Which view is not part of extended eFAST scan?
a) pericardial
b) thoracic
c) perisplenic
d) perinephric
e) perihepatic
d. perinephric
cant see the whole kidney
https://www.msdmanuals.com/professional/critical-care-medicine/how-to-do-other-emergency-medicine-procedures/how-to-do-e-fast-examination#Step-by-Step-Description-of-Procedure_v52127123
Performing block of median nerve in cubital fossa. Which US probe to use?a) Curvilinear
b) Linear probe 8-12 Hz
c) Linear probe 5-10 Hz
d) Thinner probe
linear probe 8-12Hz
https://www.nysora.com/techniques/upper-extremity/ultrasound-guided-wrist-block/
Phaeochromocytoma - which drug to avoid?
a) metoclopramide
b) phentolamine
c) prazosin?
d) propofol
e) rocuronium
metoclopramide
https://www.researchgate.net/profile/Melvin-Leow/publication/221935481Accidental_Provocation_of_Pheochromocytoma-_The_Forgotten_Hazard_of_Metoclopramide/links/0fcfd508ada5acf5e7000000/Accidental-Provocation-of-Pheochromocytoma-The-Forgotten-Hazard-of-Metoclopramide.pdf
Intubate with 1mg/kg rocuronium. Surgery ceases. TOF count 0. PTC 2. What dose sugammadex to give?
a) 1mg/kg
b) 2mg/kg
c) 4mg/kg
d) 8mg/kg
e) 16mg/kg
4mg/kg
https://resources.wfsahq.org/wp-content/uploads/332_english.pdf
Opioid induced ventilatory impairment. Which is NOT a RF?
a) female
b) sleep disordered breathing
c) congestive cardiac failure (or some sort)
d) opioid naiive
e) long acting opioids?
a. female or d. opioid naivity
The PRODIGY (Prediction of Opioid-induced respiratory Depression in patients monitored by capnoGraphY) trial studied the occurrence of OIRD in postoperative patients on potent opioids. A risk prediction tool was developed that showed that five independent patient-related variables were associated with a high likelihood of OIRD: age ≥60 yrs, male sex, opioid naivety, sleep disorders and the presence of chronic heart failure.
https://associationofanaesthetists-publications.onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1111/anae.15030
AFE diagnosis made via:
a) clinical diagnosis
b) cardiac monitoring of some sort
c) inflammatory complement system markers
d)Imaging of some sort? Think decreased LV function on echo
a) clinical diagnosis
or confirmed on autopsy
Quiescent IBD in pt. Which medication will prompt a flare?
a) paracetamol
b) ibuprofen
c) tramadol
d) celecoxib
b) ibuprofen
“It is estimated that NSAIDs may cause clinical relapse in ∼20% of patients with quiescent inflammatory bowel disease (IBD).32 Coxibs do not appear to be associated with relapse of IBD, but caution should still be exercised.”
2023 BJA NSAIDs
Bronchopleural fistula pt in ICU. Which is the recommended ventilation strategy?
- 5 Options were 2 of 3 of TV/RR/PEEP (combos of high/low)
- Low TV and low rate
- high peep and high rate
b) low tv/rate
https://litfl.com/bronchopleural-fistula/
strategy: controlled, assist control, intermittent mandatory
lowest possible TV
lowest possible PEEP
short inspiratory time
encourage spontaneous breathing
Re: site of CVL, subclavian lines have lowest complication rate of:
a) infection
b) pneumothorax
c) thrombosis
d) arterial puncture
e) infection and thrombosis
e. Infection and Thrombosis. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK557798/
What is the ASA status of a pt with a TIA from 2 years ago who has otherwise been well?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5
c. 3
https://www.asahq.org/standards-and-practice-parameters/statement-on-asa-physical-status-classification-system
In OT, what does the blue electric socket denote?
a)connected to backup power supply
b) cardiac protected
c) equipotential earthed
d) connected to uninterrupted power supply
e) connected to standard power point/RCD
d. connected to uninterrupted power supply
Electrical circuits connected to the UPS are denoted by a dark blue power socket, and are reserved for essential equipment without adequate battery backup.
2015 BJA environmental emergencies
A 64 year old man presenting for elective surgery is on thyroxine 100 mcg daily. His thyroid function tests are:
- TSH <0.05
- Both T4 and T3 within normal limits
These results are most consistent with:
a) Overtreatment
b) Subclinical hyperthyroidism
c) ?Sick euthyroid
d) Multinodular goitre
e) Previous hypophyseal resection
“A) overtreatment and subclinical hyperthyroidism
What is the concern with EMLA use in preterm babies?
“a) methaemoglobinaemia
b) increased sensitivity due to liver insufficiency
c) increased absorption
d) decreased neurotoxicity threshold
e) decreased cardiotoxicity threshold “
Methaemoglobinaemia
https://www.tga.gov.au/news/safety-updates/risk-overdose-infants-when-using-prilocainelidocaine-cream-emla-and-generics
What volume of air is used for the cuff of classic LMA size 4 if the manometer is unavailable?
a) 20mL
b) 25mL
c) 30mL
d) 40mL
e) 15mL
c.
30mL
The manufacturers recommend inflating the laryngeal mask cuff until the intracuff pressure reaches 60 cmH2O or to inflate with the volume of air not exceeding the maximum recommended volume (size 3, 20 ml; size 4, 30 ml) if a manometer is not available
https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC7206679/#:~:text=The%20manufacturers%20recommend%20inflating%20the,available%20%5B7%E2%80%9311%5D.
Brachial plexus picture
Thie picture was the standard ones in brain scape flash cards
a) Radial
b) msc
c) axillary
Anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy. What is characteristic?
a) visual inattention
b) resolves fully within 24-48hrs
c) papillary oedema
d) Intact pupil reflex
e) painful
Papillary Oedema
post op ischaemic optic neuropathy - most common cause of POVL after nonocular surgery
- ^risk with cardiac, spine, orthopaedic, steep trendelenberg positions
- anterior ION - more common with cardiac
- posterior ION - more common with prone procedures, steep trendelenberg, cardiac - presents with painless b/l vision loss
- risk factors for POVL with spine surgery - male, ^BMI, wilson frame, long duration, ^ blood loss
- PION more common however only AION has fundoscopic changes
– AION - fundoscopy - swollen disc - can be uni or bilateral
– AION onset usually immediate after awakening but can also have onset a day or so afterwards - sudden unilateral or bilateral, progressive vision loss
Central retinal artery occlusion - most common retinal cause of POVL
- usually unilateraly and immediately after awakening from anaesthesia
- fundoscopy - ischaemic retina + cherry red spot at macula
https://www.uptodate.com/contents/postoperative-visual-loss-after-anesthesia-for-nonocular-surgery#H437018973 “
What is a risk factor for failed epidural blood patch for postdural puncture headache?
a) Using loss of resistance to air
b) Original dural puncture >5cm
c) Injection of epidural blood patch <48hrs after accidental dural puncture
d) Sitting up and performing
e) volume 20 mL used
c) Injection of epidural blood patch <48hrs after accidental dural puncture
Risk factors identified for failure include a history of migraine headache, accidental dural puncture at higher lumbar levels, and injection of epidural blood patch <48 h after accidental dural puncture.
BJA 2022 failed epidural
Which nerve innervates lower third molar tooth?
a) Mental
b) Inferior alveolar
c) Lingual
d) superior alveolar nerve
Inferior Alveolar
According to Brain Trauma Foundation guidelines, what is the lower limit that adult GCS can be used?
a) 2 y/o
b) 4 y/o
c) 6 y/o
d) 8 y/o
e) 10 y/o
c. 2yo (buried in BTF guidelines)
https://static1.squarespace.com/static/63e696a90a26c23e4c021cee/t/644c33531244c01b73e89e9d/1740067247222/Prehospital_3rd_Edition.pdf
Paeds pt with distended abdomen. What is an indication for urgent transfer to theatre?
a) Pneumoperitoneum on CXR
b) Positive eFAST scan
c) Shocked at scene
d) Unresponsive to 20mL/kg blood during transfer
a) Pneumoperitoneum on CXR
Indications for laparotomy as per RCH
(20ml/kg is an MTP)
Activation criteria for code crimson :
Persistent haemodynamic instability:
* following blunt or penetrating trauma
* despite standard trauma care
* secondary to ongoing haemorrhage
* unresponsive to intravenous fluids and/or blood transfusion.
Examples of injuries:
* Abdominal trauma with grossly positive E-FAST
* Uncontrolled maxillo-facial haemorrhage
* Severe pelvic disruption
* Massive haemothorax
* Traumatic amputation
* Penetrating trauma to chest or abdomen *
* Pericardial tamponade on E-FAST
* Penetrating neck wounds with hard signs of vascular injury
https://aci.health.nsw.gov.au/__data/assets/pdf_file/0003/382917/ACI-ITIM-Trauma-code-crimson-pathway.pdf
https://www.starship.org.nz/guidelines/code-crimson/
This type of tracheal tube is best described as a (picture of airway device shown)
(repeat of 20.1)
a) Mini tracheostomy tube
b) South facing RAE
c) Laser tube
d) Laryngectomy tube
Rusch Larygoflex Reinforced Laryngectomy tube
https://www.teleflexarcatalog.com/anesthesia-respiratory/airway/product/121181080-rusch-laryngoflex-laryngectomy-tube
G6PD - what is the risk with giving methylene blue for shock?
a) Haemolytic anaemia
b) Serotonin syndrome
c) Methaemaglobinaemia
MB can precipitate hemolysis in individuals with G6PD deficiency
This Doppler trace obtained by transoesophageal echocardiography of the descending aorta suggests
a. Aortic dissection
b. Aortic stenosis
c. Aortic regurgitation
d. Normal flow
e. High flow state
23.1 repeata. Aortic dissection
b. Aortic stenosis
c. Aortic regurgitation
d. Normal flow
e. High flow state
Aortic regurg
Significant holodiastolic reversal in abdominal aorta is also a specific sign of severe AR
https://www.bsecho.org/common/Uploaded%20files/Education/Protocols%20and%20guidelines/Assessment%20of%20aortic%20regurgitation.pdf
ECOG surgery - which affects least?
a) dexmedetomidine
b) ketamine
c) nitrous oxide
d) sevoflurane
e) midazolam
a. dexmed
https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S1743919115003684
Activates: thiopental, etomidate, ketamine, sevo, fentanyls
Suppresses: benzos, N2O
Variable: propofol may suppress or inhibit, morphine/hydromorphone may affect at high doses
Dexmed: no evidence of suppression or activation