D. All of the above.

A

Answer: D. All of the above.

Rationale: All three statements are common, false stereotypes. In reality, only a small percentage of older adults live in nursing homes, older workers have high rates of reliability, and while some processing-speed changes are normal, severe cognitive decline (like dementia) is a disease, not a normal part of aging.

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5
Q

. A nurse is assessing an older adult in the emergency department and notes multiple bruises in various stages of healing on the client’s arms and torso. The client’s caregiver, who is their adult child, refuses to leave the room and answers all questions for the client. What is the nurse’s priority action?

A. Document the bruises and tell the caregiver to be more careful.
B. Ask the caregiver to step out of the room so the client can be interviewed in private.
C. Call social services immediately without speaking to the client first.
D. Ask the client directly, in front of the caregiver, “Is your child hurting you?”

A

Answer: B. Ask the caregiver to step out of the room so the client can be interviewed in private.

Rationale: The nurse’s priority is to conduct a private assessment. The bruises and the caregiver’s behavior (controlling, not leaving the client alone) are significant red flags for elder abuse. The nurse must create a safe environment to interview the client alone to gather more data. Asking directly in front of the abuser (Option D) could endanger the client. While social services will be notified (Option C), a private assessment should be attempted first to confirm suspicions.

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6
Q

Which finding is the clearest indicator of potential financial abuse in an older adult client who lives with a family member?

A. The client has a joint bank account with the family member.
B. The client states, “My son helps me pay all my bills.”
C. The client reports their “usual” utilities have been shut off for non-payment.
D. The client recently decided to give their car to their grandchild.

A

Answer: C. The client reports their “usual” utilities have been shut off for non-payment.

Rationale: While joint accounts and helping with bills can be appropriate, the sudden inability to pay for basic necessities like utilities, especially when the client has a known source of income (like social security), is a major red flag that someone else may be misappropriating the client’s funds.

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7
Q

An 88-year-old client is admitted from home with dehydration and severe malnutrition. The client appears unkempt, has a strong body odor, and is wearing soiled clothing. The nurse recognizes these findings as potential indicators of:

A. Physical abuse
B. Neglect
C. Financial abuse
D. A normal part of aging

A

Answer: B. Neglect

Rationale: Neglect is the failure of a caregiver to provide necessary goods or services, such as food, water, hygiene, and medical care. The client’s unkempt appearance, poor hygiene, dehydration, and malnutrition strongly suggest their basic needs are not being met.

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8
Q

A 70-year-old client is preparing for retirement. Which question by the nurse is most appropriate to assess the client’s adjustment to this life change?

A. “Are you worried you won’t have enough money?”
B. “What do you plan to do with all your free time?” C. “Have you thought about how this change might affect your daily routine and social life?”
D. “Do you think you will be bored?”

A

Answer: C. “Have you thought about how this change might affect your daily routine and social life?”

Rationale: This open-ended, non-judgmental question encourages the client to reflect on the significant psychosocial adjustments related to retirement, including the loss of a daily work structure and social interaction with colleagues. The other options are closed-ended and make negative assumptions (boredom, financial worry).

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9
Q

A devoutly religious client is distressed about their declining health. Which nursing intervention best addresses the client’s spiritual needs?

A. Telling the client that their faith will heal them. B. Asking the client if they would like to speak with the hospital chaplain.
C. Reading a passage from the nurse’s own religious text to the client. D. Explaining that illness is a normal part of aging.

A

Answer: B. Asking the client if they would like to speak with the hospital chaplain. Rationale: This intervention respects the client’s expressed spirituality by offering a resource (chaplain) that aligns with their needs, without imposing the nurse’s own beliefs (Option C) or offering false reassurance (Option A).

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10
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who is grieving the recent death of their spouse. Which action by the nurse is most therapeutic?

A. Telling the client, “Don’t cry, they are in a better place.”
B. Sitting with the client and allowing them to express their feelings.
C. Asking the client if they have considered getting a pet for companionship.
D. Sharing a story about a time the nurse experienced a similar loss.

A

Answer: B. Sitting with the client and allowing them to express their feelings. Rationale: The most therapeutic intervention for grief is to use therapeutic presence. This involves sitting with the client, actively listening, and creating a safe space for them to express their emotions without judgment or attempts to “fix” their sadness. The other options are non-therapeutic and block communication.

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11
Q

Which of the following is considered a normal neurological change associated with aging?

A. A new onset of tremors in the hands.
B. A decline in long-term memory.
C. Slower reaction time and cognitive processing. D. A sudden onset of confusion and disorientation.

A

Answer: C. Slower reaction time and cognitive processing.

Rationale: A modest slowing of reaction time and processing speed is a normal part of aging due to a decrease in neurons and slower nerve conduction. New tremors (Option A) could indicate Parkinson’s disease. Significant loss of long-term memory (Option B) is not normal. Sudden confusion (Option D) is a hallmark of delirium, an acute medical emergency.

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12
Q

A nurse is teaching a community class about sensory changes in aging. Which change is associated with presbycusis?

A. Difficulty distinguishing colors, especially blues and greens.
B. A slow, progressive loss of high-frequency hearing.
C. Increased pressure within the eye.
D. A clouding of the lens of the eye.

A

Answer: B. A slow, progressive loss of high-frequency hearing.

Rationale: Presbycusis is the age-related, progressive hearing loss that typically affects the ability to hear high-pitched sounds first (e.g., consonants like “s” and “th”). Option A describes changes to the lens (yellowing), Option C is glaucoma, and Option D is a cataract.

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13
Q

A 75-year-old client reports that they have to hold their newspaper at arm’s length to read it. The nurse recognizes this as a common finding associated with:

A. Presbyopia
B. Cataracts
C. Glaucoma
D. Macular degeneration

A

Answer: A. Presbyopia

Rationale: Presbyopia is the age-related loss of the eye’s ability to focus on nearby objects. This is caused by the lens becoming less flexible. Holding reading material farther away is a classic compensatory mechanism.

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14
Q

A nurse is communicating with an older adult client who has severe presbycusis. Which intervention is most appropriate?

A. Shouting directly into the client’s ear.
B. Facing the client and speaking clearly in a lower-pitched voice.
C. Using “elderspeak” with simple words and a high pitch.
D. Writing everything down, as the client cannot hear at all.

A

Answer: B. Facing the client and speaking clearly in a lower-pitched voice.

Rationale: Since presbycusis involves the loss of high-frequency sounds, shouting (which raises the pitch) makes speech harder to understand. The best approach is to face the client (allowing for lip-reading), reduce background noise, and speak clearly and at a slightly lower, moderate-paced tone.

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15
Q

A client is diagnosed with cataracts. The nurse anticipates the client will report which primary symptom?

A. Sudden, severe eye pain.
B. A loss of peripheral (side) vision.
C. Blurred vision and increased glare, especially at night.
D. A dark spot in the center of the visual field.

A

Answer: C. Blurred vision and increased glare, especially at night.

Rationale: A cataract is a clouding of the eye’s natural lens. This clouding causes light to scatter, leading to symptoms of blurred or hazy vision, decreased color perception, and a significant increase in glare, particularly from headlights at night. Sudden pain (A) is linked to acute glaucoma. Peripheral vision loss (B) is classic glaucoma. Central vision loss (D) is macular degeneration.

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16
Q

A nurse is teaching a client about self-care for newly diagnosed open-angle glaucoma. Which statement is essential to include?

A. “This condition is curable with surgery, so you will only need eye drops for a few weeks.”
B. “You must use your prescribed eye drops for the rest of your life to prevent blindness.”
C. “This condition causes a blind spot in the center of your vision, so you must stop driving.”
D. “A yearly eye exam is all that is needed to monitor this condition.”

A

Answer: B. “You must use your prescribed eye drops for the rest of your life to prevent blindness.”

Rationale: Open-angle glaucoma is a chronic, progressive condition that damages the optic nerve, usually from increased intraocular pressure. It is not curable. The goal of treatment (typically with lifelong eye drops) is to lower the pressure and prevent further vision loss and blindness.

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17
Q

A client with age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is being discharged. Which nursing intervention is most important for the client’s safety?

A. Teaching the client to self-administer daily eye drops.
B. Reminding the client to wear sunglasses outdoors.
C. Recommending the use of magnifying glasses and large-print books.
D. Instructing the client on the “Amsler grid” to monitor for central vision loss.

A

Answer: C. Recommending the use of magnifying glasses and large-print books.

Rationale: Macular degeneration causes the loss of central vision, which is critical for reading, recognizing faces, and seeing fine detail. Magnification aids and large-print items are essential adaptations to help the client maintain function and safety in reading labels, instructions, etc. The Amsler grid (D) is for monitoring, not a safety adaptation.

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18
Q

An 82-year-old client is admitted to the hospital and exhibits sudden, fluctuating confusion, inattention, and disorganized thinking. The client’s family reports this behavior started “yesterday.” The nurse suspects:

A. Delirium
B. Dementia
C. Depression
D. Normal aging

A

Answer: A. Delirium Rationale: The key features are its acute/sudden onset and fluctuating course with inattention. This clinical picture is characteristic of delirium, which is a medical emergency often caused by an underlying issue (like infection, dehydration, or medication). Dementia (B) has a slow, progressive onset.

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19
Q

A nurse is providing education to the family of a client with Alzheimer’s disease (dementia). Which statement indicates the caregiver understands the disease?

A. “If we find the right medication, this disease can be cured.”
B. “This is just temporary confusion, and it will go away.”
C. “I should reorient my mother to the correct date and time every time she is confused.”
D. “I will maintain a consistent daily schedule and safe environment for my mother.”

A

Answer: D. “I will maintain a consistent daily schedule and safe environment for my mother.”

Rationale: Dementia is a progressive, incurable disease. The best non-pharmacological interventions involve providing a safe, predictable, and calm environment. Maintaining a consistent routine (structural environmental intervention) reduces anxiety and confusion for the client. Constantly reorienting (C) a client with moderate to severe dementia can increase agitation.

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20
Q

A nurse is explaining age-related respiratory changes to a new graduate. Which statement is accurate?

A. “The lungs become more elastic, increasing vital capacity.”
B. “The cough reflex becomes stronger and more sensitive.”
C. “Cilia in the airways become more numerous and effective.”
D. “The chest wall stiffens, and lung elasticity decreases.”

A

Answer: D. “The chest wall stiffens, and lung elasticity decreases.”

Rationale: Normal aging causes the costal cartilage to calcify and the chest wall to stiffen. The lungs also lose elastic recoil. This combination decreases vital capacity and increases residual volume, making breathing less efficient. The cough reflex (B) and ciliary action (C) both weaken, increasing the risk of pneumonia.

21
Q

An older adult client is admitted with pneumonia. The nurse knows that age-related changes place this client at high risk for this condition. Which age-related change is the most significant contributing factor?

A. Decreased number of alveoli.
B. Decreased inspiratory muscle strength and a less effective cough.
C. Increased flexibility of the thoracic cage.
D. Increased sensitivity of the respiratory center to hypoxia.

A

Answer: B. Decreased inspiratory muscle strength and a less effective cough.

Rationale: A weaker cough reflex and reduced cough strength, combined with weaker inspiratory muscles, make it difficult for the older adult to clear secretions and foreign matter from the airway. This pooling of secretions provides a medium for bacterial growth, leading to pneumonia.

22
Q

A nurse is teaching an older adult client about health promotion. Which intervention is most important to promote respiratory health?

A. Recommending complete bed rest to conserve energy.
B. Encouraging regular physical activity, such as walking.
C. Suggesting the client move to a drier climate.
D. Advising the client to drink less water to avoid fluid overload.

A

Answer: B. Encouraging regular physical activity, such as walking.

Rationale: Regular, moderate exercise (like walking) helps maintain inspiratory muscle strength, prevents atelectasis, and promotes mobilization of secretions. Bed rest (A) is a major risk factor for respiratory complications.

23
Q

Which cardiovascular change is commonly seen in older adults?

A. A decrease in systolic blood pressure.
B. An increase in maximum heart rate during exercise.
C. Stiffening of blood vessels and a slight increase in systolic blood pressure.
D. A thinner, more flexible heart muscle.

A

Answer: C. Stiffening of blood vessels and a slight increase in systolic blood pressure.

Rationale: As a person ages, the arteries lose elasticity and become stiffer (arteriosclerosis). This increased vascular resistance causes systolic blood pressure to rise. The heart muscle hypertrophies (thickens) to pump against this resistance, and the maximum heart rate (B) and cardiac output decrease.

24
Q

A nurse is assessing an 80-year-old client’s vital signs. Which finding is the most immediate cause for concern?

A. Heart rate of 62 bpm.
B. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min.
C. Blood pressure of 148/88 mmHg.
D. A report of dizziness when standing up from a chair.

A

Answer: D. A report of dizziness when standing up from a chair.

Rationale: The report of dizziness upon standing is a classic symptom of orthostatic hypotension (a drop in blood pressure with a position change). This is a major concern because it significantly increases the risk for falls and injury. The other vital signs are within a range that is common (though not ideal, in the case of the BP) for an older adult and are not as immediately dangerous as a fall risk.

25
A nurse is assessing a client for orthostatic hypotension. Which action should the nurse take? A. Measure the blood pressure while the client is sitting and again after 1 minute of standing. B. Measure the blood pressure in both arms and compare the readings. C. Measure the blood pressure after the client has been lying flat for 5 minutes, then 1 and 3 minutes after the client stands up. D. Check the client's radial pulse and apical pulse at the same time.
Answer: C. Measure the blood pressure after the client has been lying flat for 5 minutes, then 1 and 3 minutes after the client stands up. Rationale: This is the correct procedure. A diagnosis of orthostatic hypotension is made if there is a drop in systolic BP of 20 mmHg or more, or a drop in diastolic BP of 10 mmHg or more, within 3 minutes of standing.
26
A nurse is teaching a client measures to prevent orthostatic hypotension. Which instruction is most appropriate? A. "Drink a full glass of water 30 minutes before getting out of bed in the morning." B. "Stand up quickly to help your body adjust to the change in position." C. "Take a hot bath or shower first thing in the morning to improve circulation." D. "Change positions slowly, and 'dangle' your legs on the side of the bed before standing."
Answer: D. "Change positions slowly, and 'dangle' your legs on the side of the bed before standing." Rationale: Changing positions gradually allows the baroreceptors (which are less sensitive in older adults) time to recognize the position change and constrict blood vessels, preventing a sudden drop in blood pressure. Standing quickly (B) will induce the problem. Hot baths (C) cause vasodilation and can worsen orthostatic hypotension.
27
An older adult client complains of chronic constipation. The nurse explains that this is a common problem related to which age-related change? A. Increased peristalsis in the large intestine. B. Decreased motility in the large intestine. C. Increased secretion of digestive enzymes. D. Increased muscle tone of the abdominal wall.
Answer: B. Decreased motility in the large intestine. Rationale: Aging is associated with a slowing of peristalsis (the wave-like muscle contractions) in the GI tract. This decreased motility allows more time for water to be absorbed from the stool, resulting in harder, drier stools that are more difficult to pass.
28
A nurse is developing a plan of care for an older adult client to prevent constipation. Which intervention is a priority? A. Encouraging a diet high in fiber and increasing fluid intake. B. Administering a laxative every morning. C. Recommending the client lie down after each meal. D. Teaching the client to avoid fruits and vegetables.
Answer: A. Encouraging a diet high in fiber and increasing fluid intake. Rationale: The first-line, non-pharmacological approach to preventing constipation is to increase dietary fiber (which adds bulk to the stool) and ensure adequate fluid intake (which softens the stool). Regular exercise is also important. Laxatives (B) should not be the first-line or long-term solution.
29
An older adult client reports frequent heartburn after meals, especially when lying down. The nurse recognizes these symptoms are characteristic of: A. Diverticulitis B. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) C. Cholecystitis D. Constipation
Answer: B. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) Rationale: Heartburn (pyrosis) and regurgitation, especially when reclining after eating, are hallmark symptoms of GERD. This is common in older adults due to a weakening of the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) muscle tone.
30
Which age-related change in the genitourinary system is common in older adult females? A. Increased bladder capacity. B. Increased estrogen levels and vaginal lubrication. C. Decreased bladder capacity and weakening of pelvic floor muscles. D. Lengthening of the urethra.
Answer: C. Decreased bladder capacity and weakening of pelvic floor muscles. Rationale: As women age, the bladder becomes less elastic and cannot hold as much urine (decreased capacity). Furthermore, declining estrogen levels and childbirth can lead to weakening of the pelvic floor muscles, which support the bladder and urethra, contributing to stress incontinence.
31
An older male client reports difficulty starting a stream of urine, a feeling of incomplete bladder emptying, and nocturia (waking at night to urinate). The nurse suspects these symptoms are related to: A. A urinary tract infection (UTI). B. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). C. Renal failure. D. Urge incontinence.
Answer: B. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Rationale: BPH is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland, which is very common in older men. The enlarged prostate compresses the urethra, leading to obstructive symptoms like hesitancy (difficulty starting), a weak stream, incomplete emptying, and irritative symptoms like frequency and nocturia.
32
An 84-year-old female client reports leaking a small amount of urine every time she coughs, sneezes, or laughs. The nurse identifies this as which type of incontinence? A. Stress incontinence B. Urge incontinence C. Overflow incontinence D. Functional incontinence
Answer: A. Stress incontinence Rationale: Stress incontinence is the involuntary loss of urine during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure (e.g., coughing, sneezing, laughing, lifting). It is common in older women due to weakened pelvic floor muscles.
33
A nurse is teaching a client how to perform Kegel exercises to manage stress incontinence. Which instruction is correct? A. "Bear down as if you are having a bowel movement and hold for 10 seconds." B. "Tighten the muscles you would use to stop the flow of urine, hold for 10 seconds, then relax." C. "Tense and relax your abdominal muscles as quickly as you can." D. "This exercise will only work if you do it while you are urinating."
Answer: B. "Tighten the muscles you would use to stop the flow of urine, hold for 10 seconds, then relax." Rationale: This instruction correctly identifies the pubococcygeal (pelvic floor) muscles. The exercise involves tightening these muscles, holding the contraction, and then fully relaxing. It should not be done while urinating (D) as this can lead to urinary retention.
34
Which age-related change in the endocrine system increases the risk for developing type 2 diabetes? A. Increased sensitivity of cells to insulin. B. Decreased secretion of cortisol. C. Increased secretion of thyroid hormone. D. Decreased tissue sensitivity to insulin (insulin resistance).
Answer: D. Decreased tissue sensitivity to insulin (insulin resistance). Rationale: A key change with aging is a decrease in the body's sensitivity to circulating insulin, known as insulin resistance. This means more insulin is required to manage blood glucose, and the pancreas may not be able to keep up with the demand, leading to hyperglycemia and type 2 diabetes.
35
A nurse explains to an older adult client that the age-related loss of muscle mass and strength is called: A. Osteoporosis B. Sarcopenia C. Arthritis D. Kyphosis
Answer: B. Sarcopenia Rationale: Sarcopenia is the progressive and generalized loss of skeletal muscle mass and strength that occurs with aging. Osteoporosis (A) is the loss of bone density. Arthritis (C) is joint inflammation. Kyphosis (D) is the forward rounding of the upper back.
36
Which intervention is most effective in slowing the progression of sarcopenia in older adults? A. A high-carbohydrate, low-protein diet. B. Bed rest to conserve muscle energy. C. Progressive resistance (strength) training exercises. D. Daily endurance exercise, such as long-distance running.
Answer: C. Progressive resistance (strength) training exercises. Rationale: The most effective intervention to combat sarcopenia is resistance training (e.g., using weights or resistance bands). This type of exercise directly stimulates muscle protein synthesis and builds muscle mass and strength. Adequate protein intake is also essential.
37
A postmenopausal client is diagnosed with osteoporosis. The nurse knows this client is at high risk for: A. Fractures B. Seizures C. Heart attacks D. Autoimmune disease
Answer: A. Fractures Rationale: Osteoporosis is a disease characterized by low bone mass and deterioration of bone tissue, leading to bone fragility. This "porous bone" is extremely brittle and at high risk for fractures (e.g., hip, wrist, spine) from minimal trauma or even spontaneously.
38
A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with osteoporosis. Which food should the nurse recommend as a good source of calcium? A. Oranges B. Plain yogurt C. Chicken breast D. Whole-wheat bread
Answer: B. Plain yogurt Rationale: Dairy products, such as yogurt, milk, and cheese, are the most concentrated food sources of calcium. Dark leafy greens (like kale and broccoli) are also good sources.
39
A nurse is teaching a client about taking the bisphosphonate medication alendronate (Fosamax) for osteoporosis. Which instruction is critical? A. "Take the medication with your evening meal." B. "Take the medication with a full glass of water and remain upright for 30 minutes." C. "Crush the tablet and mix it in applesauce if it's hard to swallow." D. "It is safe to lie down immediately after taking this medication."
Answer: B. "Take the medication with a full glass of water and remain upright for 30 minutes." Rationale: Bisphosphonates can cause severe esophageal irritation and ulcers. To prevent this, the client must take the pill with a full glass of water (not juice or coffee) on an empty stomach in the morning and must remain sitting or standing for at least 30 minutes (60 minutes for ibandronate) to ensure the pill passes quickly into the stomach.
40
Which of the following is a normal age-related change in the integumentary system? A. Increased production of sweat and oil. B. Thickening of the dermal and epidermal layers. C. Increased subcutaneous fat, providing more insulation. D. Thin, fragile skin and decreased subcutaneous fat.
Answer: D. Thin, fragile skin and decreased subcutaneous fat. Rationale: With aging, the epidermis and dermis thin, and the skin becomes less elastic and more fragile. There is also a loss of subcutaneous fat, which decreases insulation, padding, and protection for bony prominences, increasing the risk for pressure injuries.
41
An older adult client is immobile and on bed rest. The nurse observes a persistent, non-blanchable red area on the client's sacrum. The nurse stages this as: A. Stage 1 Pressure Injury B. Stage 2 Pressure Injury C. Deep Tissue Injury D. Normal skin reaction
Answer: A. Stage 1 Pressure Injury Rationale: A Stage 1 pressure injury is defined as intact skin with a localized area of non-blanchable erythema (redness). The skin is not broken. This is the first sign of tissue damage.
42
A nurse stages a pressure injury as "unstageable." What did the nurse observe? A. Intact skin with a purple, maroon discoloration. B. Full-thickness skin loss with exposed bone and tendon. C. A shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed. D. Full-thickness skin loss where the base is covered by slough and/or eschar.
Answer: D. Full-thickness skin loss where the base is covered by slough and/or eschar. Rationale: An unstageable pressure injury is one in which the true depth of the wound cannot be determined because it is obscured by slough (yellow, tan, gray) or eschar (black, brown). The slough/eschar must be removed to stage the wound.
43
Which nursing intervention is a priority for preventing pressure injuries in an immobile older adult client? A. Massaging any reddened bony prominences. B. Repositioning the client at least every 2 hours. C. Applying a doughnut-shaped cushion to the sacrum. D. Keeping the client's skin moist by limiting linen changes.
Answer: B. Repositioning the client at least every 2 hours. Rationale: The primary cause of pressure injuries is prolonged, unrelieved pressure over a bony prominence. The most important intervention is to redistribute this pressure by turning and repositioning the client frequently (e.g., q 2 hours in bed, q 1 hour in a chair). Massaging (A) can damage tissue, and doughnut cushions (C) can create a ring of pressure. Skin should be kept clean and dry.
44
A nurse is teaching a nursing assistant about skin care for older adults. Which instruction should be included? A. "Use hot water and harsh soaps to ensure the skin is clean." B. "Scrub the skin vigorously to remove dead cells." C. "Apply moisturizing lotion to the skin, especially after bathing." D. "Bathe the client every day to prevent skin breakdown."
Answer: C. "Apply moisturizing lotion to the skin, especially after bathing." Rationale: Older adults have decreased oil production (sebaceous glands), leading to dry, itchy skin (xerosis). Applying a moisturizer, especially after bathing, helps to lock in moisture and maintain the skin's barrier. Hot water and harsh soaps (A) strip the skin of its natural oils. Scrubbing (B) can tear fragile skin. Daily bathing (D) may not be necessary and can worsen dryness.
45
A nurse is reviewing the medication list for an 80-year-old client and notes the client is prescribed 14 different medications. The nurse identifies this as: A. Polypharmacy B. Pharmacokinetics C. The BEERS criteria D. Adherence
Answer: A. Polypharmacy Rationale: Polypharmacy is the concurrent use of multiple medications, often defined as five or more. It is common in older adults, who often have multiple chronic conditions. Polypharmacy significantly increases the risk of adverse drug events, drug interactions, and non-adherence.
46
A nurse is teaching an older adult client about managing multiple medications. Which teaching point is the priority for safety? A. "You can use the same pharmacy for all your prescriptions, but it's not necessary." B. "Always bring a list of all your medications, including over-the-counter drugs and supplements, to every doctor's appointment." C. "If you feel better, you can stop taking your blood pressure or diabetes medication." D. "You can store all your pills in one large bottle to save space."
Answer: B. "Always bring a list of all your medications, including over-the-counter drugs and supplements, to every doctor's appointment." Rationale: Maintaining a complete and accurate medication list (including OTCs, herbals, and supplements) and sharing it with all providers is the most critical step to prevent adverse drug interactions and inappropriate prescribing. This process is called medication reconciliation. Clients should never stop chronic medications (C) without consulting their provider.
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What is the most common accidental injury in older adults, often leading to hospitalization? A. Burns B. Poisoning C. Motor vehicle accidents D. Falls
Answer: D. Falls Rationale: Falls are the leading cause of both fatal and non-fatal injuries in adults 65 and older. Age-related changes (gait instability, sarcopenia, orthostatic hypotension, sensory deficits) and polypharmacy greatly increase this risk.
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A nurse is setting up a hospital room for an 82-year-old client who is at high risk for falls. Which action is most appropriate? A. Raise all four side rails on the bed to prevent the client from getting up. B. Ensure the hospital bed is in the lowest position and the call light is within reach. C. Keep the room dimly lit to promote rest and prevent overstimulation. D. Ask the client's family to stay 24/7 so the nurse does not have to worry.
Answer: B. Ensure the hospital bed is in the lowest position and the call light is within reach. Rationale: This is a key "universal fall precaution." A low bed minimizes the distance to the floor if a fall occurs, and having the call light within reach allows the client to call for assistance before trying to get up unassisted. Raising all four side rails (A) is considered a restraint and can lead to injury if the client tries to climb over them. A well-lit path to the bathroom (C) is safer than a dim room.
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Which environmental modification should the nurse recommend to an older adult client to reduce the risk of falls at home? A. Placing small throw rugs on slippery tile floors. B. Wearing soft, loose-fitting slippers with no backing. C. Removing clutter and securing loose electrical cords from walkways. D. Installing dim, 15-watt light bulbs to save energy.
Answer: C. Removing clutter and securing loose electrical cords from walkways. Rationale: Environmental hazards are a major contributor to falls. Clear pathways, free of clutter and tripping hazards like throw rugs (A) and cords, are essential. The client should wear well-fitting, non-skid footwear (not B). Bright lighting (not D) is needed to compensate for age-related vision changes.