104

Question 1

What are the components of ILS?

Answer 1

Localizer (azimuth) + Glideslope (altitude)

ILS stands for Instrument Landing System, which helps pilots land in poor visibility conditions.

Question 2

Do all runways have an ILS?

Answer 2

No

Not every runway is equipped with an Instrument Landing System.

Question 3

What are the typical ILS DHs for CAT I, CAT II, and CAT III?

Answer 3

CAT I 200 ft; CAT II 100 ft (150 ft special); CAT III None

DH stands for Decision Height, which is the altitude at which a decision must be made to continue the approach or execute a go-around.

Question 4

What do these ILS DHs represent?

Answer 4

Not ceiling requirements

These heights indicate decision points for pilots rather than minimum ceiling altitudes.

Question 5

What are the typical ILS RVR minima for CAT I, CAT II, and CAT III?

Answer 5

CAT I 2400’ (or 1800’ special); CAT II 1200’; CAT IIIA 700’; CAT IIIB 600’ or 300’

RVR stands for Runway Visual Range, which indicates the distance a pilot can see down the runway.

Question 6

Does the LOC Back Course have a glideslope?

Answer 6

No

The Localizer Back Course does not provide vertical guidance.

Question 7

How are Precision and APV approaches flown?

Answer 7

Both use DA(H) and are flown the same way

DA(H) stands for Decision Altitude (Height), which is critical for approach decisions.

Question 8

What is the difference between HAT and HAA?

Answer 8

HAT: height above TDZE (straight-in). HAA: height above airport (circling)

TDZE stands for Touchdown Zone Elevation.

Question 9

What is the basis for aircraft approach category?

Answer 9

1.3 × stall speed at max landing weight

This calculation helps determine the appropriate approach category for an aircraft.

Question 10

What are the B-727 categories?

Answer 10

Cat C (straight-in) / Cat D (circling)

These categories classify the B-727 for approach procedures.

Question 11

What does VOR provide?

Answer 11

360 radials; with DME gives radial-distance position

VOR stands for VHF Omnidirectional Range, which is a type of radio navigation system.

Question 12

What are the typical VOR service volumes?

Answer 12

High 130 nm; Low 40 nm to 18,000’; Terminal 25 nm to 12,000’

Service volume indicates the range at which a VOR can provide reliable navigation.

Question 13

What is the Class I navigation limitation?

Answer 13

Must remain within navaid service volumes (per OpSpecs)

OpSpecs refers to operational specifications that outline the limitations and requirements for navigation.

Question 14

What is the current use of NDB in the U.S.?

Answer 14

Going away; rough guidance

NDB stands for Non-Directional Beacon, which is becoming less common due to advancements in technology.

Question 15

What are the types of RNAV (GPS) minima?

Answer 15

LNAV (NP), LNAV/VNAV (baro-VNAV or WAAS), LPV (WAAS vertical guidance)

RNAV stands for Area Navigation, which allows aircraft to fly on any desired flight path.

Question 16

What is key about LPV?

Answer 16

Requires WAAS vertical guidance; lowest RNAV minima

WAAS stands for Wide Area Augmentation System, enhancing GPS accuracy.

Question 17

What should be checked if GPS is required for RNAV enroute?

Answer 17

Check NOTAMs; DME/DME or DME/DME/IRU not affected by GPS outages

NOTAMs are Notices to Airmen that provide information about the status of navigational aids and other important details.

Question 18

What is the RNAV alternates rule?

Answer 18

Use LNAV mins for alternate computations unless plate/notes prohibit

This rule helps determine the minimum standards for alternate airports.

Question 19

What does ‘Negative W’ / WAAS NOTAM text indicate?

Answer 19

Plan LNAV only

This means that the WAAS system is not available, limiting the approach options.

Question 20

Is RNAV approval without GPS allowed?

Answer 20

Allowed if DME/DME or DME/DME/IRU performance acceptable

This provides flexibility in navigation options when GPS is unavailable.

Question 21

What is the definition of RNP?

Answer 21

RNP-x = max lateral track error maintained 95% of time

RNP stands for Required Navigation Performance, which measures the accuracy of navigation systems.

Question 22

What are the U.S. RNP values?

Answer 22

RNAV approaches RNP-0.3; DP/STAR RNP-1.0 or RNP-2.0; Q-routes RNP-2.0

DP stands for Departure Procedures, and STAR stands for Standard Terminal Arrival Routes.

Question 23

What is the purpose of Minimum Safe/Sector Altitude?

Answer 23

1,000’ obstacle clearance within 25 nm of the navaid

This altitude ensures safe navigation near obstacles.

Question 24

What is the VDP (non-precision) use?

Answer 24

Point from which a normal 3.0° descent can reach the runway; if not in sight, go missed

VDP stands for Visual Descent Point, which aids in visual approaches.

Question 25

What are the basics of SOIA?

Answer 25

LDA/PRM to one runway + ILS/PRM to other; centerlines 750’–2,999’; LDA/PRM needs visual turn at MAP ## Footnote SOIA stands for Simultaneous Offset Instrument Approaches.

Question 26

What are the RVR ↔ visibility equivalents for minima conversion?

Answer 26

1600’=1/4 sm; 2400’=1/2; 3200’=5/8; 4000’=3/4; 4500’=7/8; 5000’=1; 6000’=1 1/4 ## Footnote These conversions help pilots understand visibility in different units.

Question 27

What are the RVR reporting increments?

Answer 27

100’ below 800’; 200’ 800’–3,000’; 500’ 3,000’–6,000’ ## Footnote Reporting increments provide information about runway visibility conditions.

Question 28

What is the effect of ALS on takeoff mins?

Answer 28

None ## Footnote ALS stands for Approach Lighting System, which does not affect minimums for takeoff.

Question 29

What is the role of VASI/PAPI in approach procedures?

Answer 29

Visual reference only; not used with instrument procedures; no effect on landing/takeoff mins ## Footnote VASI stands for Visual Approach Slope Indicator and PAPI stands for Precision Approach Path Indicator.

Question 30

What is the effect of RCLS/TDZL OTS?

Answer 30

Increases minima (less visual reference) ## Footnote RCLS stands for Runway Centerline Lighting System and TDZL stands for Touchdown Zone Lighting.

Question 31

What is the use of displaced threshold?

Answer 31

Not for landing rollout; usable for takeoff; opposite-direction landing allowed ## Footnote A displaced threshold alters the available landing distance.

Question 32

What should be considered for runway planning and closures?

Answer 32

Never plan to use a closed/NOTAMed-closed runway ## Footnote Safety regulations require awareness of runway status.

Question 33

What is the basis of the hemispheric rule?

Answer 33

Magnetic course ## Footnote This rule dictates altitude assignments based on the aircraft's magnetic heading.

Question 34

What is the hemispheric rule below FL290?

Answer 34

East odd; West even ## Footnote FL290 refers to Flight Level 290, or 29,000 feet.

Question 35

What are the essentials of RVSM?

Answer 35

Allows 1,000’ vertical separation FL290–FL410; airline/aircraft/aircrew certification + two independent altimeters, altitude hold, altitude alert ## Footnote RVSM stands for Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum.

Question 36

What does the ATC program GDP do?

Answer 36

Sets AAR; assigns EDCTs; reduces airborne holding but delays can be long ## Footnote AAR stands for Arrival Acceptance Rate and EDCT stands for Expected Departure Clearance Time.

Question 37

What is the ATC program Ground Stop?

Answer 37

All departures to affected destination stopped; no EDCT; 'update time' issued ## Footnote Ground Stop is a significant delay protocol for air traffic control.

Question 38

What is the purpose of en-route MIT?

Answer 38

Increase spacing to manage controller workload ## Footnote MIT stands for Minimum In-trail Spacing.

Question 39

What is the IFR flight plan requirement?

Answer 39

IFR flights must have an IFR flight plan on file ## Footnote IFR stands for Instrument Flight Rules, which require specific planning.

Question 40

What are the quick hits for clearance delivery?

Answer 40

Pre-taxi <10 min prior; PDC via ACARS; 'cleared as filed' or 'hold for release' ## Footnote PDC stands for Pre-Departure Clearance, and ACARS stands for Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting System.

Question 41

What are the types of departure procedures?

Answer 41

Obstacle DP and SID (standard instrument departure) ## Footnote DPs help ensure safe departure from an airport.

Question 42

What are the data comms acronyms?

Answer 42

ACARS = company/ATC messages; CPDLC = texted clearances/requests (supplements voice) ## Footnote CPDLC stands for Controller Pilot Data Link Communications.

Question 43

What do the position reporting symbols indicate?

Answer 43

Solid triangle = compulsory; open triangle = non-compulsory ('on request') ## Footnote These symbols help pilots understand reporting requirements.

Question 44

What is the structure of airways?

Answer 44

Victor: 1,200’ AGL to 17,999’ MSL (VOR/NDB). Jet: 18,000’ MSL to FL450 (VOR). Q-routes: RNAV/RNP-2.0, at/above 18,000’ MSL ## Footnote AGL stands for Above Ground Level, and MSL stands for Mean Sea Level.

Question 45

What is the primary purpose of STAR?

Answer 45

Move traffic from en route structure to terminal area; simplifies clearances ## Footnote STAR stands for Standard Terminal Arrival Route, optimizing arrivals.

Question 46

What is required for a visual approach?

Answer 46

Requires VMC; may be requested by pilot or initiated by ATC; generally not legal to dispatch IFR to destination on a visual approach ## Footnote VMC stands for Visual Meteorological Conditions.

Question 47

What is a contact approach?

Answer 47

Pilot-requested only; 1 sm flight visibility; remain clear of clouds; ATC cannot initiate ## Footnote This approach allows pilots to navigate visually when conditions permit.

Question 48

What is the note regarding ADIZ?

Answer 48

IFR in controlled airspace is usually sufficient for entry needs (know country requirements) ## Footnote ADIZ stands for Air Defense Identification Zone.

Question 49

What are the emergency frequencies?

Answer 49

121.5 / 243.0; 'MAYDAY' vs 'PAN-PAN' ## Footnote 'MAYDAY' indicates a distress situation, while 'PAN-PAN' indicates urgency.

Question 50

What are the transponder codes for emergencies?

Answer 50

7500 hijack; 7600 lost comm; 7700 emergency ## Footnote Transponder codes are essential for communicating specific emergencies to air traffic control.

Question 51

What are the facts about B-727 fuel dumping?

Answer 51

Rate 2,400 ppm; weight decreases ~2,500 ppm; stops automatically at 3,500 lbs per tank (10,500 lbs total) ## Footnote Fuel dumping is used to reduce weight for safe landings.

Question 52

What does a 'minimum fuel' advisory mean?

Answer 52

Not an emergency; indicates no undue delay can be accepted ## Footnote Pilots issue this advisory to inform ATC of their fuel status.

Question 53

What is the purpose of LLWAS?

Answer 53

Detect local wind speed/direction differences around airport (wind shear alert) ## Footnote LLWAS stands for Low Level Windshear Alert System.

Question 54

What triggers gate holding?

Answer 54

Use when taxi delays exceed 15 minutes ## Footnote Gate holding is a procedure to manage ground traffic.

Question 55

What is the limitation of the weather product NCWF?

Answer 55

Supplementary only; does not substitute for convective SIGMETs ## Footnote NCWF stands for National Convective Weather Forecast.

Question 56

What are the OpsSpecs weather sources?

Answer 56

Use only sources approved in OpSpecs; primary products from government (supplementary enhance awareness) ## Footnote OpSpecs outline the approved sources for weather information.