1
Q
Retrobulbar hemorrage which would not be a clinical sign?
Chemosis
Proptosis
Raised IOP
Decreased visual acuity
A
Chemosis
2
Q
In grade IV anaphylaxis what is the initial bolus dose of fluid?
1500
1000
2000
500
A
2000
3
Q
Post Left carotid endarteretomy, presents with L sided throbbing frontal headache and periorbital headache. What is your management ?
Paracetamol
Re operate
Hydrazaline
Metoprolol
Withhold antihypertensives
A
Metoprolol?
Hydralazine?
4
Q
Z score moderate in lung function testing ?
-2.5 - -4.0
- 4.0 - -6.0
- 2.1- -4.0
-1.0 - -3.0
A
-2.5 - -4.0
5
Q
What is the least effective method to assess HR in neonate during resuscitation?
auscultated heart sound
Palpated umbilical cord
Peripheral pulse
Sats probe trace
Ecg
A
peripheral pulse?
6
Q
What is the resus dose of adrenaline down the ETT in a neonate ug/kg ? (100 wasn’t option)
10
20
30
40
50
A
50
7
Q
Volume transfer in bilateral straight leg raise adult?
150
300
500ml
800ml
1000ml
A
300
8
Q
Spinal shock definition at what level dose it occur?
Can occur at all levels
T6
T4
T3
A
Can occur at all levels
NB not neurogenic shock
9
Q
What innervates ALL Intrinsic muscles of the larynx?
Vagus
Superior laryngeal
Internal branch of superior laryngeal
Recurrent laryngeal
A
Vagus
10
Q
Where to place local anaesthetic for a rectus sheath block?
Had labled US picture with options
in rectus (exact image from Anso app) but no descriptor… depends on how cross eyed you went looking at the picture to figure out which layer the arrow was pointing too
a. Immediately anterior to the posterior rectus sheath
b. Between posterior rectus sheath and transversalis fascia
c. Between transversalis fascia and peritoneum
d. Linea alba
A
Immediately anterior to the posterior rectus sheath
11
Q
Innervation of ear ? pointing to the upper (purple) part of ear.
a. Greater auricular
b. Auriculotemporal
c. Vagal auricular branch
d. Lesser occipital nerve
e. Greater occipital
A
Aurriculo temporal
12
Q
Layers of errrector spinae block at T4 level, which is order than needle would go through?
trap> rhomboids>errector spinae
Rhomboids > traps > erretor spinae
Various other options (inc lat dorsi)
A
trap> rhomboids>errector spinae
13
Q
Myasthenia gravis in cholinergic crisis what is immediate management?
Atropine
Pyridostigmine
Plasma exchange
A
Atropine
14
Q
In ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome what is associated ?
Ovarian torsion
Haemodilution
Polyuria
Hypertension
Weight Loss
A
Ovarian torsion
15
Q
In performing a trachy on a 4yr old what is a structure you are most at risk of damaging?
a. thoracic duct injury
b. phrenic nerve injury
c. vagus nerve injury
d. brachiocephalic vein injury
e. oesophageal injury
A
? oesophageal injury
16
Q
In the NAP7 what was most common heart rhythm in arrest?
a) pulseles electrical activity
b) rapid atrial fibrillation
c) supraventricular tachycardia
d) ventricular fibrillation
e) ventricular tachycardia
A
a) pulseles electrical activity
17
Q
In the NAP5 what what type of surgery with greatest awareness out of following (obstetrics not an option)?
Cardiac
Neuro
ENT
A
Cardiac
18
Q
Wordy stem about RANZCOG and their position on what to give abx prophylaxis wise in a patient with (non severe) penicillin allergy ?
Cefazolin
Vanc+gent
Clindamycin +Gent
Doxy
A
Cefazolin
For women with a history of immediate or delayed nonsevere hypersensitivity to penicillins, cefazolin, as above, remains appropriate.
For women with a history of immediate or delayed severe hypersensitivity to penicillins, use Clindamycin 600mg iv plus Gentamicin 2mg/kg iv.
19
Q
What changes pulse pressure variation the least?
a) High PEEP ventilation
b) Left lateral decubitus
c) Arrythmia
d) Low Heart rate to Repiratory rate
e) Low plateau pressure ventilation
A
?
20
Q
What is clamped in the pringle manouver?
Hepatic artery, portal vein
Hepatic artery, hepatic vein
IVC and SVC
A
Hepatic artery, portal vein
21
Q
If a patient no longer has capacity, in which circumstance, if any, can voluntary assisted dying still proceed?
a) Can never proceed
b) With the consent for their pre-determined EPOA
c) Only if explicitly stipulated in an advanced health care directive formed 6 months prior
d) Only if explicitly stipulated in an advanced health care directive formed 12 months prior
A
a) Can never proceed
?
22
Q
What is the lowest 02 concentration that can be delivered at maximum flows with a venturi device?
0.24
0.28
0.31
0.35
0.4
A
0.24
23
Q
Aintree, what is the size bronc that can fit down?
3.2
3.7
4.7
4.2
A
4.2mm
24
Q
What is this structure on echo
Anterior mitral
Posterior mitral
Non coronary aortic
Conary aortic
Tricuspid
A
Anterior mitral
25
In a 3 lead CRTD where is a leads not placed?
RA
LA
RV
Coronary sinus
LA
26
Transthorasic Echo parasternal long axis view pointing to top chamber ?
RA
RV
Aorta
RV
27
Arndt blocker attachment for endotracheal tube
was flipped in reverse orientation from previous exams
28
Takotsubo scoring system InterTAK, what is not an element?
Female
Physical stress
Emotional stress
Long QT
St segment changes
St segment changes
Variable and Points
Female Sex 25
Emotional Trigger 24
Physical Trigger 13
Absence of ST-segment depression (except in lead aVR) 12
Psychiatric Disorders (acute or chronic) 11
Neurological Disorders (acute or chronic) 9
QTc prolongation (Female > 460ms; Male > 440ms) 6
29
What is the anterolateral boundary of the adductor canal ?
Vastus medialus
Sartorius
Adductor magnus
Adductor longus
Vastus medialus
30
What is not a border of anterior triangle of neck?
a) midline anterior nexk
b) inferior angle of mandible
c) anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid
d) medial third of the clavicle
d) medial third of the clavicle
31
Patient on semaglutide for endoscopy as per ANZCA guidelines if patient has fasted 6hrs but not done 24hr fast, it is an option to give erythromycin at what dose and timing?
3mg/kg 90-120 min prior to surgery
6mg/kg 90-120min prior to surgery
3mg/kg 30-60 min prior to surgery
6mg/kg 30-60min prior to surgery
3mg/kg 90-120 min prior to surgery
32
Buprenorphine patch removed, how long after removal would you expect it’s plasma concentration to reduce 50%
12hour
24 hour
48 hours
12hour
33
Dentist, bleeding after tooth extraction, son also bruises easily, his biochem is as follows, increased APTT normal others what is it most likely that he has?
Haemophilla A
Haemophilla B
VW disease
Factor V Leiden
VW disease
34
What is not decreased in a neonate compared to adult? Not sure on actual wording.
Protein C
Von willibrands
VII
XIII
Von willibrands
Von Willebrand factor (vWF): Elevated/Increased.
Factor V (FV): Normal or slightly decreased.
Factor VIII (FVIII): Normal or slightly elevated.
Factor XIII (FXIII): Borderline/Normal.
Fibrinogen: Normal levels.
Protein C is significantly decreased at birth and remains low for the first 6 months of life.
Factor VII is one of the vitamin K-dependent factors that is significantly decreased at birth.
35
In a molar pregnancy what would you most likely see?
Hyperthyroidism
hypothyroidism
Primary hyperaldosteronism
Hyperthyroidism
36
SIADH and CSW do not have what in common?
a. High urinary concentration
b. High urinary osmolality
c. Increased extracellular fluid
d. urinary urea concentration
c. Increased extracellular fluid
37
Which drug requires warm compress after extravasation?
phenylepherine
Propofol
Digoxin
Frusemide
?gentamicin
phenylepherine
38
What is not in the SIRS criteria?
A) Leukopaenia
B) Hypotension
C) Tachycardia
D) Fever
E) Tachypnoea
Hypotension
39
CXR
Leadless pacemaker
Loop recorder
LA appendage/watchman?
Loop recorder
40
As per the ANZCA PS for fatigue, what is the maximum time an anaesthetist can work for in a shift?
18hrs
16hrs
14hrs
10hrs
16hrs
41
What is lung point sign most accurate for?
a) Consolidation
b) Pleural effusion
c) Pneumothorax
d) Pulmonary oedema
e) Pulmonary fibrosis"
c) Pneumothorax
42
Lung US picture of B lines, in lady post upper lobe VATS who is dyspnoeic in recover, what is likely cause?
APO
Haemothorax
Pneumonia
APO
Haemothorax
Pneumonia
43
ECG 1
CHB
Mobits 1
Mobits 2
Sinus brady
1st degree HB
Yes I feel your rage
https://www.ecgstampede.com/glossary/second-degree-atrioventricular-block-21/
“When AV block occurs in a 2:1 ratio, it is impossible to distinguish between Mobitz I and Mobitz II; therefore, 2:1 AV block is simply referred to as “2:1 AV block.” When the QRS is narrow….Mobitz I is more likely; however, it is prudent to assume the worst scenario (i.e., Mobitz II).”
44
ECG 2 man had chest pain and now pain free what is likely cause ?
LAD stenosis
Pericarditis
PE
Brugada
LAD occlusion/stenosis
Pericarditis
PE
45
What is the ventricular rate of this ECG?
regular QRS, 6 beats in strop, 8 large boxes between QRS
28
38
48
58
68
38
46
What is the lesion likely to be, this patient had an LMA inserted the day prior? (exact picture)
R hypoglossal
L hypoglossal
R glossopharengeal
L glossopharengal
R hypoglossal
47
What is derived measurement on blood gas?
a) PaO2
b) PaCO2
c) pH
d) BE
d) BE
48
Blood gas interpretation, pH 7.1, PO2 90, PaCO2 60, bicarb 18 ?
Mixed acidosis with respiratory predominance
Mixed acidosis with metabolic predominance
Resp acidosis
Metabolic acidosis
Resp acidosis with metabolic compensation
Mixed acidosis with respiratory predominance
49
What heart murmur would become more quiet with hand grip manouver?
Mitral regurg
Aortic regug
HOCM
VSD
HOCM
50
What does not test facial nerve function?
Eye close
Teeth clench
Lip purse
Blow cheeks with air
Lift brows
Teeth clench
51
Interscalene what is MOST LIKELY missed ?
Ulnar
Muscular cutaneous
Supraclavicular
Phrenic
Ulnar
52
What is the minimum age for paedfusor TCI?
6mths
12months
18 months
24months
12months
53
Greatest risk in ECMO ?
a. Bleeding
b. Thrombosis
c. Infection
d. Gas embolism
Bleeding
54
Immediately after intubation with Grade 1 view, Etco2 is 5mmhg with pressures of 20cmH2O on APL and multiple breaths, what to do?
Remove ETT
Increase APL to 40cmH2O and continue trying to ventilate
Assess for signs of anaphylaxis
Start treating for bronchospasm
Check BP
Remove ETT
55
In surviving sepsis when do you start steroids?
A. Noradrenaline >0.1mcg/kg/min for 4 hrs
B. Noradrenaline >0.25mcg/kg/min for 4 hrs
C. Noradrenaline >0.5mcg/kg/min for 4 hrs
Noradrenaline >0.25mcg/kg/min for 4 hrs
56
When to give stress steroids in a child hydrocortisone 15mg/kg with BSA 0.9m2 ?
2weeks of use
4weeks of use
6 weeks of use
4weeks of use
Indications for steroid stress dosing:
Daily HC use = 15mg/m2 for >1 month → Risk of HPA suppression
57
Duration of action of carbetocin?
a) 1 hrs
b) 2 hrs
c) 3hrs
d) 4hrs
e) 5hrs
a) 1 hrs
58
A patient with uterine atony has been given oxytocin and ergonetrine. What is dosing of carbeprost?
a) 250mcg IM once
b) 250mcg IM q15mins, up to 2mg
c) 500mcg IM
d) 250mcg IV
e) 500mcg IV
b) 250mcg IM q15mins, up to 2mg
59
Post herpetic neuralgia, what doesnt decrease risk of transferring to chronic pain?
Steroids
Vaccination of >60yr olds
Epidural block of area
Paravertebral block of the area
Early initiation of amitriptyline
Steroids
APMSE
60
Crash 2 trial, what time frame to give TXA in study before its not recommended?
3 hours
2 hours
2.5 hours
1 hour
3 hours
61
Insulin sensitivity factor of 2, patient BSL 18 and you want it to be 10, how many units of rapid acting insulin do they require
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
e) 10
4U
62
What can you safely give in phaeo?
Droperidol
Ketamine
Pethadine
Ephedrine
Clonidine
Clonidine
63
AFE risk greatest with?
Induction of labour
LSCS
Oxytocin infusion
Instrumental delivery
Induction of labour
64
What is the ASA of someone with uterine rupture?
VE
IVE
IIIE
IIE
IE
VE
65
Which pacemaker position is IV for ?
Multisite pacing
Sensing
Rate modulation
Rate modulation
66
In ECT which drug makes seizure not as good?
Sevo
Methohexital
Propfolol
Thiopentone
Suxamethonium
Propofol? Thio?
67
Compared to RCT what is the limit of propensity scoring ?
"a. Can only account for known and measured confounders
b. Can account for unmeasured confounders
c. Colliding"
d. biases
"a. Can only account for known and measured confounders
68
Viewing someone you like in a more positive light is an example of.
Confirmational bias
Halo effect
Horns effect
Affinity Bias
Perception Bias
Halo effect
69
Return to practice if you have been away for a year how long supervised?
A. 1 week
B. 2 weeks
C. 4 weeks
D. 6 months
C. 4 weeks
70
What doesn’t affect the rate of spinal fluid drainage?
Spinal level performed
Height of drain
Position of the drainage chamber
Catheter length
Height of the bed
Spinal level performed
71
In lumbar puncture what is not a risk factor for post dural puncture headache?
Smoking
Younger age
Female
Use of cutting needle
Previous history of headaches
Smoking
72
What is not a risk factor for OVI?
Male
Diabetes
Opioid tolerance
Heart failure
Male
73
Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause angioedema?
ACEI
C1 esterases
ACEI
74
Lambert eaton syndrome MG what occurs?
decreased sensitivity to NDMB and DMB
Increased sensitivity to NDMB and DMB
Increased sensitivity to NDMB, decreased sensitivity to DMB
Decreased sensitivity to DMB, increased sensitivity to DMB
Increased sensitivity to NDMB and DMB
75
Risk of MH is greatest in ?
Temperature induced rhabdo
Duchene’s
Masseter spasm with rocuronium
Exercise induced rhadbo
Mitochondrial myopathy
Exercise induced rhadbo
76
What inhibits platelet activity of aspirin ?
Ibuprofen
Ketorolac
Diclofenac
Celecoxib
Ibuprofen
77
What is red power point for
Generator back up
Uninterrupted power supply
Cardiac safe
Equipotential earthy
Normal power supply
Generator back up
78
Electrical fires in OT
a) CO2
b) Fire blanket
c) Wet chemical powder
d) Foam
e) Water
a) CO2
79
Indocyanin green, what does it do to NIRS?
"Increased NIRS, deceased sats
Decreased NIRS, deccreased sats
Increased NIRS, increased sats
Incraesed NIRS, decreased sats"
"Increased NIRS, deceased sats
80
Balloon pump timing question, pointing to systole in the beat after the pump goes up. Arrow to the peak of systole after inflation - what is this point referred to as
Unassisted systole
Assisted diastole
Assured systole
End diastole
Assited Systole
81
Jet ventilator
A. 1-4 bar
B. 0.04-0.08 bar
C. 0.4-0.8 bar
A. 1-4 bar
82
Flow volume loop showing fixed obstruction
Measurement error
Inability to follow instructions
fixed obstruction
intrathoracic
extrathoracic
fixed obstruction
83
According the ANZCA/ADS perioperative guidelines, the BSL target for a non-
pregnant diabetic patient is
A. 6-10mmol/L
B. 8-10mmol/L
C. 5-10mmol/L
D. 4-8mmol/L
E. 6-12mmol/L
C. 5-10mmol/L
84
What causes a NAGMA?
Hyperchloraemia
Salicylate poisoning
Untreated diabetic ketoacidosis
Methanol poisoning
Hyperchloraemia
85
Most likely electrolyte abornamality to cause laryngospasm?
Hypocalcemia
Hypercalaemia
Hypocalcemia
86
Annorexia most likely electrolyte abnormality?
Hypophosphatemia
Hypocalcaemia
Hypomagnesemia
Hypophosphatemia
87
Mapelson circuit best for spont vent to avoid hypercarbia?
A
B
C
D
A
88
Hyperbaricity in spinal causes?
Higher level block, shorter duration
Higher block, longer duration
Lower block, shorter duration
Lower block, longer duration
Higher level block, shorter duration
89
Bullous emphysema now has Broncopleural fistula and is ventilated in ICU what ventilation settings do you use?
Low RR, low volumes
Low volumes, high RR
High volume, low RR
High PEEP, low tidal volume
Low RR, low volumes
90
Pic of circle of willis on cerebral angiography?
Vertebral artery
Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
Posterior cerebral artery
Vertebral artery
91
Has had VTE before, and now at risk again, what is most likely disorder?
"A. Male Factor V Leiden
B. Female with Factor V Leiden
C. Male with Prothrombin 20210A
D. Female with Prothombin 20210
A. Male Factor V Leiden
92
When to cease SGLT2i, day of surgery and ?
2 days prior
93
Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction, the 4 pillars of treatment what is not included?
Ca channel blockers
Beta blockers
Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists
SGLT2 Inhibitors
Ca channel blockers
94
Pregnant patient in SVT and stable what do you use? Only medications
a. Esmolol
b. Labetalol
c. Verapamil
d. Adenosine
d. Adenosine
95
What least likely to cause splanchnic vaso constriction?
Dopamine
Adrenaline
Noradrenaline
vasopressin
Dopamine
96
Clamp on decending aorta above ceoliac, what will it not cause ?
PVR decrease
Translocation of gut bacteria
Decreased renal perfusion - ATN
Decreased sympathetic BP
Dilated LV
PVR decrease
97
RV failure second to acute MI?
Pulmonary Artery Pulsatility index increase
TAPSI increase
Decreased CVP
Decreased pulmonary artery pressure
increased Cardiac index
Decreased pulmonary artery pressure
98
In Cell salvage what can you safely suck up ?
Amniotic fluid
Unset bone cement
Topical coagulation agent
Chlorhex prep
Iodine prep
Amniotic fluid
99
Post cell salvage hypotension what is cause?
Citrate compounds
Heparin
Leucodepletion filter
Microaggregate filter
Normal saline
Leucodepletion filter
100
In a situation that is not an MTP, when should you change the giving set line if you have given RBCs and want to give plts?
Platelets if FFP given prior
Platelets if RBC given prior
RBC after platelets given
FFP after platelets given
Platelets if RBC given prior
101
What doesnt affect thrombin time ?
warfarin
heparin
enoxaparin
dabigatran
bilvarudin
warfarin
102
Mastocytosis what not to give?
A. Remifentanil
B. Morphine
C. Bupivacaine
D. Fentanyl
B. Morphine
103
During covid consultant doesnt want to do elective surgery becasuse dont want to spread disease this is example of?
b) Non-maleficence
a) Beneficence
b) Non-maleficence
c) Justice
d) Conscientious objection
e) Professional autonomy
104
Postoperatively pain posterior shoulder after interscalene block what is missed/what should be blocked?
Suprascapular
Supraclavicular
Other options
Suprascapular
105
In child given dexmed or midaz pre medication in the former there is more?
A) More reliable separation with parents
B) No difference in emergence agitation
C) No difference in amnesia
D) Better anxiolysis
E) Reduced emergence delirium
A) More reliable separation with parents
106
Paddi trial results on dexamethaone 8mg dose?
a. No difference in surgical site infection for non diabetic and diabetic patients
b. Increase in surgical site infection in the diabetic group and no incrase in the non diabetic group
c. Decrease in surgical site infection in the diabetic group and increase in the non diabetic group
d. Increase in surgical site infection in both the diabetic group and the non diabetic group
e. NO OPTION E FOR THIS Q
a. No difference in surgical site infection for non diabetic and diabetic patients
107
ALS dose of amiodarone after 3 shocks
A. 150mg
B. 300mg
C. 400mg
D 450mg
300mg
108
Placenta chorionic villi invading myometrium what is this called
A. Placenta increta
B. Placenta accreta
C. Placenta percreta
D. Placenta praevia
Increta
109
Peak effect of insulin-dextrose for hyperkalemia
30 min
60 min
15 min
5 min
60 min
110
Aortic and LV pressure curves showing aortic stenosis
A. AS
B. AR
C. MR
D. Aortic coarctation
E. Aortic dissection
A. AS
111
Sugammadex dose dependent effect?
a. Hypoglycaemia
b. Hyperglycaemia
c. Bradycardia
d. Prolonged QT
E. Recurrence of neuromuscular blockade
Bradycardia
112
Filter size to exclude microbes ?
A 0.1 microns
b. 0.2 microns
c. 0.3 microns
D. 0.4 microns
0.2um
113
Peads PONV most risk factor?
A. >3yrs
B. Nitrous oxide use
C. Opioid use
D. Intraop opioids
E. Pre-pubertal opioids
>3yrs age
114
Rapid ventricular response rate is used when deploying an aortic stent to?
A. Reduced afterload
B. Reduced CO
C. Increased coronary perfusion
D. Increased diastolic pressure
Decrease cardiac output
115
Least likely to be a difficult airway:
Hurler
Down syndrome
Pierre Robin
Alport syndrome
Treacher collins
Down syndrome
116
Haemodynamic changes in hyperthroidism
a. Increased DBP
b. Narrow pulse pressure
c. Reduced diastolic relaxation
d. Decreased CO
e. Decreased SVR
e. decreased SVR"
117
SBP to commence CPR in Anaphylaxis
sBP <60 mmHg
sBP <50 mmHg
sBP <40 mmHg
<50
118
Underwater seal chests drain three bottle system pictured. wanted pressure applied to pleural cavity. bottle 2 -2cm, bottle 3 -20cm, wall suction 80cm
a) -2
b) -18
c) -20
d) -22
e) -80
c) -20
119
Duchenne muscular dystrophy is NOT associated with
a) Increased CK
b) Cardiomyopathy in female carriers
c) decreased Sensitivity to non-depolarising NMBs
d) aspiration
e) reduced life expectancy
c) decreased Sensitivity to non-depolarising NMBs
120
Neonate 26 week old PMA 34 weeks having eye surgery. Sats 92%. on FiO2 40%, PEEP 5, inpiratory pressure 15cmH20.
a. Increase PEEP
b. Increase FiO2 to 100%
c. Recruitment manoeuvre 30cm H2O
d. Give vasopressor
e. Do nothing
A) increase PEEP to 7 cmH2O
or Do nothing
121
N20 Pin index system:
"A) 1,5
B) 1,6
C) 3,5
D) 2,5
E) 4,6"
C) 3,5
122
17yo with TBI what SBP target
"A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 120"
C. 110
123
Definition of Post op neurocognitive dysfunction
"A. Hours to days post op
B. Days to weeks post op
C. Weeks to months post op
D. After 30 days post to to 1 year
E. Immediately
D. After 30 days post to to 1 year"
124
The most effective treatment for pain following wisdom teeth extraction as a single oral dose is Ibuprofen
"A) Paracetamol 1g
B) Tramadol 100mg
C) Parecoxib 40mg
D) Ibuprofen 400mg
E) Codiene 30mg"
D) Ibuprofen 400mg
125
What is the minimum recommended distance that defibrillator pads should be placed from a permanent pacemaker generator?
"a) 8 cm
b)12 cm
c)20 cm
d)5 cm
e)10 cm"
"a) 8 cm
126
Which of the following is not a predictor of successful extubation in an infant?
"a) Grimace
b) Conjugate gaze
c) RR>16
d) Vt>5ml/kg"
c) RR>16
127
Repeat. Which LMA can you not use to insert an ETT?
"a) auragain
b) iGel
c) classic
d) proseal
e) Supreme"
e) Supreme"
128
When performing a lumbar puncture, it is recommeded to give platelets prior to performing it when the platelet count is below:
"a. 10 x 10^9/L
b. 20 x 10^9/L
c. 50 x 10^9/L
d. 60 x 10^9/L
e. 70 x 10^9/L"
b. 20 x 10^9/L
https://www.lifeblood.com.au/news-and-stories/health-professionals-news/new-international-platelet-transfusion-guidelines-now
129
Causes of a reduced DLCO
"a. high altitude
b. obesity
c. polycythemia
d. sarcoid
e. asthma"
d. sarcoid
130
"A 30-year-old woman sustains an injury to her left arm and reports experiencing
intermittent and spontaneous shooting sensations that are not unpleasant in her left
arm. This sensation is"
A. Dysaesthesia
B. Allodynia
C. Hyperalgesia
D. Paraesthesia
E. Hyperaesthesia
D. Paraesthesia
131
"During a level 2 machine check, what is the purpose of the manual two bag
check?"
"A. Check for leak from the ventilator
B. Check patency of the expiratory valve
C. Check for leak from the vaporiser
D. Check for leak from the scavenging system"
B. Check patency of the expiratory valve
132
The following factors are present in cryoprecipitate except
"a) Factor 7
b) Factor 8
c) Factor 13
d) vWF
e) Fibronectin"
"a) Factor 7
133
The immediate management of seizures in an awake craniotomy should involve:
"- cold saline irrigation
- induction of GA and intubation
- IV leviteraceram
- IV midazolam
- IV propofol"
"- cold saline irrigation
134
Hyponatraemia 120mmol/L is LEAST likely caused by
"a) hyperglycaemia
b) hyperlipidaemia
c) hyperproteinaemia
d) hyperthyroidism
e) primary hypoaldosteronism"
d) hyperthyroidism
135
Sensory innervation of the cornea is by the
"A. lacrimal
B. Nasocilliary Nerve
C. Frontal Nerve
D. Oculomotor"
B. Nasocilliary Nerve
136
Brachial plexus nerve
Pointing to Axillary
Pointing to Axillary
137
Sensor on the NIM for thyroid surgery
a. Electromyography of internal laryngeal muscles
b. Recurrent laryngeal nerve action potential
c. Movement of the vocal cords on the endotracheal tube
d. Pressure of the vocal cords on the endotracheal tube
a. Electromyography of internal laryngeal muscles
138
Absolute contraindication to TOE
Eosophageal Stricture
GORD
Dysphagia
Eosophageal Stricture
139
According to the Fourth Consensus Guidelines for the Management of Post-operative Nausea and Vomiting (PONV) published in 2020, multimodal PONV prophylaxis should be implemented in adult patients
a. 0
b. 1 or more
c. 2 or more
d. 3 or more
b. 1 or more
140
32. The most appropriate initial diagnostic test for a suspected phaeochromocytoma is
a. Blood pressure
b. 24 hour urinary catecholamines
c. Plasma free metanephrines
d. CT abdomen
e. Plasma catecholamines
c. Plasma free metanephrines
141
33. A woman with atrial fibrillation has no valvular heart disease. According to AHA guidelines, oral anticoagulants are definitely recommended if her CHA2DS2-VASc score is greater than or equal to
1
2
3
4
5
3
142
40. A level two check of the inhalational anaesthesia delivery device does NOT include checking the
a. Accurate delivery of volatile concentration from vaporiser
b. Connection of vaporiser and seating
c. Secure vaporiser cap
d. Adequate filling of vaporizers
e. Power to vaporiser
a. Accurate delivery of volatile concentration from vaporiser → Level 1 check
143
A five-year-old child weighing 25 kg is to be strictly nil by mouth overnight following a laparotomy. The most appropriate fluid prescription is
a. 45ml/hr 0.9% NS 2.5% dextrose
b. 65ml/hr 0.9% NS 5% dextrose
c. 45ml/hr 0.45% saline with 2.5% dextrose
d. 65ml/hr 0.45% saline with 5% dextrose
e. 45ml/hr 0.9% NS 5% dextrose
e. 45ml/hr 0.9% NS 5% dextrose
144
During neonatal resuscitation, the pulse oximeter should be placed on the
Right foot
Left foot
Right Hand
left Hand
Right hand = pre-ductal → better perfusion & oxygenation; reflect
145
Red man syndrome as a consequence of vancomycin administration is caused by
a. Type 2 sensitivity reaction
b. IgE sensitivity
c. Vasodilation of vessels
d. Mast cell degranulation
d. Mast cell degranulation
146
61. Venous air embolism during frontal craniotomy is most likely to arise from the
a. Transverse sinus
b. Sigmoid sinus
c. Superior sagittal sinus
d. Straight sinus
e. Inferior sagittal sinus
c. Superior sagittal sinus
147
Compared to an open surgical approach, a transcatheter aortic valve implantation (TAVI) has
a. Reduced vascular injury
b. Reduced mean valve gradient
c. Reduced paravalvular leak
d. Reduced complete heart block
e. Reduced reintervention
b. Reduced mean valve gradient
148
First clotting factor to fall in obstetric bleeding
Fibrinogen
149
What adjunct prolongs nerve blocks the most?
a. Dexamethasone
b. Bicarbonate
c. Clonidine
d. Ketamine
a. Dexamethasone
150
Parkinson's patient on apomorphine, what drug to give for nausea/vomiting?
A. Cyclizine
B. Droperidol
C. Metoclopramide
D. Ondansetron
E. Prochlorperazine
A. Cyclizine
