1
Q
Who can authorize further flight away from home station with no cosmetic or structural damage?
A
CO
2
Q
What % of total Fixed Wing flight hours are dedicated to training?
A
20%
3
Q
What % of Rotary Wing flight outs are dedicated to training?
A
40%
4
Q
Who acts as the senior member of the Unit Safety and Health Committee?
A
XO
5
Q
Who acts as the president of the unit permanent mishap board?
A
XO
6
Q
Who monitors flight proficiency and training of all assigned crew members?
A
CO
7
Q
Who assigns flight pay system managers ?
A
CO
8
Q
Who acts as a Member of the unit safety board and permanent mishap board and advises the CO on matters of flight safety.
A
Flight Safety Officer
9
Q
Who acts as the liaison between the enlisted workforce and command cadre
A
CMC
10
Q
Who supervises the Flight Examining and Flight Standards boards?
A
Ops
11
Q
Who maintains weight and balance records
A
Flight Services
12
Q
Who establishes programs for fuel and oil contamination prevention, FOD, and corrosion control?
A
AEO
13
Q
Who is responsible to the CO for the mx of aircraft, GSE, and facilities?
A
AEO
14
Q
Who is QA responsible to?
A
AEO
15
Q
Who establishes qualification requirements for QA inspectors and maintains a record of all designated inspectors?
A
QA Officer
16
Q
Who DIRECTS preventative and corrective maintenance of aircraft?
A
MX Officer
17
Q
Who Plans, Schedules, and controls all phases of maintenance?
A
MX Officer
18
Q
Who is responsible for maintaining all ground equipment, conducting FOD prevention, MANAGES the fuel facilities, and coordinating training of personnel in evolved in ground handling?
A
MX Officer
19
Q
Who is the MX Officer responsible to?
A
AEO
20
Q
Who serves as the SENIOR enlisted advisor for the AEO?
A
LCPO
21
Q
Who oversees flight orders, flight pay, and operational/technical qualifications for enlisted personnel?
A
LCPO
22
Q
Who does the LCPO report to?
A
AEO
23
Q
Who administers programs for maintenance and repair of buildings, grounds, boats, and vehicles?
A
Facilities Engineering Officer
24
Q
What is considered the Red Zone for reverse cycle ops?
A
0300-Sunrise
25
How many days of reverse cycle ops to adapt?
4 days
26
How often do rotary wing aircrew undergo Underwater Egress Training (dunker)?
75 months
27
Max weekly flight hours?
50hrs within 7days
28
A crew member may remain in a duty status indefinitely as long as they have not exceed _______
An average of 4 flight hours a day
29
How many types of Low Pressure/ Hypoxia trainers?
3 : LPC / MHT / NHT
30
How many days after reporting to unit for SWET training?
60 days
31
What are the semi-annual training periods?
Jan1-July1
32
Who recommends a member for instructor qual?
Operations Officer
33
After STAN check, how long before written test due?
30days
34
Who is in charge of the fuel farm?
MX Officer
35
Who is responsible for maintaining shelf life limits?
Quality Assurance Officer
36
Who is responsible for tracking Unit training on egress?
Operations Officer
37
Who supervises and administers the unit safety program?
XO
38
Who provides approval to scuttle an aircraft?
CG-711
39
Who is responsible for calibrating equipment at a unit?
Maintenance Officer
40
Who can authorize a test flight to be completed after sunset?
Commanding Officer
41
What determines the rating of crane required to lift an aircraft?
50% greater than max gross weight (3710.2 13-3)
42
What is the minimum number of people required to taxi in a confined space?
2 safety observers minimum
43
What is the rated capacity of a crane to salvage an aircraft?
50% greater than max gross weight
44
What is the first step in a salvage operation?
Keep the aircraft from sinking
45
What flag is flown in the port aft corner of a ship if it is fuel capable?
Hotel (H)
46
What liquid is used for composite material containment during a salvage operation?
Liquid floor wax, spray lacquer, poly primer, and light oil
47
An aircraft lands with minor damage, who can authorize it to fly?
Commanding Officer
48
An aircraft lands with major damage, who can authorize it to fly?
CG-711 with technical concurrence from CG-41
49
What form is CG-5285?
USCG Training record
50
Who reports to the C O about aircrew stan check, aircrew performance, etc?
Flight standard board, Standardization Officer
51
What happens when you fail a stan check?
Unqualified
52
When you fly for eight hours, how much bed rest is required?
8 hours
53
Hazardous cargo carried in a C G aircraft must comply with what regulations?
AFMAN 24-204
54
What is considered an operations and emergency bill?
Fire, field crash, water crash, SAR, Disaster control, Communications, Hurricane, Pre-mishap plan, Recovery and salvage
55
Who authorizes repair to hoisting cables for helicopters?
CG-711
56
Where would you find watch standing procedures?
Unit organization Manual, the third chapter
57
When a member takes a flight while on leave, how much of their minimum recurrent training can be counted?
All
58
Who has overall responsibility of precision tools?
Maintenance Officer
59
Who is responsible for procurement, custody, issue, and condition of all general and special tools required by the Aeronautical Engineering Department?
Aviation Materiel Officer
60
What is composed of experienced Aircraft Commanders, Instructor Pilots, Flight Examiners, the flight safety Officer, and enlisted flight crew members established at the Unit?
Flight standard board (FSB)
61
Who acts as senior member of the unit safety and Health Committee?
Executive Officer
62
How often is physiology training required?
Annually
63
Who would a member report mental instability to if they are unable to perform flight duties?
Commanding Officer
64
How long are Aircrew Syllabus and check rides sheet maintained?
4 years
65
Who is the release authority for aircraft that has suspected major structural damage?
CG-711
66
What is the lowest authority to schedule flights?
Operations Officer
67
Who can authorize an unscheduled flight?
Commanding Officer
68
The M A A works for who?
XO
69
How often is OPS Hazard training given?
Within 60 days on initial assignment at the Unit and annually thereafter
70
When does semiannual recurrent training begin?
First of January and the first of July
71
What is the start/stop date for annual recurrent training?
1 January to 31 December
72
Annual requirement may be extended to the end of the 15th calendar month with what?
Commanding Officer approval
73
What types of board is composed of experienced pilots and enlisted flight crewmembers?
Flight Standards Board (FSB)
74
How are the crew listed on part II of the CG 4377?
Names and the last four number of the Social Security
75
How long after a crewmember stops flying will their qualifications in the type aircraft lapse?
12 months
76
Who is responsible for aircraft inventory of an aircraft to be transferred?
Aviation Materiel Officer
77
Who is responsible for maintaining firefighting and crash rescue equipment at a unit?
Facilities Engineering Officer
78
If you have an Aircrew member on flight orders and they want to take themselves out because of mental/personal problems, who must be notified?
C O
79
What is the manual for maintaining aircrew qualifications?
M3710.1
80
What is the required off-duty time for 8 hours of flight time?
Must allow a minimum of 8 hours of bed rest
81
How often is egress training required?
Annually
82
Who can authorize further flight with major damages?
CG-711
83
Who can authorize minor flights with minor damages?
C O
84
Must have a standardization every how many months?
12 months, except pilots in DIFPRO assignments
85
How long are check rides sheet and syllabus kept?
4 years
86
What is recommended for containment of composite material after a mishap?
Cover helicopter parts containing exposed composite with polyethylene sheeting, taping securely (3710.2 14-7)
87
What is required if you wear prescription eyewear during flight operations?
Shall wear them during flight operations and have a backup set readily available
88
Who aids the operations officer in keeping the 4377 Part II?
Flight Services Officer
89
How long should a rescue swimmer keep records?
Shall be maintained for a minimum of 18 months
90
Which manual contains information regarding training for Non-aircrew?
M3710.1
91
Who maintains personal Training Records?
C O
92
How long is a Rescue Swimmer Syllabus maintained?
18 months
93
How long is the Rescue swimmer Stan check maintained?
Length of carrier
94
Who approves Syllabi?
CG-711
95
Who can waive a PT test for a Rescue Swimmer that is on leave for 30+ days?
CG-711
96
When can minimums be prorated if you are on emergency leave?
More than 30 days
97
How many instruction for semiannual mins are required for an instructor?
At least 3
98
How many secure voice OPS are required for an MSO?
2 secure coms and 2 of everything else
99
How many EP’s are required for a FM to complete for semi-annual mins?
2 hoist and 1 swimmer
100
How often must a BH hoist?
Once per semi-annual period
101
Which Officer is responsible for flags for dignitaries?
Navigations Officer
102
Which Officer is responsible for storing Cryptographic gear?
Communications Officer
103
How many flight hours is an AMS required to have in rotary wing to receive wings?
200
104
How many flight hours is an AMS required to have in fixed wing to receive wings?
400
105
Which department is responsible for the calibration of tools?
Engineering Department
106
Which manual is used to rescind aircrew wing?
M1200.1 (3710.1 7-2)
107
Which manual is used to award aircrew wing?
M1000.2
108
What percent must a recovery crane be rated to recover a helicopter?
50% more than the maximum gross weight of the aircraft
109
How long must you remain in the water for wet drills?
10 min
110
How long must you be qualified to become an instructor?
6 months
111
How often does the Unit F E B meet?
Quarterly
112
How often is the dunker (underwater egress) required for rotor wing personnel?
75 calendar months
113
How long after a Pilot’s failed event must the C.O. write a letter to the CG-711?
Shall be submitted within 30 Days
114
What happens to a member's training record when PCS?
Sealed and hand carried by the member
115
What level can you fly at without pressurization and oxygen?
Will not exceed FL180
116
How often must a swimmer fly with the stan team?
Every four years
117
How long are rescue swimmer training records kept?
18 months
118
For a rescue swimmer to keep their EMT certification, how much additional training is required?
24 hours of EMT level CE
119
What must be done for crewmembers who have not flown in 12 months?
Complete a Commandant (CG711) approved designation syllabus (stan check)
120
What files are used to make a positive check on the timely submission of the unit's recurring reports and other correspondence?
Tickle file
121
What sections are in a unit organization manual for watch details?
1st - general principles, mission of the unit and general information; 2nd - department organization and detail duties; 3rd - watch organization; 4th - System of unit orders and institution
122
How many hours for AMS to wear aircrew wings full time on fixed wing?
400
123
Who is the president of the mishap board?
XO
124
If a Commanding Officer with Tactical Control is unavailable, who is the next person in the chain of command to approve the flight schedule?
No lower than the assigned Operations Officer
125
How long are flight plans filed at the Unit?
90 days
126
When is a physical copy of a Form-F not required to be filed?
When the aircraft is capable of recording weight and balance data on a crash worthy recorder
127
Who can authorize a flight following non-structural cosmetic damage to an aircraft?
C O
128
What is the maximum flight time for a helicopter crewmember to fly while wearing CBR gear?
4 hours
129
What is the maximum flight time for a fixed wing crewmember to fly while wearing CBR gear?
4 hours
130
What is considered a near miss in aviation?
Less than 500 feet to another aircraft
131
How far from a beach line is fixed wing flight restricted?
1 mile less than 2,000 feet
132
How far from a beach is helicopter flight restricted?
¼ mile less than 500 feet
133
What manual is for helicopter external load?
COMDT INST M13482
134
HH-60 can land on national security cutters and some ______ ft. cutters.
270
135
Who acts as senior member of the Unit Training board?
Operations Officer
136
The leading chief reports directly to who?
Aeronautical Engineering Officer
137
What signifies a member has received advanced training to complete a specific CG mission?
Qualification
138
What manual is used for enlisted aircrew insignia?
Enlisted, Evaluations, and Advancement CIM 1000.2
139
How often is a rescue swimmer on ADP required to complete a stan check with the Rescue swimmer stand division?
Every four years
140
When a CG Mission requires a fast rope operation, who is in control?
Governed by FORCECOM approved Coast Guard Tactics, Techniques and Procedures
141
When is a HC-130 load master required for flight?
Whenever the cargo may affect the weight and balance of the aircraft
142
If a member of the flight crew reports a laser strike, who is notified upon completion of the flight?
OPCON, the nearest air traffic control facility, and local law enforcement
143
What is the authoritative manual for CRM?
Risk Management Instruction COMDINST 3500.3
144
What is the amount of flight time required for fixed wing AMS to permanently wear aircrew wing?
400 hrs.
145
What percentage of fuel is required for flight planning?
Fuel carried on departure will be at least 10% more than the required to reach the alternate airfield
146
For every flight over water, what is taken into consideration?
Estimated time to loss of useful consciousness, Probable survival time, estimated recovery time
147
What is the range for a medium range CG asset?
400 Nautical Miles action radius plus 2.5 hours search remaining
148
What report is used to conduct a positive check of unit reports?
Tickler files
149
How many hours to add to crew rest if time zone landed in is more than 4 hours different from departure time zone?
Shall be increased by three hours
150
If a member completes training using a simulator with visuals and motion engaged, how long must they wait before they can fly?
Not authorized within a 12-hour period immediately after simulator or AWT events
151
A circular for transportation of Coast Guard Aircraft is published by who?
Office of Management and Budget (OMB) circular
152
How long are check rides and syllabi saved?
4 years
153
According to the 3710.1, how many safety observers are required in a congested area?
Minimum of two. One per wing.
154
What is the preferred method for covering parts containing composites at a crash?
Polyethylene sheeting // Floor Wax (3710.2 14-7)
155
How long after a Stan check does one have to get another?
12 months, may be extended to 15 months
156
Who approves taking off after minor damage?
C O
157
What manuals are used for flight orders?
CIM7220.39 Management and Administration of Aviation Incentive Pay
158
Aviators with eyewear are required to do what?
Shall wear them during all flight ops, have a backup set available, may not wear contact lenses for solo pilot Ops
159
If you get 8 hrs. flight time, how much bed rest is required?
8 hours
160
Who can be the lowest ranking member to approve the flight schedule?
Operations Officer
161
Who can assist the Operations Officer and keeps 4377 part II?
Flight Services Officer
162
What are the most important things for high power engine runs?
Should be designated area so exhaust blast will not cause damage
163
Who do you see to ground yourself?
Consult with Flight Surgeon (3710.1 8-1)
164
What is the Enlisted Performance Qualifications Manual?
Performance Qualifications Guide from the CG Institute
165
If you land with structural damage, who can approve further flight?
CG-711
166
What Manual is for Flight Pay?
7220.39
167
When loading and unloading hazmat, what manual is referenced?
AFMAN 24-604
168
How often is the time between Stan checks?
12 months normally, 15 months max
169
Who assists the Operations Officer and keeps 4377 part II?
Flight Services Officer
170
Who do you see to ground yourself for emotional reasons?
FS
171
How would an aircraft flight of 13 hrs. and 13 minutes be logged on the 781J?
13.2
172
How much bed rest is required after 8 hrs. of flight time?
8 hours
173
How often do you keep a completed standardization check?
4 years
174
Who authorizes repairs to hoisting cables for helicopters?
CG-711
175
Where would you find watch standing procedures?
Stations Instructions
176
When a member takes a flight while on leave, how much of their minimum recurrent training can be counted?
Can be logged to meet semiannual training requirements
177
Who disposes of excess surveyed property?
Property Officer
178
Designated flight crew members shall be awarded insignia, as described in what manual?
Uniform Regulations, COM
179
What is the standard time for flight missions?
8 hours
180
How long is a completed standardization check kept?
4 years
181
Where can watch standing procedures be found?
Stations Instructions
182
Who has overall responsibility for precision tools?
Maintenance Officer
183
Designated flight crew members shall be awarded insignia as described in which manual?
Enlistment, Evaluation, and Advancements, COMDTINST M1000.2
184
Award insignia for Coast Guard AVIATORS in accordance with which manual?
COMDINST M1000.3
185
Award Flight Surgeon Insignia in accordance with which manual?
Coast Guard Aviation Medicine Manual COMDTINST M6410.3
186
Aviation mission specialist insignia are authorized to be worn temporarily under what condition?
As long as the individual is assigned to a unit with responsibilities to perform on the mission specialist duties and maintains the appropriate qualification criteria
187
Who is not authorized to wear the mission specialist insignia?
Personnel qualified or previously qualified as pilots, Naval Flight Officers, Flight Surgeons, Aircrew or Rescue Swimmers
188
Awarding the Rescue Swimmer Insignia is in accordance with which manual?
Uniform Regulations COMDTINST M1020.6
189
What is required to obtain Instructor Qualification?
Instructed for at least six months and recommended by the Unit Operations Officer
190
Who initiates action for survey in the event of loss, damage, or destruction of accountable items?
Aviation Materiel Officer
191
Who inventories aircraft upon receipt and transfer?
Aviation Materiel Officer
192
Who is responsible for procurement, custody, issue and condition of all general and special tools required by the Aeronautical Engineering Department?
Aviation Materiel Officer
193
What is the recommended operational window for night adapted flight missions?
2200 to 0400
194
Who maintains aircraft and station emergency bills?
Operations Officer
195
Who supervises the Flight Examining Board and Flight Standards Board?
Operations Officer
196
Who monitors the accuracy of Aviation Incentive Pay (AVIP), Hazardous Duty Incentive Pay (HDIP), and Special Duty Assignment Pay (SDAP)?
C O (3710.1 A-2)
197
Who acts as the senior member of the unit safety and health committee?
X O
198
Who supervises the Master at Arms (M A A)?
X O
199
Who acts as president of the Unit Permanent Mishap board?
X O
200
At large units, who assists the Executive Officer in their duties?
Deputy Executive Officer
201
Who assists the C.O. in promoting unit wellbeing?
Chaplain
202
Who is the liaison between the enlisted workforce and command cadre?
Command Master Chief
203
Who maintains weight and balance records, flight logs, reports and records?
Flight Services Officer
204
Who provides medical services if a medical officer is not assigned?
Medical Administration Officer (3710.1 A-4)
205
Any CG member involved in what type of mishap shall undergo a complete aviation physical examination?
Class A and B
206
Who is the only officer that may authorize designated aviation personnel to perform aviation duties?
C O
207
What is the Medical Recommendation for Flying Duty form?
CG-6020
208
Who may relieve from flying duty any individual reported physically incapacitated?
C O
209
What are the types of Aeronautical waivers?
Temporary and Permanent
210
Who maintains the mishap response kit?
Flight Surgeon
211
Who is responsible for oversight of the Unit's Rescue Swimmer (RS) EMT continuing Education (CE) program?
The Unit Flight Surgeon
212
Alcohol containing beverages require _____ hours of flight restriction termination.
12 hours
213
Who is normally assigned as the Salvage Officer?
The Aviation Engineering Officer from the parent air station
214
Who conducts the Foreign Object Damage (FOD) prevention program?
Maintenance Officer
215
Who manages the aviation fuel facilities?
Maintenance Officer
216
What is the fuel reserve requirement for fixed wing aircraft?
45 minutes of flight after reaching the alternate
217
What is the fuel reserve requirement for rotary wing aircraft?
20 minutes of flight after reaching the alternate
218
Retain completed weight and balance forms for _____ days at the aircraft home.
90
219
Retain copies of flight plans filed at Coast Guard Units for _____ days.
90
220
Where can you find the minimum rescue equipment required on board Coast Guard fixed wing aircraft?
Coast Guard Life Support Equipment Manual (ALSE) COMDTINST M135520.1 and Aviation Life Support Equipment Process Guide CGTO PG-85-00-310-A
221
Use of other protective clothing for conducting Coast Guard missions is prohibited unless authorized by _____
CG-711
222
When is an anti-exposure garment (dry suit) required?
Water temp 60-70, Air temp A < 85, W < 60
223
Underwear for flight suits shall be _____% cotton of fire retardant and _____
100, Moisture Wicking
224
Socks for flight suits shall be at least _____% cotton or wool.
80
225
What type of undergarment is not authorized to wear with the Aircrew Dry coverall (ADC)?
Cotton
226
Dry suits and accompanying wet/dry suit hood/surf cap shall be worn for rescue swimmers when water temp is below _____ degrees.
55
227
When is the aircraft required to carry life rafts?
For flights that remain over water longer than 30 minutes or extended beyond 100 nautical miles from the nearest shore
228
What manual specifies the minimum content of the survival vest?
Coast Guard Aviation Life Support Equipment Manual (ALSE) CMDTINST M13520.1
229
Who may authorize additional items to the survival vest to meet local conditions?
CG-711
230
Pressurized aircraft operating above FL 350, _____ pilot at the controls shall be wearing and using an oxygen mask unless there are two pilots at the controls.
One
231
Pressurized aircraft operating above FL 410, _____ pilot at the controls shall be wearing and using an oxygen mask.
One
232
Who is responsible for the loading/unloading of cargo?
P I C
233
Minimum pilots required for test flight?
All except SRR helicopter: an AC and FP, SRR Helicopter-AC
234
What are the clothing requirements for passengers?
Inappropriate civilian clothing includes tank tops, shorts, sandals, revealing, soiled or torn clothing
235
What are the requirements for child passengers?
Shall be accompanied by a parent, guardian, or attendant designated by the child’s parent or guardian
236
When are pets authorized on a government aircraft?
Guide, rescue or police dogs
237
Who do you report a midair collision to?
National Command Center via telephone within 5 minutes and to Commandant (CG-1131) within 12 hours via preliminary mishap report
238
Who do you submit requests for changes to the 3710.1?
CG-711 via request Unit CO
239
All Air stations and the operations division of the Aviation Training Center fall under the operational control of _____
District area Commanders
240
All Atlantic Area HC-130 aircraft are under the operational control of _____
Area Commander
241
All other Coast Guard Aircraft fall under the operational control of _____
District Commanders
242
The training Division of the Aviation Training Center falls under the Operational control of _____
FORCE COM
243
The Aviation Logistic Center falls under the Operational Control of _____
Commandant CG-4
244
Air Station Washington falls under the operational control of _____
Commandant CG-711
245
For aviation missions involving multiple aircraft, who may be assigned as Air Mission Commander (AMC)?
Operations Officer
246
How many first aid kits are required on the aircraft?
One for every ten occupants
247
The contents of the first aid kits (and maintenance cycle) are enrolled in _____
Aviation Computerized Maintenance System (ACMS)
248
What is required when Oxymetazoline spray (Afrin) in the first aid kit is used?
A mishap message
249
Where can you find information on the number and location of crash axes?
Flight Manual
250
Who approves Personnel Hoisting and Delivery Devices?
ACCB
251
Personnel Hoisting and Delivery Devices maintained at air stations shall be enrolled in _____
ACMS
252
Approved litters aboard cutters or at boat stations shall be marked as _____
Helicopter hoistable
AMT Jeopardy
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