Dispatching part 121 > 105 > Flashcards

105 Flashcards

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1
Q

Who does the term ‘Administrator’ refer to in FAR Part 1?

A

The FAA Administrator or a delegated person.

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2
Q

Define ‘Operational Control.’

A

Authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.

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3
Q

Who is directly responsible for and has final authority over aircraft operation?

A

Pilot in command.

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4
Q

Define ‘Night.’

A

end of evening civil evening twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight

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5
Q

Define ‘Crewmember.’

A

Person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time.

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6
Q

Define ‘Alternate Airport.’

A

Airport to use if landing at intended airport becomes inadvisable.

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7
Q

Define ‘Refueling Airport.’

A

Airport used when ops require refueling; may be filed as an alternate; payload not allowed to be added/removed.

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8
Q

What distance does ‘Extended over-water’ start?

A

More than 50 NM from the nearest shoreline.

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9
Q

What is the difference between ‘Heavy’ and ‘Large’ aircraft based on certificate takeoff limits?

A

Heavy: 300,000 lbs or more. Large: more than 12,500 lbs.

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10
Q

What are the braking action choices?

A
  • Good
  • Fair
  • Poor
  • Nil
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11
Q

What is the definition of Mach number?

A

TAS ÷ speed of sound; speed of sound increases as temperature increases.

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12
Q

What is a flight recorder?

A

Device that records in-flight performance/conditions.

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13
Q

What is the maximum indicated airspeed below 10,000’ MSL unless authorized?

A

250 kt.

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14
Q

What are the standard takeoff minimums for 2 engines or less with no published mins?

A

1 sm visibility.

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15
Q

What are the standard takeoff minimums for 3 or 4 engines with no published mins?

A

1/2 sm visibility.

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16
Q

What are the standard destination alternate minimums for precision approaches?

A

Ceiling 600’ and 2 sm.

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17
Q

What are the standard destination alternate minimums for non-precision approaches?

A

Ceiling 800’ and 2 sm.

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18
Q

What weather is required for dispatch under IFR?

A

Indicated weather at destination at ETA at or above landing minimums.

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19
Q

When is a takeoff alternate required?

A

When reported wx at departure is below landing minimums at the departure airport.

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20
Q

What is the takeoff alternate distance for a 2-engine aircraft?

A

≤ 1 hour in still air at NSC with one engine inop.

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21
Q

What is the takeoff alternate distance for a 3- or 4-engine aircraft?

A

≤ 2 hours in still air at NSC with one engine inop.

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22
Q

What must the alternate show when filing an alternate?

A

forecast wx at ETA at/above alternate minimums.

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23
Q

Is a ceiling required at the destination for dispatch?

A

No.

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24
Q

Is a ceiling required at the alternate for filing?

A

Yes.

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25
When is at least one additional destination alternate required?
When forecast wx at destination AND first alternate are considered marginal.
26
When is an alternate not required (domestic)?
when indicated weather at destination, ETA ±1 hr, is at least 2000 ft ceiling and 3 sm visibility
27
What must the listed alternate have when amending a release?
Forecast wx at or above alternate minimums.
28
Can you dispatch without weather radar during IFR or night VFR?
Only if no reports of radar-detectable hazards along the route; otherwise day VMC only.
29
Is it permissible to depart with ice adhering to wings?
Never.
30
Can you operate into an area with a SIGMET for severe icing?
No (due to 'Severe').
31
What are the core dispatcher responsibilities?
* Preflight planning * Sign dispatch release * Cancel/delay flights * Monitor flight progress * Issue significant information * Redispatch/amendments
32
Which dispatcher responsibilities are shared with the PIC?
Preflight planning, delay/cancel decisions, and dispatch release.
33
In emergencies, who does the paperwork and what is the dispatcher deadline?
Who declares, does the paperwork; dispatcher report to ops manager within 10 days.
34
What is the engine inoperative diversion protocol for a 2-engine aircraft?
Nearest suitable airport, in point of time.
35
What is the engine inoperative diversion protocol for a 3- or 4-engine aircraft?
May continue to another airport if it’s as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport.
36
When may a flight continue to destination if it is unsafe to proceed?
Only if PIC believes no safer alternative exists (emergency).
37
What are the required training types to know?
* Initial * Transition * Differences * Hazmat * Jumpseat observation
38
What training is required to qualify on ATR-42 if already qualified on B727/B737/A320?
Initial training.
39
What does recurrent training include and how often is it required?
Instruction, review, and competency check — every 12 calendar months.
40
What is the minimum jumpseat observation hours per year for B727/B747?
5 hours (or 2.5 hours if done in aircraft).
41
What are the shift schedule limits under normal circumstances?
Max 10 consecutive duty hours; if >10 in any 24 hours → 8 hours rest; plus 24 consecutive hours of rest in any 7 consecutive days.
42
What is the maximum time on the ground before redispatch for domestic intermediate stops?
No more than 1 hour.
43
What is the maximum time on the ground before redispatch for flag intermediate stops?
No more than 6 hours.
44
What must the domestic fuel supply cover?
* To airport dispatched * To and land at most distant alternate * Then 45 minutes at NSC FF
45
What does flag fuel include when there is an authorized alternate?
* To airport dispatched * +10% of ETE (dep→dest) * To and land at most distant alternate * +30 min at holding speed 1,500’ above alternate ISA conditions
46
What does flag fuel include when there is no authorized alternate?
To airport dispatched + 2 hours at NSC FF.
47
Is missed-approach fuel always required by 121-U?
No—should be considered.
48
What is the Sheffield B727-200 'missed approach fuel' planning value?
1,200 lb.
49
Define 'High Minimum Captain.'
PIC with <100 hours in type.
50
What is the effect of a High Minimum Captain on takeoff minimums?
Not affected.
51
What is the effect of a High Minimum Captain on alternate minimums?
Not affected.
52
What is the effect of a High Minimum Captain on landing mins/HAT and the lowest allowed?
DH/MDH +100’ and vis +1/2 sm; lowest: V = 1 sm and H = 300’.
53
Can you delegate authority to sign a release?
Yes.
54
Can you delegate authority to dispatch a flight?
No.
55
How long must records be retained?
At least three months.
56
What three documents must the PIC carry to destination?
* Flight plan copy * Dispatch release copy * Load manifest
57
What are the required contents of a dispatch release?
* Registration number * Flight number * All airports * Minimum fuel * Type of operation * Two signatures * All weather
58
When is an alternate not required (flag)?
If indicated weather at destination, ETA ±1 hr, is at least 1500 ft above lowest circling MDA (or 2000 ft above field if no circling) and visibility ≥3 sm (or 2 sm more than lowest app mins).
59
In an ICAO flight plan, what does “CODE/A6BA67” mean?
Aircraft’s Mode-S hex code.
60
In the equipment section of an ICAO flight plan, what does “EB1” mean?
ADS-B Out capability.
61
In an ICAO flight plan, what does “PBN/C2D2” mean?
RNAV 2 and RNAV 1 using GNSS.
62
Where do you find the decodes for equipment codes (like “SBDFGHRWZ”) in an ICAO flight plan?
ICAO Doc 4444.
63
What is standard equipment?
VHF communications, VOR and ILS.
64
Within the USA, when must IFR flight plans be filed prior to departure?
At least 30 minutes prior.
65
Which references contain the explanations for codes used on the ICAO flight plan form?
ICAO Doc 4444.
66
Where must domestic IFR flight plans be filed?
With FSS or directly with ATC Center over the departure airport.
67
Where must international flight plans be filed?
Transmitted to all facilities that will handle the aircraft.
68
For one-engine inoperative performance, what must the aircraft clear using Method 1?
All obstacles within 5 sm of route by 1,000 ft with positive slope.
69
For one-engine inoperative performance, what must the aircraft clear using Method 2?
All obstacles from the most critical point to a drift-down alternate by 2,000 ft with positive slope.
70
With either Method 1 or 2, what must the aircraft achieve above the airport of landing?
Positive slope at 1,500 ft.
71
What may be used to comply with Method 2?
Fuel dumping.
72
How does the Sheffield 727-200 automatically comply with Method 1 in the 48 states?
Always complies up till, ISA +20C.
73
For two-engine out performance, what must be applied?
Method 2 or route must remain within 90 minutes of adequate airport with all engines operating.
74
Within the 48 states, will the aircraft satisfy the 90-minute rule?
Yes, always.
Dispatching part 121
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