E5 EPME Flashcards

(46 cards)

1
Q

Where are deadlines for Personal Data Extract (PDE) verifications and corrections provided?

A

ALCGENL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

On your Personal Data Extract (PDE), Time in Rating (TIR) and Time in Service (TIS) are computed up to what point?

A

Terminal Eligibility Date

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

On your Personal Data Extract (PDE), award points are earned up to what point?

A

SWE Eligibility Date

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Sea Time points on a Personal Data Extract (PDE) are calculated at what rate?

A

2 points per year, or 0.166 points per month,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

On your Personal Data Extract (PDE) you will receive credit for all sea/surf/award points for your first advancement on or after what date?

A

Point Start Date up to the SED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What should you do if you find errors on your Personal Data Extract (PDE)?

A

if errors are found, note them on the printed copy of this form, sign it, and provide it to your admin personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What should you do after ranking positions in order of preference on your eResume?

A

click Return to previous page. Input comments by clicking member comments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Once you have chosen all desired Job Basket boxes for an eResume, what should be your next step?

A

k Save to Job Basket.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

You have submitted an eResume but immediately notice that the Job Ranking Preferences are incorrect. How should you make corrections?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

You have submitted an incorrect eResume in Direct Access (DA). What can you do to delete your eResume?

A

DA does not allow for deletions of incorrect eResumes, wait 24 hours to edit it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the form number for the Enlisted Individual Development Plan (IDP)?

A

form CG-5357A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

An Individual Development Plan (IDP) is _____.

A

a tool to facilitate a conversation that the supervisor, and mentor if desired, uses to discuss professional and personal goals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

An Individual Development Plan (IDP) is not _____.

A

performance evaluation method, a contract for training, or a means for clarifying or revising a position description

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A first term enlisted member’s Individual Development Plan (IDP) must be introduced and discussed with their supervisor within _____ days of reporting to the unit.

A

30 DAYS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does analysis of mishap data reveal as the most common cause of mishaps?

A

a lack of deliberate and systematic RM during preparation, planning, and execution of operations and activities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does the Risk Management (RM) process rely on to identify, assess, control, mitigate, and manage potential hazards?

A

effective teamwork and communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following is the foundation of the Risk Management (RM) process?

A

Hazard identification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In step 1 of the Risk Management (RM) process, if time is limited and a thorough task analysis cannot be performed, what model can be used?

A

PEACE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In the first step of the Risk Management Process Cycle, “Why” analysis is used in which action?

A

Action 3- List causes

20
Q

How is risk defined within Risk Management (RM)?

A

the possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard

21
Q

Which of the following is a risk assessment pitfall?

A

Over optimism, Misrepresentation, Alarmism, Indiscrimination, Prejudice, Inaccuracy, Enumeration

22
Q

Develop Controls is the first action in which step of the Risk Management (RM) process?

A

Step 3 - Develop Controls and Make Risk Decisions

23
Q

Reducing risks by transferring all or some portion of that mission or task to another individual, unit or platform that is better positioned, more survivable, or more expendable is a control option using the _____ approach.

A

STAAR- Transfer

24
Q

The movement of forces, equipment, or tasks to other areas in order to avoid risk to the entire mission refers to what control option to eliminate or reduce risk?

25
What is the control option used for specific risks by “going around” them or doing the mission or task in a different way?
avoid
26
Within the Risk Management (RM) process, which is a type of control that can be applied to hazards to mitigate the risk?
reduce, reject or delay
27
What mnemonic provides a simple and convenient aide to identify some approaches to eliminate or reduce risk?
STAAR
28
What is the first choice in the standard of order of precedence for Risk Management (RM) controls?
design and engineering solutions
29
In which step of the Risk Management Process Cycle does a member establish accountability?
Step 4 - implement controls
30
Which of the following is an action in step 4 of the Risk Management (RM) process?
Make Implementation Clear, Establish Accountability, Provide Support
31
Documentation is critical to the success of which step in the overall RM process?
Action 5—Make Risk Decision
32
How many actions are there in the last step of the RM process?
3: Monitor, Evaluate, feedback
33
In step 5 of the RM process, ensure changes requiring further RM are identified, is part of which action?
Monitor
34
In the RM process, what action follows an evaluation?
Feedback
35
What is the first step in resolving conflict among peers?
awareness of your preferred style of conflict resolution
36
Which of the following is a behavioral clue that a conflict with a peer may exist?
avoid interaction with you or avoid eye contact, outgoing interactions with you, as their peer either before, during, or after a job, task, or project completion have quickly stopped, decreased, or have ceased to exist all together, rumors throughout the shop, team, unit, about a certain person, whom you recognize as equal in rank/grade to you, is having a rough time at the unit and seems to have hard feelings or concerns, significant decreases in what is normally a very congenial and professional daily verbal interaction, person has a decreased involvement in unit activities, athletics, after work events, social gatherings
37
What is the third stage of conflict?
Escalation
38
What is a characteristic of the escalation stage of conflict?
can become increasingly aggressive
39
What is the first stage of conflict escalation?
disagreement
40
Which stage of conflict escalation is the point of contention where a peer-to-peer conflict can become increasingly aggressive?
escalation
41
Which stage of conflict represents the path for resolving a conflict without first escalating?
stage 4- De-escalation
42
The Coast Guard’s preferred style for conflict management is _____.
Collaborating
43
In this conflict management style, the conflict must be resolved quickly and without regard for the other person’s desires.
Competing
44
In this conflict management style, intervention is considered but without a high value placed on your own desires.
Accommodating
45
In this conflict management style, each person makes a sacrifice so that both parties get part of what they want.
Compromising
46
What is the last stage in resolving conflicts among peers?
FACILITATE a resolution