1
Q
Where should Coast Guard voluntary education services inquiries related to tuition assistance be sent to?
A
ETQC-SMB-TAG@uscg.mil
2
Q
Registrar services provided by ETQC include which of the following?
A
Joint Service transcript, Degree reporting, DANTES Reimbursement, and Solicititaion for voluntary eduction awards
3
Q
Which directive provides specific guidance on the Coast Guard voluntary credentialing program?
A
COMMANDANT INSTRUCTION 1540.10
4
Q
Where are tuition assistance waivers submitted for final review?
A
ETQC
5
Q
Where can a link to the ASVAB AFCT Waiver Request Guide be found?
A
ETQC share point
6
Q
The Harry W. Colmery Veterans Educational Assistance Act is also known as the _____.
A
Forever GI Bill
7
Q
Under the Post-9/11 GI Bill, a Veteran enrolled at more than one-half time can qualify for a monthly housing allowance based on DoD’s Basic Allowance for Housing (BAH) rate for an _____ with dependents.
A
E-5
8
Q
The Montgomery GI Bill-Active Duty provides up to _____ months of education benefits.
A
48 months
9
Q
The GI Bill Comparison Tool offers information based on which of the following GI Bill benefits?
A
BAH
10
Q
Veterans in their second 6 months of OJT & Apprenticeship Training programs may use their GI Bill benefits to receive _____ of the applicable Monthly Housing Stipend.
A
11
Q
In which of the following cases is Tuition Assistance authorized for?
A
12
Q
One purpose of the _____ program is to provide developmental incentives for personnel with high ability, dedication and the capacity for professional growth to remain in the Coast Guard.
A
Advanced Education
13
Q
Which of the following is a responsibility for a student who has been accepted into the Advanced Education program?
A
a. Apply to Advanced Education Program Manager approved educational institution(s) (Note: Only schools with a DoD MOU will be acceptable). b. Gain acceptance to the educational institution and the specific degree program. c. Complete necessary prerequisites and route forms. d. Act as Coast Guard liaison to the institution with regard to their attendance. e. Liaise with the educational institution’s Military Advocate. f. Monitor and comply with fiscal requirements. g. Carry a full credit hour load, year round, at the respective educational institution. h. Maintain academic proficiency throughout the program. i. Complete program of study’s requirements in the allotted time. j. Maintain Military/Coast Guard requirements and standards.
14
Q
Who acts as subject matter expert to assist Coast Guard members with voluntary education programs?
A
ESO
15
Q
Which of the following is one of the four firearm safety rules?
A
Treat all firearms as if they are loaded.
16
Q
Which of the following is one of the four firearm safety rules?
A
Always maintain proper muzzle control
17
Q
Which of the following is one of the four firearm safety rules?
A
Keep finger off the trigger until on target and ready to shoot
18
Q
Which of the following is one of the four firearm safety rules?
A
Know your target and what’s beyond it
19
Q
Which of the following is a requirement to advance to E-3?
A
20
Q
Which of the following is a requirement to advance to E-4?
A
ALP, Striker program Aschool
21
Q
The _____ and ASVAB tests are different version of the same battery of tests.
A
Department of Defense Armed Forces Classification Test
22
Q
Class “A” Course graduates who had their advancement to E-4 withheld upon graduation due to receivingan “UNSAT” conduct while attending a Class “A” Course, are required to complete how many months of good conduct prior to being advanced?
A
12 months
23
Q
Which of the following ratings have no direct path of advancement from E-3 to E-4?
A
IV, DV,
24
Q
Where is the list of ratings open to striking found?
A
Released via alcoast, sharepoint
25
Where are "A" school rating requirements listed?
The pre-requisite requirements for all Ratings are compiled into the EPM-2 A School Assignments Rating Requirements Listing posted to the Coast Guard PSC website: PSC-EPM - Non-Rates (sharepoint-mil.us).
26
Which stress management term is defined as "Bad" stress?
Distress: “Bad” stress, perceived as negative and associated with a sense of loss of control.
27
"Good" stress is related to which stress management term?
Eustress: “Good” stress, perceived as positive and associated with a sense of control.
28
Which term is defined as "the non-specific response of the body to any demands placed upon it or what you feel after you encounter a stressor"?
Stress: The non-specific response of the body to any demands placed upon it or what you feel after you encounter a stressor (anxiety, frustration, depression, etc.)
29
What are stressors?
The causes of stress (transfers, deadlines, etc.)
30
What term is defined as a stress management tool used to measure a person's personal stress load?
Stressmap: A stress management tool used to measure a person’s personal stress load.
31
Stress is defined within the Coast Guard Stress Management Program as:
The non-specific response of the body to any demands placed upon it or what you feel after you encounter a stressor (anxiety, frustration, depression, etc.)
32
The services provided by the _____ are available for professional assistance with Stress Management.
Employee Assistance Program Coordinator (EAPC)
33
Which Stress Management awareness and skills training promotes an understanding of stress, awareness of support resources, and provides practical stress navigation tools to help build resilience of Sailors, families, and commands?
Operational Stress Control
34
How can you contact the Employee Assistance Program?
Call CG support?
35
Who is eligible for the Office of Work-Life Stress Management Program?
Active Duty members and their dependents, Civilian Employees of the Coast Guard, and Reservists
36
Identify a signal of distress which is an expected stress reaction associated with critical incidents.
Emotional Responses during a traumatic event may include shock, in which the individual may present a highly anxious, active response or perhaps a seemingly stunned, emotionally-numb response. Affected persons may describe themselves as feeling like they were “in a fog.” They may exhibit denial, in which there is an inability to acknowledge the impact of the situation or perhaps, that the situation has even occurred. They may show evidence of dissociation, in which they may seem dazed and apathetic, and may express feelings of unreality. Other frequently observed acute emotional responses may include panic, fear, intense feelings of aloneness, hopelessness, helplessness, emptiness, uncertainty, horror, anger, hostility, irritability, sadness, grief, and guilt.
37
Identify a signal of distress which is an expected stress reaction associated with critical incidents.
Cognitive Responses to traumatic exposure are often reflected in impaired concentration, confusion, disorientation, difficulty in making a decision, a short attention span, suggestibility, vulnerability, forgetfulness, self-blame, blaming others, lowered self-efficacy, thoughts of losing control, hypervigilance, and constant repetitious thoughts of the traumatic event. For example, a survivor of an automobile accident, may cognitively still “be in” the automobile replaying/reliving the accident over and over in his mind.
38
Identify a signal of distress which is an expected stress reaction associated with critical incidents.
Behavioral Responses in the face of a traumatic event may include withdrawal, “spacing-out,” noncommunication, changes in speech patterns, regressive behaviors, erratic movements, impulsivity, a reluctance to abandon property, seemingly aimless walking, pacing, an inability to sit still, an exaggerated startle response and antisocial behaviors.
39
Identify a signal of distress which is an expected stress reaction associated with critical incidents.
Physiological Responses may include rapid heart beat, elevated blood pressure* , difficulty breathing* , shock symptoms* , chest pains* , cardiac palpitations* , muscle tension and pains, fatigue, fainting* , flushed face, pale appearance, chills, cold clammy skin, increased sweating, thirst, dizziness, vertigo, hyperventilation, headaches, grinding of teeth, twitches and gastrointestinal upset.
40
Identify a signal of distress which is an expected stress reaction associated with critical incidents.
Spiritual Distress Responses may include anger at God or other deity, withdrawal from faith-based community; a “crisis of faith.”
41
The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) offers which as an example of a way to manage stress?
Keep a journal.
42
The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) offers which as an example of a way to manage stress?
Download an app that provides relaxation exercises (such as deep breathing or visualization) or tips for practicing mindfulness, which is a psychological process of actively paying attention to the present moment.
43
The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) offers which as an example of a way to manage stress?
Exercise, and make sure you are eating healthy, regular meals.
44
The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) offers which as an example of a way to manage stress?
Stick to a sleep routine, and make sure you are getting enough sleep.
45
The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) offers which as an example of a way to manage stress?
Avoid drinking excess caffeine such as soft drinks or coffee.
46
The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) offers which as an example of a way to manage stress?
Identify and challenge your negative and unhelpful thoughts.
47
The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) offers which as an example of a way to manage stress?
Reach out to your friends or family members who help you cope in a positive way.
48
Which of the following does the National Institute of Mental Health recommend to manage stress?
49
Which of the following is an intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program?
Raise Awareness of Substance Abuse Issues, Raise Awareness of Substance Abuse Issues, Provide Periodic Prevention Training, Support Commands, Outline Zero Tolerance for Drug/Substance Misuse and Abuse, Support Mission Readiness,
50
The National Institute of Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA) low-risk guidelines suggest that "zero" drinks is the low risk option when _____.
when one is driving, using machinery, cleaning a weapon, pregnant, or on certain medications
51
Key behaviors for low-risk alcohol use include what model?
0,1,2,3 model
52
Where can you find additional clarification on low-risk drinking guidelines?
https://www.rethinkingdrinking.niaaa.nih.gov/.
53
Which of the following is an intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program?
Raise Awareness of Substance Abuse Issues, Raise Awareness of Substance Abuse Issues, Provide Periodic Prevention Training, Support Commands, Outline Zero Tolerance for Drug/Substance Misuse and Abuse, Support Mission Readiness,
54
What is one responsibility of a Command Drug and Alcohol Representative (CDAR)?
(1) Assist with implementation of a pre-treatment plan; (2) Facilitate completion of appropriate treatment (if required); (3) Document corrective action (if necessary); and (4) Assist with implementation, oversight, and monitoring of aftercare.
55
What is Substance Abuse Prime for Life training used for?
n evidence-based alcohol and drug program for members who show signs of misusing alcohol.
56
One intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program is to _____.
Raise Awareness of Substance Abuse Issues, Raise Awareness of Substance Abuse Issues, Provide Periodic Prevention Training, Support Commands, Outline Zero Tolerance for Drug/Substance Misuse and Abuse, Support Mission Readiness,
57
What is the definition of substance abuse?
The use of a substance by a member, which causes other (performance of duty, health, behavior, family, community) problems or places the member's safety at risk.
58
What is considered substance abuse?
The use of a substance by a member, which causes other (performance of duty, health, behavior, family, community) problems or places the member's safety at risk.
59
According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), as an individual's BAC increases, the risk of _____ increases.
harm, being injured from falls or
car crashes, experiencing acts of violence, and engaging
in unprotected or unintended sex
60
According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), drinking too much over time can raise your risk for _____, cancer, liver disease, and other illnesses.
injuries
61
According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), more than _____ people die from alcohol-related causes in the United States each year.
140000
62
Being able to “hold your liquor” or having a high tolerance for alcohol is _____.
lower response to the intoxicating effects, they have an increased risk for developing AUD, can experience permanent liver, heart, or brain damage
63
What is considered binge drinking for men?
5
64
What is considered binge drinking for women?
4
65
Binge drinking is a pattern of drinking that brings BAC to what percent or higher?
0.0008
66
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being slightly impaired?
0.08
67
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being "sloppy" drunk?
0.16
68
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by stupor or blackout?
0.3
69
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by coma and risk of death?
0.4
70
A sign of alcohol poisoning is _____.
Passes out and cannot be awakened Vomiting while passed out Has cold, clammy, and/or pale skin Breathing is slow and irregular
71
Youth who drink alcohol are more likely to experience _____.
Risk of brain development problems. More binge-drinking episodes. Increased risk of sexual assault.
72
Which of the following is a reason women face higher risks of drinking alcohol?
body structure and chemistry lead most women to absorb more alcohol and take longer to metabolize it.
73
What is a standard drink for 80 proof hard liquor?
1.5 fl oz
74
How many grams of pure alcohol is in a "standard" drink?
14 grams .6 fl oz
75
How many fluid ounces of table wine are in a standard drink?
5 fl oz
76
How many fluid ounces of beer are in a standard drink?
12 fl oz
77
Using the BAC calculator, what would be the BAC percentage for a 150 pound male who consumed 3 oz. of 40% alcohol over one hour?
0.0009
78
Across the United States, a recorded Blood Alcohol Content (BAC) test of _____ or higher alcohol is proof of DUI without any other evidence.
0.0008
79
A medical professional must perform an analysis and diagnosis for potential _____ upon commission of an alcohol incident or referral.
Substance/ Alcohol abuse
80
A member diagnosed within the first _____ days of CG service as drug/alcohol abusive or dependent is considered physically disqualified for enlistment.
180
81
Which of the following is required for self-referral for potential substance abuse?
(1) A request must be made to a Chaplain, Command, CDAR, SAPS, or health care provider. (2) There can be no credible evidence of involvement in an alcohol/drug incident. (3) Members may self-refer for drug abuse; however, self-referral may result in a drug incident determination and administrative actions in accordance with Reference (a). (4) A self-referral for alcohol related issues is not to be punitive.
82
Which statement reflects Coast Guard policy on tobacco use and abuse?
it is CG policy to discourage the use of all forms of tobacco products and to protect people from exposure to environmental tobacco smoke (ETS), unsanitary conditions created by the use of spit tobacco, and the potential addiction to nicotine products. The use of any tobacco product in public detracts from a sharp military appearance and is discouraged. Where conflicts arise between the rights of non-nicotine users and nicotine users, the rights of the non-user will prevail.
83
Which example would constitute unauthorized use of a prescription drug?
The use of prescription drugs is unauthorized if it is without legal justification or authorization. Commands should contact their servicing legal office if there are questions about whether the use of prescription drugs was without legal justification or authorization.
84
Which of the following is considered prohibited substance abuse?
85
Which of the following constitutes a drug incident?
86
Urinalysis is the procedure employed to obtain urine samples under controlled conditions, maintaining a chain of custody on each sample, and_____.
scientifically analyze the samples to detect the presence of controlled/prohibited substances or their metabolytes.
87
Which of the following would be the consequence of a drug incident?
seperation, USCMJ action, treatment for drug abuse
88
Which term is defined as self-inflicted death with evidence, either explicit or implicit, or intent to die?
Suicide
89
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior for which there is evidence, either implicit or explicit, that the person did not intend to kill himself/herself?
Self harm
90
What term is defined as any interpersonal action, verbal or nonverbal, without a direct self-injurious component, passive or active, for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, that the person is communicating that a suicide-related behavior might occur in the near future?
Suicide-Related Communications
91
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior with a non-fatal outcome for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, of intent to die?
Suicide Attempt
92
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm with no injury is reported as _____.
Self harm lvel 1
93
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm with injury is reported as _____.
level 2
94
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm resulting in death is reported as _____.
level 3
95
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, suicide attempt resulting in injury is reported as _____.
Suicide-Related Communications Level 2
96
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, suicide attempt resulting in no injury is reported as _____.
Suicide-Related Communications Level 1
97
What term is defined as any self-reported thoughts of engaging in suicide-related behaviors?
Suicide-Related Communications
98
What would be the cause to report a Self-Harm Level 3 in the Suicide Prevention Program?
death/ fatality
99
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior where intent is unknown?
Undetermined Suicide-Related Behavior
100
Dismissing _____ as “manipulation” is one of the surest ways to increase suicide risk.
Suicide-Related Ideations
101
In one survey, more than half of 26,000 students across 70 colleges and universities reported having at least one _____ at some point in their lives.
episode of suicidal thinking
102
What are any interpersonal acts of imparting, conveying, or transmitting suicide-related thoughts, wishes, desires, or intent; not to be construed as the actual self-inflicted behavior or injury known as?
Suicide-Related Communications
103
What type of suicide-related communication is a proposed method of carrying out a design that can potentially result in suicide-related behavior.
Suicide Plan
104
What type of suicide-related communication is a systematic formulation of a program of action that will potentially lead to suicide-related behaviors?
Suicide Plan
105
Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?
IDEATION- Thoughts of suicide expressed, threatened, or
written
106
Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?
SUBSTANCE USE- Increased or excessive alcohol or drug use.
107
What is a mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?
108
Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?
PURPOSELESSNESS- Seeing no reason for living or having no sense of
meaning or purpose of life.
109
Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?
ANXIETY- Feeling anxious, agitated, frequent nightmares, or
unable to sleep (or sleeping all the time).
110
Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?
TRAPPED- Feeling trapped, like there is no way out.
111
Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?
HOPELESSNESS- Feeling hopeless about self, others, the future
112
Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?
WITHDRAWAL- Withdrawing from family, friends, usual
activities, society.
113
Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?
ANGER- Feeling rage or uncontrolled anger, seeking
revenge for perceived wrongs.
114
Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?
RECKLESSNESS- Acting without regard for consequences,
excessively risky behavior. MOOD CHANGES
115
_____ is not an easy thing to do, but it is essential for suicide prevention.
ASK
116
What may be helpful to lead into the question "Are you thinking about killing yourself?"
o lead into this question with a statement of your observations
117
What mnemonic is used as an aid for what to do when you suspect someone is thinking of suicide?
ACE
118
During which step of suicide prevention may the at-risk member attempt to make a joke or attempt to deflect the direct question?
ASK
119
During the _____ step of suicide prevention you should actively listen.
CARE
120
During which step of suicide prevention should you remove or take possession of any means that could be used for self-injury?
CARE
121
During which step of suicide prevention is it important to not promise confidentiality?
CARE
122
In which step of suicide prevention is active listening likely to produce relief?
CARE
123
During which step of suicide prevention should you encourage the person to seek help?
CARE
124
You may express optimism that the person will be helped and will feel better if it seems appropriate and genuine during which step of suicide prevention?
CARE
125
During which step in suicide prevention will you adopt an attitude that you are going to help the person, and that this will save his or her life?
ESCORT
126
During which step of suicide prevention should you escort the person to the nearest emergency room, HCP, or mental healthcare professional?
ESCORT
127
If you ask a person "Are you thinking about killing yourself?" and they make a joke of the question, what should you do?
o lead into this question with a statement of your observations
128
If a person tacitly indicates he/she has had thoughts of suicide, what information should you get on how bad the situation is?
a) How? - Does he/she have a plan? Is the plan specific? Does he/she possess the means (pills, gun, etc.)? Are the means lethal? If there is a plan, does the person express or imply an intention to actually go through with it? (b) Situation? - Is he/she alone (if communication is by phone or e-mail)? Have they been drinking? (c) History? - Prior attempts? Hospitalizations? Any family history of suicidal behaviors?
129
Who can you contact to acquire contact information for specific sources of help for suicide prevention?
Regional Work-Life Office
130
Which form of birth control is both reversible and can be used as emergency contraception?
IUD
131
Which form of birth control is included in tier 1 for effectiveness?
Female sterilization and implants
132
STDs can be passed from one person to another _____, though this is not very common.
intimate physical contact like heavy petting
133
Most people do not have any symptoms when they have which STD?
HPV, trichomoniasis
134
Which is the most reliable way to avoid STD infection?
Abstinance
135
Which personnel are required to develop Personal Fitness Plans?
AD and SELRES
136
Who do your submit your completed Personal Fitness Plan to?
SUPERVISOR
137
When must your completed Personal Fitness Plan be submitted?
APRIL and OCTOBER
138
The most current Personal Fitness Plan must be kept on file or electronically saved by _____.
Member and Supervisor
139
Physical fitness guidelines for general health as set forth by the CDC include what amount of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week?
2.5 hours
140
Physical fitness guidelines for general health as set forth by the CDC include muscle-strengthening activities for a minimum of how many days per week?
2 or more days
141
All active duty members must engage in fitness activity as outlined in their Personal Fitness Plan a minimum of _____ per week.
180min
142
It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include _____ minutes per week of cardiorespiratory activity.
150min
143
It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include _____ minutes per week of strength training.
30 min
144
Because the effects of physical activity are cumulative, exercise sessions may vary in length, with a minimum of _____ minutes, in order to be beneficial.
10 min
145
In general, physical activity sessions should be spread out over at least how many days per week?
3 days
146
Physical activity should produce a training effect, as measured by a _____ level of intensity.
medium to vigorous
147
According to the CDC, adults should perform 150 minutes per week of aerobic activity at what level of intensity?
Moderate intensity
148
What is the form number for the Personal Fitness Plan?
Form CG-6049
149
Coast Guard operations are inherently complex, dynamic, dangerous, and by nature, involve _____.
the acceptance of some level of risk
150
What is a critical human factor that will increase the potential for error-induced mishaps if not managed?
mission analysis, leadership, adaptability and flexibility, situational awareness, decision making, communication, and assertiveness
151
Deliberate use of the Risk Management process _____ by reducing member exposure to hazards.
increases mission success
152
The potential gains of conducting the activity or mission must justify, or warrant, the _____.
expected risk exposure
153
What provides a framework to identify and assess hazards, evaluate the risk level, and weigh the risk against the potential benefits?
Risk Management
154
What initial deliberate analysis is updated prior to any mission activity throughout the day to satisfy the time-critical risk management requirement, and expedite response actions?
GAR 2.0
155
When is Risk Management (RM) most effective?
hazards are identified early and there is ample time to evaluate and implement mitigations and controls to reduce risk exposure
156
Since all Coast Guard missions and operating environments are fluid and dynamic, the Risk Management process is _____.
continuous and dynamic process that commences when a planned operation or activity is envisioned or when an unplanned operation or activity begins
157
Where are the steps of Risk Management (RM) described?
Risk Management Fundamentals
158
What are units encouraged to use to conduct “what can go wrong” analyses on an as-needed-basis, when new missions/activities are introduced to the unit?
RISK ASSESSMENT MATRIX (RAM)
159
What is a function of physiological and psychological factors that support the ability of crewmembers to perform safely and effectively?
Crew Endurance
160
Additional elements can be added to GAR 2.0 risk to _____.
address unique operational realities
161
Which is a model used to identify hazards and explore mitigation strategies during risk assessments?
STAAR
162
_____ is defined as the possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard.
RISK
163
_____ is defined as a process to identify, assess, control, mitigate and manage hazards associated with an operation or activity.
RISK management
164
How many actions are there in the Assess Hazards step in the Risk Management (RM) process?
3
165
Which is an action taken during the first step in the Risk Management (RM) process?
Identify hazards: Action 1 - Mission/Task Analysis., Action 2 - What Can Go Wrong Analysis., Action 2 - What Can Go Wrong Analysis.
166
What are captured in GAR 2.0 to make warranted risk decisions?
PEACE and STAAR
167
At a minimum, units must include all elements of which model in their GAR 2.0?
PEACE
168
What model outlines potential strategies to mitigate and/or control risk?
STAAR
169
Which models, when used in tandem, generate the necessary information to establish a shared mental model up and down the chain of command, assist in decision making, and encourage robust risk management?
PEACE and STAAR
170
Which models can also be applied to activities outside the workplace that are often spontaneous and dynamic?
PEACE and STAAR
171
What shall all units use to conduct a real-time risk assessment prior to engaging in operations or activities that expose personnel to hazards?
GAR 2.0
172
Who determines whether a particular use of a government motor vehicle is for official purposes?
unit commander, commanding officer, or officer-incharge within applicable law and regulations
173
When are CG owned motor vehicles authorized to transport spouses and dependents?
workplace to an official function to which the spouse and dependents were invited and the employee is participating in an official capacity.
174
Which of the following would be an authorized use of a CG owned motor vehicle?
official prposes, official travel , mil recruits, ceremonies
175
Which of the following would be an authorized use of a CG owned motor vehicle?
official prposes, official travel , mil recruits ceremonies
176
Transportation of a member's dependent would be authorized in a CG owned motor vehicle in which case?
workplace to an official function to which the spouse and dependents were invited and the employee is participating in an official capacity.
177
Only Government employees that possess a _____ state, territorial, or District of Columbia driver license are permitted to operate a motor vehicle.
current and unrestricted
178
To reduce the potential for traffic mishaps caused by operator fatigue, commands must identify hazards and reduce risks when assigning long-distance driving duties to personnel who have been on-duty within the previous _____ hours.
8
179
To reduce the potential for traffic mishaps caused by operator fatigue, members must not exceed _____ hours of combined duty-hours and driving hours.
14
180
Which form is used to report accidents involving a government motor vehicle?
SF91
181
Personnel convicted of a serious moving violation while operating a GMV, must _____.
Driver Improvement course
182
What term is defined as the process (or steps) involved in managing one's personal finances, including income, expenses, and investments, for an individual or family?
Personal Financial Management
183
The definition of which term includes prudent day-to-day management of personal finances?
. Personal Financial Readiness
184
What term is defined as the act of evaluating an individual's or family's income and expenditures and recommending short and long-term actions to achieve financial goals and ensure individual, family and mission readiness?
Financial Planning and Counseling
185
The Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP) consists of how many elements?
7
186
Which of the following is an element of the Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP)?
EDUCATION and TRAINING, COUNSELING, CFS program, OUTREACH, COLLAB and COORDINATION, CG SUPRT PFR program
187
Commands with at least _____ personnel assigned, must have a trained Command Financial Specialist (CFS).
25
188
What is the early withdraw penalty tax for the Thrift Saving Plan?
10% tax penalty
189
The compliance tab in CGBI is broken down into _____ categories, based on level of compliance.
3
190
What will you need to do if your preferred email address is not listed as an option when signing up for email notifications in CGBI?
Update your info in DA
191
If your personal readiness data in CGBI need corrections, select the _____ icon in the top-right corner of the "Skills" Tab.
Get More Infor button top right corner, then click Help Me Correct Data
192
What is a purpose of the EES?
a. To set standards by which to evaluate the performance and behavior of all enlisted members. b. To inform enlisted members of the performance standards they will be measured against. c. To provide a means by which enlisted members can receive feedback on how well they are measuring up to the standards. d. To capture a valid, reliable assessment of enlisted members’ performance so the Coast Guard may advance and assign members with a high degree of confidence. e. To provide the Coast Guard with a tool to support a wide variety of human resource decisions including discharges, reenlistments, conduct determination, advancement eligibility, assignments and reductions in rate. f. To provide members’ of boards and panels with the necessary information to make selections and decisions based on enlisted members observed performance and potential.
193
Which of the functions is the evaluee's responsibility within the EES?
Familiarization, Performance, Eval input, Acknowledgement, Verification
194
Which of the functions is the evaluee's responsibility within the EES?
Familiarization, Performance, Eval input, Acknowledgement, Verification
195
The _____ comprised of designated members who execute the enlisted evaluation report process for enlisted members.
The Rating Chain
196
Which of the following is a factor type of performance within the EES?
Military
197
Which of the following is a factor type of performance within the EES?
performance
198
Which of the following is a factor type of performance within the EES?
Professional Qualities.
199
Which of the following is a factor type of performance within the EES?
Leadership
200
A new period of eligibility for the Good Conduct award begins _____.
day after the effective date of the EER in which an unsatisfactory conduct mark was awarded
201
The recommendation for advancement portion on the evaluation report _____.
may not be appealed to an appeal authority
202
Who is normally the appeal authority for an EER?
thee first flag officer in the evaluee’s chain of command.
203
What is the definition given in the Recruit Training Master Pamphlet for effective communication?
An effective communicator is successful in establishing an active two-way link with another individual or group.
204
What are the types of common barriers to effective communication?
External and perceptual
205
How can you overcome the common barriers to effective communication?
Practice active listening to overcome barriers to communication
206
What is a means to test understanding of a message for effective communication?
Parroting, Paraphrasing, and clarifying
207
What is a means to test understanding of a message for effective communication?
Parroting, Paraphrasing, and clarifying
208
What is a means to test understanding of a message for effective communication?
Parroting, Paraphrasing, and clarifying
209
What is one type of listening for effective communication?
Inactactive, selective, active and reflective
210
What is a reason for feedback in effective communication?
achieve personal browth, gain insight in themselves, allows for sharing of Ideas, helps prepare for the future by not dwelling on the past
211
For effective communication, what is a basic rule to follow for giving feedback?
be specific and to the point, focus on the behavior of the person and not the person, direct feedback to changeable behavior only, must be solicited, must be timely, check for understanding
212
For effective communication, what is a basic rule to follow for receiving feedback?
be open minded and receptive, ask for relevant examples, summarize to ensure understanding, say thank you feedback is a gift
213
How do you access and view your payslip?
DA-> Member Self Service-> AD/RSV Payslip -> payment date
214
What dependent information in the payslip is important for eligibility to receive benefits?
date of birth
215
Which block of the payslip contains a member's basic pay?
Middle Section
216
What information can be found in the tax data section of they payslip?
All current and year to date (YTD) wages and taxes are shown that appear on a W2, Leave
217
In which section of your payslip can you validate whether or not you are receiving the correct pay and/or allowances?
Middle Section
218
Which information can be found in the bottom section of the payslip?
Remarks: sea time you have accumulated as well as TSP and debt information
219
What information is found in the Net Pay Distribution block of the payslip?
Account number and total amount deposited
220
Which section of the payslip will show information unique to each member?
Remarks: sea time you have accumulated as well as TSP and debt information
221
Onboard ship salutes shall be dispensed with after the first daily meeting with what exception?
Commanding Officer,Officers senior to the commanding officer, visiting officers, officers making inspections, when addressing or being addressed by them
222
You must render salutes to which of the following?
officers of any us armed force and NOAA, public health cervice foreign officers , ensign,
223
If in a motor vehicle during the National Anthem and conditions permit, the senior person should _____.
get out stand at attention and salute
224
If in a motor vehicle during the National Anthem, the driver shall _____.
stop the vehicle
225
When are salutes rendered by persons in motor vehicles?
only passengers
226
When in uniform at a parade, if the flag passes you, you shall _____.
shall salute
227
When in civilian attire at a parade, when the flag passes you shall _____.
face flag stand at attention and place right hand over heart
228
The Code of Conduct is an ethical guide for members of the Armed Forces that has _____ articles.
6
229
All members of the Armed Forces of the United States are expected to measure up to the standards embodied in the Code of Conduct _____.
while in combat or in captivity.
230
Which of the following would be a prohibited political activity for a member of the Armed Forces?
231
Which of the following would be a prohibited political activity for a member of the Armed Forces?
232
Which of the following would be a prohibited political activity for a member of the Armed Forces?
233
Which of the following would be a prohibited political activity for a member of the Armed Forces?
234
Which of the following would be a prohibited political activity for a member of the Armed Forces?
235
The National Terrorism Advisory System (NTAS) consists of how many types of advisories?
2 -Bulletins and Alerts
236
Which FPCON applies when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists?
Bravo
237
Which FPCON requires the movement of cars and objects at least 25 meters from buildings?
bravo
238
Which FPCON applies when a general threat of possible terrorist activity exists but warrants only routine security posture?
Alpha
239
Which FPCON requires that the implemented security measures must be capable of being maintained indefinitely?
Alpha
240
Which FPCON requires weapons to be issued to guards?
charlie
241
Which Type I PFD provides greater mobility when the use of law enforcement or other types of gear are required?
Stearns Model I600 Type I PFD
242
Boat characteristics include which two types of frames?
longitudinal and transverse
243
Members with a PFB waiver will trim facial hair as to not to exceed what length?
1/4"
244
Which grooming standard applies to moustaches?
Will not extend below the top of the upper lip or beyond the corners of the mouth. If worn, a moustache must be neatly
groomed
245
Who can grant a permanent shaving waiver for personnel who are diagnosed with Pseudofolliculitis Barbae (PFB)?
commanding officers or Officers-InCharge
246
The USCG celebrates its birthday on _____ of each year.
August 4th 1790
247
The Revenue Cutter Service began with _____ cutters at a cost of $1000 each.
10
248
In 1838, Congress enacted legislation in response to steamboat boiler explosions that would evolve over the next several decades into what agency?
Steamboat Inspection Service
249
The first time that a federal agency was specifically tasked with looking for people in danger was in _____ when the Revenue Cutter Gallatin was ordered to patrol the coast.
1831
250
The United States Coast Guard was formed when the Revenue Cutter Service and Life-Saving Service were merged on what date?
January 28th 1915
251
When was the United States Coast Guard transferred to Department of Transportation?
April 14th 1967
252
When was the United States Coast Guard transferred to the Department of Homeland Security?
MARch 1st 2003
253
Alexander Hamilton was appointed to be the first _____.
Secretary or the Treasury
254
Who was the Coast Guard's first aviator?
LT Elmer Stone
255
Who was the first Commandant of the United States Coast Guard?
Ellsworth Price Bertholf
256
On June 19, 1911, Ellsworth Price Bertholf was named Captain Commandant of the _____.
United States Revenue Cutter Service
257
Who was awarded the Medal of Honor for evacuating a battalion of Marines trapped by Japanese forces on September 27, 1942?
Douglas Munro
258
Where did SM1 Douglas Munro aid a battalion of Marines during landing and rescue?
Point Cruz, Guadalcanal
259
SM1 Douglas Munro was in charge of 24 Higgins boats during an amphibious invasion at Point Cruz, _____.
Douglas Munro
260
What vessel is credited with firing the first naval shot of the Civil War?
US Revenue Cutter HARRIET LANE
261
The USCGC TAMPA was sunk by _____ during World War I.
German U-boat September 26, 1918,
262
An explosion that killed more than 1,600 people in Nova Scotia led Congress to establish _____ duties for the United States Coast Guard.
Captain of the Port
263
Captain of the Port duties were assigned to the United States Coast Guard during which military conflict?
WW1
264
During World War I, how many USCG cutters went overseas to perform convoy escort duty between Gibraltar and Great Britain?
6
265
During World War II, which Coast Guard officer led a 16 member unit of his special task force on a raid to a German arsenal in Cherbourg, France?
Captain Quentin R. Walsh
266
Which Coast Guard officer was awarded the Navy Cross for heroic actions during the liberation of 50 American paratroopers who had been prisoners since D-Day.
Captain Quentin R. Walsh
267
During Vietnam, the United States Coast Guard conducted _____, which patrolled the South Vietnamese coast to stop the flow of war materials and personnel from going to the Viet Cong.
Operation Market Time
268
During Vietnam, how many Point Class patrol boats from the Coast Guard were sent to Vietnam to support maritime interdiction operations?
26
269
Where did Coast Guard Port Security Units deploy in 1990-1991?
Persian Gulf
270
The United States Coast Guard were among the first to respond to the attack on the World Trade Center on _____.
September 11 2001
271
In which year did the United States Coast Guard conducted the largest domestic SAR mission in United States history following Hurrican Katrina?
2005
272
The United States Coast Guard mobilized more than 2,700 reservists in the largest homeland security operation since World War II, following _____.
september 11th 2001
273
In 2010, United States Coast Guard reserves were activated in response to the Deepwater Horizon oil rig explosion that forcefully pumped oil and gasses into Gulf waters for _____ days.
87
274
DC3 Nathan Bruckenthal was posthumously awarded which award for his actions on 24 April 2004?
Bronze Star
275
Who served as a boarding officer on the USS FIREBOLT (PC 10) in Iraq when he was mortally wounded?
DC3 Nathan Bruckenthal,
276
How many times has the National Ensign been changed since 1776?
26
277
The Coast Guard Ensign consists of _____ perpendicular stripes, alternating red and white.
16
278
The _____ is displayed as a mark of authority for boardings, examinations, and seizure of vessels for the purpose of enforcing U.S. laws.
Coast Guard ensign
279
The _____ provided a symbol of authority on Revenue Cutters, as neither officer nor crew had uniforms.
Coast Guard ensign
280
The _____ was created to fly in place of the national flag while in American waters.
Coast Guard ensign
281
On 1 August 1799, Secretary of the Treasury, Oliver Wolcott, issued an order specifying the design of the _____.
ensign and pennant
282
During parades and ceremonies, the Coast Guard Standard is adorned with _____.
43 battle streamers
283
The design of the _____ is obscure, but it may have evolved from an early jack.
Coast Guard standard
284
The _____ is the upper left corner of the Coast Guard Ensign.
Coast Guard standard
285
This flag is used during parades and ceremonies.
Coast Guard standard
286
What is carried in all ceremonies representing heroic actions in all naval encounters from 1798 to the present?
Battle Streamers
287
Battle streamers are attached to the _____, replacing cords and tassels.
Coast Guard standard
288
Individual units may only display those _____ that they have earned.
Battle Streamers
289
Only _____ may display a complete set of battle streamers.
major headquarters commands
290
The United States Coast Guard adopted battle streamers in 1968, following the practice established by the _____.
USMC
291
The United States Coast Guard is authorized a total of _____ battle streamers.
43
292
The _____ is flown on the bow of a vessel, only while at anchor or moored in port.
Union Jack
293
The _____ is flown on the jackstaff, which is located on the bow of a vessel.
Union Jack
294
The _____ is the canton of the United States Flag.
Union Jack
295
The presence of the _____ indicates that a cutter is under the command of a commissioned officer.
commissioning pennant
296
The _____ is used on invitations, programs, certificates, diplomas, and greetings.
CG seal
297
The _____ is used on official documents and records of the Coast Guard.
CG seal
298
The first Coast Guard Seal and Emblem were approved by Treasury Secretary Andrew W. Mellon in _____.
1927
299
The Coast Guard _____ was ordered to be used on the Coast Guard Ensign as a distinctive logo in 1957.
CG emblem
300
The historical significance of the Coast Guard _____ dates back to the Revenue Cutter Service.
CG shield
301
The _____ consists of a wide red bar forward of a narrow blue bar both canted at 64 degrees on the bow with CG emblem superimposed.
CG stripe
302
The _____ was developed in the 1960s by the industrial design firm Raymond Loewy/Williams Snaith, Inc.
CG stripe
303
Semper Paratus is the Latin word meaning: _____.
Always ready
304
When was the Coast Guard Motto adopted?
October 1896 and May 1897
305
The earliest recorded use of the phrase “Semper Paratus” appeared in a newspaper article in the city of _____, praising the Revenue Cutter Ingham.
New Orleans
306
What language did Semper Paratus originate from?
Latin
307
The music for Semper Paratus was written by _____.
Captain Francis Saltus Van Boskerck
308
What is a Safety Data Sheet (SDS)?
detailed informational document prepared by a manufacturer or importer of a hazardous chemical. The manufacturer describes the physical and chemical properties of the product
309
What must be readily accessible to all workers while in their work area, when workers are required to use HAZMAT or when workers are at risk of exposure to HAZMAT?
SDS
310
If the SDS is not available, who must the unit notify to obtain the SDS?
notify the manufacturer that a SDS is needed and obtain the SDS from the manufacturer prior to use of the HAZMAT
311
The standard GHS format for a safety data sheet includes _____ sections, in a specified order.
16
312
Specific hazard information may not be present on a chemical container. As a result, you must consult the _____ to prevent improper use or handling.
SDS
313
GHS provides a standard for the content, layout, and presentation of _____.
hazard information on labels and SDSs
314
What is the Active and Reserve Gold Badge assignment standard tour length?
2 years
315
Who must provide the Commander/Commanding Officer endorsement for all CSELs except the MCPOCG and MCPO-CGR?
e first O-6 (or higher)
316
What program is intended to assist you in becoming familiar with your new community and the resources available when you are reassigned?
Relocation assistance program
317
Who can provide you with community information, demographics information, relocation packages, and state information when you are reassigned?
Transition/relocation managers
318
Transition/Relocation Managers may provide _____ with local resource information.
Welcome passages
319
How should you contact your Transition/Relocation Manager?
contact TRM at your new unit
320
Your _____ can help you utilize the Office of Work-Life Adoption Reimbursement Program.
Regional Family resource manager
321
Who is your point of contact for information relating to the Coast Guard Scholarship Program?
Family Resource Specialist (FRS) on your Regional Work-Life Staff
322
What form is used to enroll my dependent family member with medical special needs into the Special Needs Program (SNP)?
DD form 2792
323
What is the title for staff members at Health, Safety, and Work-Life Regional Practices specifically trained to assist individuals and commands when maltreatment incidents occur?
Family Advocacy Specialist
324
One purpose of the Family Advocacy Program is to _____.
addresses prevention, identification, reporting, investigation, and treatment of intimate partner and child maltreatment
325
One purpose of the _____ is prevention, identification, reporting, investigation, and treatment of intimate partner and child maltreatment.
Family Advocacy Program
326
CGSUPRT is part of HSWL’s _____.
Employee assistance program
327
Members can call _____ 24 hours a day, 365 days a year, to speak with an experienced and highly trained counselor.
CG Suprt
328
The _____ has been designed to capture a valid, reliable assessment of enlisted members’ performance, so the Coast Guard can advance and assign them with a high degree of confidence.
Enlisted Evaluation System
329
The _____ has been designed to inform enlisted members of the performance standards against which they are measured.
Enlisted Evaluation System
330
The _____ has been designed to provide a means by which each enlisted member can receive feedback on how well the member is measuring up to the standards.
Enlisted Evaluation System
331
The _____ has been designed to provide information about discharges, re-enlistments, good conduct, advancement eligibility, and reductions in pay grade.
Enlisted Evaluation System
332
The _____ has been designed to set standards by which to evaluate the performance and behavior of each enlisted member.
Enlisted Evaluation System
333
The end of marking periods for pay grade E-1 is the last day of which months?
January and July
334
The end of marking periods for pay grade E-2 is the last day of which months?
January and July
335
The end of marking periods for pay grade E-3 is the last day of which months?
February and August
336
The end of marking periods for pay grade E-4 is the last day of which months?
March and September
337
The end of marking periods for pay grade E-5 is the last day of which months?
APRIL and OCTOBER
338
The evaluee must perform which of the following functions within the EES?
Familiarization, Performance, Eval input, Acknowledgement, Verification
339
When do you need to need to provide evaluation input for your EER?
14 days prior to the end of the marking period
340
What is done with the completed original EER counseling sheet?
given to the evaluee
341
Your signature on the member's signature block of the EER counseling sheet indicates acknowledgement of _____.
The counseling and review of their evaluation report; The impact of their evaluation report on their Good Conduct eligibility; The appeal time frame; and Their advancement potential and recommendation
342
The Marking Official should route the completed evaluation report to the approving official no later than ____ days after the evaluation report period ending date.
5 days
343
The _____ is responsible for ensuring your evaluation is based on how you performed in each performance dimension consistently through the period.
Rating chain
344
What competency within a performance assessment must be adhered to every day of the marking period?
conduct
345
What are the individual elements located under each factor type on which the Coast Guard evaluates its enlisted members called?
competency
346
How many major categories of performance are there in the EES?
4
347
Which factor type in the EER measures the member's ability to bring credit to the Coast Guard through personal demeanor and professional actions?
Military
348
Which factor type in the EER measures a member's ability to direct, guide, develop, influence, and support others performing work?
Leadership
349
Performance Standards are the written criteria that outlines the expected performance to receive a mark of _____ in each competency.
2, 4, or 6
350
If a member receives an unsatisfactory conduct mark on their EER, it will negatively impact their _____.
advancement
351
Appeals to the approving official's decision on the advancement recommendation _____.
may not be appealed to an appeal authority
352
What are the possible choices for advancement recommendations?
Ready, not ready, not recommended
353
What must occur when a member does not receive an advancement recommendation?
Unsatisfactory Conduct Mark
354
The appeals process is designed to review marks the evaluee believes were based on which of the following?
Incorrect information; Prejudice; Discrimination; or Disproportionately low marks for the particular circumstances
355
What must be contained in an appeal letter for an EER?
e specific competencies in dispute and supporting information indicating why the marks should be reviewed, signed evaluation report counseling sheet as the
first enclosure and other enclosures pertinent to the assigned marks, Supporting information must include specific examples
356
What responsibility does the member have in the EER appeal process?
Request an Audience with rating shain before sumbmitting an appeal, Written Appeal, Appeal Letter
357
As a result of an EER appeal, what actions may an approving official take?
raise or leave unchanged the member’s marks, but may not lower any marks an approving official assigned.
358
What is the deadline for active duty members to submit an appeal for their EER?
15 for AD
359
What is the deadline for reservists to submit an appeal for their marks?
45
360
What are EER forms CG-3788A-G used for?
Enlisted Evaluation Report Form specific to each paygrade
361
The Discipline and Conduct manual stipulates that coercing or encouraging another member to fully or partially disrobe is an example of _____.
Hazing
362
Hazing can include which of the following?
(1) Playing abusive or mean-spirited tricks intended to ridicule, humiliate, or ostracize, (2) Throwing personnel over the side from a ship or pier, (3) Tacking on crows or other devices by forcibly applying them to a member’s clothes or body, (4) Forcing or encouraging the consumption of substances not normally prepared or suitable for consumption, (5) Group wrestling matches targeting a particular member, (6) Encouraging a member to consume excessive amounts of alcohol or requiring the consumption of alcohol in any amount, (7) Subjecting to excessive or abusive use of water, (8) Forcibly cutting or shaving hair, (9) Branding, tattooing, or painting another, (10) Coercing or encouraging another member to fully or partially disrobe, (11) Taping, tying, or otherwise restraining a member’s arms, legs, or mouth, (12) Handcuffing or otherwise securing a member to a fixed object or another member(s), (13) Using law enforcement restraints or techniques on another member in other than an official capacity or a bona fide training session, (14) Placing or pouring foreign substances or liquids on another member, (15) Touching in an offensive manner, (16) Striking, or slapping another member, (17) Threatening or offering violence or bodily harm to another, or (18) Oral or written berating of another for the purpose of belittling or humiliating.
363
Which directive requires a commanding officer to "prohibit unit introductory initiations or hazing of personnel"?
COMDTINST M5000.3 (series)
364
Which is true of hazing?
need not involve physical contact among or between members; it can be verbal or psychological in nature
365
Subjecting an individual military member to harassment or ridicule for the purposes of “inclusion" is defined as _____.
hazing
366
Which is true of hazing and bullying?
erodes mission readiness and will not be tolerated, unacceptable and are prohibited in all circumstances and environments, can be conducted
through the use of electronic devices or communications
367
If a person knowingly and voluntarily submits to hazing, ____.
may be held accountable as well
368
Which of the following would be an example of an appropriate relationship?
do not ) Jeopardize the members' impartiality,
(2) Undermine the respect for authority inherent in a member's rank or position,
(3) Result in members improperly using the relationship for personal gain or favor, or
(4) Violate a punitive Article of reference (a), Uniform Code of Military Justice, 10 U.S.C. § 801
– 946 (as amended), or
(5) Violate any lawful order, regulation or policy regarding inappropriate and prohibited
relationships, communications, conduct or contact established by competent military
authority.
369
An interpersonal relationship in a professional work environment would be prohibited in what case?
) Jeopardize the members' impartiality, (2) Undermine the respect for authority inherent in a member's rank or position, (3) Result in members improperly using the relationship for personal gain or favor, or (4) Violate a punitive Article of reference (a), Uniform Code of Military Justice, 10 U.S.C. § 801 – 946 (as amended), or (5) Violate any lawful order, regulation or policy regarding inappropriate and prohibited relationships, communications, conduct or contact established by competent military authority.
370
Which of the following is an example of unacceptable conduct?
371
Which would be an acceptable romantic relationship?
1. Peers: (Very similar in rank or position, e.g., officers; CPOs; POs; non-rated personnel; etc.)
2. Military and Civilian CG employee
372
Officer instructors at officer entry level accession programs engaging in a romantic relationship with an individual who has graduated from, or who last attended, an entry level accession program within the preceding 365 days _____.
is prohibited
373
Enlisted instructors at enlisted entry level accession programs engaging in a romantic relationship with an individual who has graduated from, or who last attended, an entry level accession program within the preceding _____ is prohibited.
365 days
374
Engaging in sexually intimate behavior in which of the following situations would be prohibited?
aboard any Coast Guard vessel, or in any Coast Guard-controlled work place
375
Which of the following would be a prohibited relationship?
Officer (including cadets and officer candidates) and Enlisted
376
A romantic relationship involving a former recruiter and a prospective member are prohibited until what point?
365 days after last contact
377
Violating policy on limited personal use of government office equipment and services is punishable under which article of the UCMJ?
378
Which of the following is an example of prohibited use of government office equipment?
Looking at porn, creating discrimantory stuff, loading un authorized software, purposefully making unauthorized configuration, hacking, Deliberate introduction of viruses, worms, or other malicious software, knowingly creating, copying, or transmitting SPAM, PHISHING,
chain letters, or any unofficial mass mailings, downloading (movies, music, books, etc.)Misuse of sensitive information, cnnecting person it equp to network
379
Which of the following is an example of inappropriate use of government office equipment?
(1) Using a Coast Guard e-mail address (e.g. First.M.Last@uscg.mil) for subscribing to anything other than official, professional, or job-related websites; (2) Engaging in any fundraising activity not sanctioned by the Coast Guard, endorsing any non-Federal Government organization or service, and engaging in any political activity; (3) Using government office equipment or services for commercial purposes to support a private or personal business, including assisting relatives, friends, or other persons in such activities. Examples of this prohibition include, but are not limited to, employees using a government computer and Internet connection to run a travel business, investment, or consultant service; (4) Using government office equipment or services for private, non-profit, noncommercial business or activities. Examples of this prohibition include, but are not limited to, organizing charity event participation and soliciting volunteers for nonCoast Guard sanctioned activities; and, (5) Use of government office phones, cellular, or Smartphone devices that could incur unnecessary government expenses
380
What is the dollar value limit placed on gifts given to an official superior on an occasional basis?
$20 or less per occasion, aggregating no more than $50 in a calendar year from any one source
AMT Jeopardy
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