Anatomy PTD 500 > ANATOMY FINAL > Flashcards

ANATOMY FINAL Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the 3 parts of the sternum?

A

Manubrium, body, xiphoid process

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2
Q

What is the sternal angle?

A

Ridge between manubrium and body of sternum; marks T4/T5 and rib 2 attachment; also called angle of Louis

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3
Q

What are true ribs?

A

Ribs 1-7; vertebrosternal ribs whose costal cartilages attach directly to sternum

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4
Q

What are false ribs?

A

Ribs 8-10; vertebrochondral ribs whose cartilage connects to costal cartilage superior to it

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5
Q

What are floating ribs?

A

Ribs 11-12; no sternal connection, blend with abdominal musculature

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6
Q

Which ribs are typical and what are their features?

A

Ribs 3-9; have head (2 facets), neck, tubercle, body with costal angle and costal groove

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7
Q

What is the VAN order in intercostal spaces?

A

Vein, Artery, Nerve from superior to inferior in costal groove

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8
Q

Why is VAN clinically important?

A

Insert needles/chest tubes above rib to avoid neurovascular bundle in costal groove below

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9
Q

What are the 3 apertures of the diaphragm?

A

Caval opening (IVC, T8), Esophageal hiatus (esophagus/vagus, T10), Aortic hiatus (aorta/thoracic duct, T12)

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10
Q

What innervates the diaphragm?

A

Phrenic nerve (C3, 4, 5 keeps the diaphragm alive)

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11
Q

What provides blood supply to the diaphragm?

A

Superior/inferior phrenic arteries, musculophrenic arteries, pericardiacophrenic arteries

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12
Q

What muscles elevate ribs during inspiration?

A

External intercostals, diaphragm (main muscle)

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13
Q

What muscles depress ribs during expiration?

A

Internal intercostals, innermost intercostals (forced expiration)

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14
Q

Where do anterior intercostal arteries come from?

A

Internal thoracic artery and musculophrenic artery

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15
Q

Where do posterior intercostal arteries come from?

A

Thoracic aorta (spaces 3-11); supreme intercostal artery (spaces 1-2)

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16
Q

What are the 7 structures in the right atrium?

A

Sinus venarum, fossa ovalis, valve of coronary sinus, right auricle, pectinate muscle, crista terminalis, tricuspid valve

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17
Q

What is the fossa ovalis?

A

Remnant of foramen ovale; thumbprint depression in interatrial septum

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18
Q

What is the crista terminalis?

A

Ridge separating pectinate muscle from smooth sinus venarum; important for conduction

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19
Q

What are the structures in the right ventricle?

A

Chordae tendineae, papillary muscles (3), trabeculae carneae, septomarginal trabecula, conus arteriosus, pulmonary valve

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20
Q

What is the septomarginal trabecula?

A

Moderator band; spans from interventricular septum to anterior papillary muscle; carries conduction signals to RV

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21
Q

What are the 3 papillary muscles in RV?

A

Anterior, septal, posterior

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22
Q

How many cusps does the tricuspid valve have?

A

3 leaflets

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23
Q

What structures are in the left ventricle?

A

Bicuspid/mitral valve, 2 papillary muscles (anterior/posterior), chordae tendineae, trabeculae carneae, aortic valve

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24
Q

How many cusps does the mitral valve have?

A

2 leaflets

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25
What are the 3 cusps of the aortic valve?
Right, posterior, left (right and left have openings for coronary arteries)
26
What is the lub sound in cardiac auscultation?
Closing of AV valves during systole (ventricular contraction)
27
What is the dub sound in cardiac auscultation?
Closing of semilunar valves during diastole (ventricular relaxation)
28
What does the right coronary artery give off?
SA nodal branch (60%), right marginal branch, posterior interventricular branch (PDA in 70%)
29
What does the left coronary artery divide into?
Left anterior descending (LAD) and circumflex artery
30
Why is the LAD called the widow maker?
Supplies anterior LV and anterior 2/3 of septum; occlusion is often fatal
31
What does the circumflex artery supply?
Left atrium, lateral/posterior LV; supplies SA node in 40% of people
32
Where does cardiac venous blood drain?
Great, middle, and small cardiac veins → coronary sinus → right atrium
33
What are the 5 steps of cardiac conduction?
SA node → AV node → AV bundle (Bundle of His) → right/left bundle branches → Purkinje fibers
34
What is the SA node?
Pacemaker of heart; ~80 bpm; located in right atrium
35
Where is the AV node located?
Between atria and ventricles; ~40-60 bpm
36
What is cardiac output equation?
CO = HR × SV (stroke volume)
37
What is normal cardiac output?
4-6 L/min
38
What 3 factors influence stroke volume?
Contractility, preload, afterload
39
Define preload
Amount of stretch on ventricles by contained blood when filling
40
Define afterload
Resistance the left ventricle must overcome to eject blood
41
What is parietal peritoneum?
Lines deep surface of abdominopelvic wall (pain sensitive)
42
What is visceral peritoneum?
Lines the viscera (not pain sensitive)
43
Define intraperitoneal
Viscera completely enclosed in visceral peritoneum (mobile)
44
Define retroperitoneal
Viscera between parietal peritoneum and posterior abdominal wall (fixed)
45
What organs are intraperitoneal?
Stomach, spleen, liver, jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, sigmoid colon
46
What organs are retroperitoneal (SAD PUCKER)?
Suprarenal glands, Aorta/IVC, Duodenum (2-4), Pancreas, Ureters, Colon (ascending/descending), Kidneys, Esophagus, Rectum
47
What is the greater omentum?
4-layered fatty apron from greater curvature of stomach to transverse colon; contains vasculature
48
What is the falciform ligament?
Fold of peritoneum attaching liver to anterior abdominal wall; divides liver into right and left lobes
49
What is the round ligament of the liver?
Remnant of umbilical vein; at inferior surface of falciform ligament
50
What forms the hepatic portal vein?
Superior mesenteric vein + splenic vein
51
What does the inferior mesenteric vein drain into?
Splenic vein
52
What are the 4 parts of the stomach?
Cardia (cardiac orifice/notch), fundus, body, pyloric part
53
What are the curvatures of the stomach?
Greater curvature (left/lateral) and lesser curvature (right/medial)
54
What are rugae?
Gastric folds on interior of stomach; more pronounced in pyloric region
55
What are the 3 parts of small intestine?
Duodenum, jejunum, ileum
56
What is unique about the duodenum?
C-shaped, mostly retroperitoneal, pancreas nestled in C-curve, 4 parts
57
What artery supplies the small intestine?
Superior mesenteric artery (SMA)
58
What are the parts of the large intestine?
Cecum, colon (ascending/transverse/descending/sigmoid), rectum, anal canal
59
What are the 3 characteristics of large intestine?
Teniae coli (3 bands), haustra (pouches), omental/epiploic appendices (fat tags)
60
What are the 2 colic flexures?
Right colic/hepatic flexure (between ascending and transverse), left colic/splenic flexure (between transverse and descending)
61
What is significant about left colic flexure?
Transition point from SMA to IMA blood supply
62
Where is the spleen located?
LUQ, ribs 9-11, at left colic flexure
63
What are the functions of the spleen?
Filters RBCs via macrophages, lymphatic/immune function, blood bank (stores RBCs/platelets)
64
What are the parts of the pancreas?
Uncinate process, head, neck, body, tail
65
What is the pancreas' exocrine function?
Secretes pancreatic juice to break down carbs/protein/lipids
66
What is the pancreas' endocrine function?
Islets of Langerhans produce glucagon and insulin
67
What are the lobes of the liver?
Right, left (separated by falciform), caudate, quadrate
68
What is the porta hepatis?
Location where structures enter/leave liver
69
What structures are in the porta hepatis?
Portal vein, hepatic artery, hepatic nerve plexus, hepatic ducts, lymphatics (portal triad)
70
What are the 3 unpaired branches of abdominal aorta?
Celiac trunk (T12), Superior mesenteric artery (L1), Inferior mesenteric artery (L3)
71
What does the celiac trunk supply?
Foregut: liver, pancreas, spleen, stomach, duodenum part 1
72
What are the 3 branches of celiac trunk?
Left gastric, splenic, common hepatic arteries
73
What does the SMA supply?
Midgut: duodenum 3-4, jejunum, ileum, appendix, ascending colon, proximal 2/3 transverse colon
74
What does the IMA supply?
Hindgut: distal 1/3 transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, upper rectum
75
Trace blood from celiac trunk to gallbladder
Celiac → common hepatic → proper hepatic → right hepatic → cystic artery → gallbladder
76
Trace blood from aorta to appendix
Aorta → SMA → ileocolic artery → appendicular artery → appendix
77
Why is the appendicular artery clinically significant?
End artery with no collateral circulation; occlusion causes appendiceal necrosis and rupture
78
What is the marginal artery of Drummond?
Anastomotic vessel along inner margin of entire colon; creates collateral circulation
79
What is Griffith's point?
Weakest point of marginal artery at splenic flexure; watershed area vulnerable to ischemia
80
What is the location of the kidneys?
Retroperitoneal, T12-L3, left kidney slightly more superior
81
Flow of urine
Collecting duct → Renal papilla → Minor calyx → Major calyx → Renal pelvis → Ureter → Bladder → Urethra
82
What enters/exits at the renal hilum?
Renal vein (out), renal artery (in), renal pelvis/ureter (urine out)
83
What does the suprarenal cortex secrete?
Corticosteroids (aldosterone, cortisol), androgens, estrogen
84
What does the suprarenal medulla secrete?
Catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine)
85
What is the axilla?
Pyramidal space between arm and thorax; passage for nerves/vessels to upper limb
86
What are the boundaries of the axilla?
Apex (1st rib, clavicle, scapula), base (skin/fascia), anterior wall (pec major/minor), posterior wall (subscapularis, lat dorsi, teres major), medial wall (serratus anterior, ribs), lateral wall (intertubercular groove of humerus)
87
What are the contents of the axilla?
Axillary artery, axillary vein, brachial plexus, lymph nodes, fat
88
What are the 5 roots of the brachial plexus?
C5-T1 ventral rami
89
What is Erb's point?
Where C5 and C6 unite to form superior trunk; injury causes Erb's palsy (waiter's tip)
90
What are the 3 trunks of brachial plexus?
Superior (C5-6), middle (C7), inferior (C8-T1)
91
What are the 3 cords of brachial plexus and their relation to axillary artery?
Lateral, posterior, medial (named by relation to 2nd part of axillary artery)
92
What nerve comes off the lateral cord?
Musculocutaneous nerve
93
What nerve comes off the posterior cord?
Axillary and radial nerves
94
What nerve comes off the medial cord?
Ulnar nerve
95
What forms the median nerve?
Lateral and medial cords unite
96
What muscles does the musculocutaneous nerve innervate?
Biceps brachii, coracobrachialis, brachialis (BBC)
97
What does the axillary nerve innervate?
Deltoid, teres minor; sensation over lateral shoulder
98
What is the clinical significance of axillary nerve injury?
Loss of shoulder abduction, sensory loss over lateral shoulder (from shoulder dislocation or surgical neck fracture)
99
What does the radial nerve innervate?
All posterior compartment muscles of arm and forearm (extensors); triceps, brachioradialis, wrist/finger extensors
100
What is wrist drop?
Radial nerve injury causes inability to extend wrist/fingers
101
What does the median nerve innervate?
Most anterior forearm flexors, thenar muscles (thumb opposition), lateral 2 lumbricals
102
What is carpal tunnel syndrome?
Compression of median nerve in carpal tunnel; causes thumb weakness and numbness in lateral 3.5 digits
103
What does the ulnar nerve innervate?
FCU, medial half of FDP, most intrinsic hand muscles (hypothenar, interossei, medial lumbricals)
104
What is claw hand?
Ulnar nerve injury causes hyperextension at MCP and flexion at IP joints of digits 4-5
105
What are the contents of the cubital fossa?
Lateral to medial: Radial nerve, Biceps tendon, Brachial artery, Median nerve (mnemonic: Really Need Beer To Be At My Nicest)
106
What are the borders of cubital fossa?
Superior: line between epicondyles, Lateral: brachioradialis, Medial: pronator teres, Floor: brachialis/supinator, Roof: skin and fascia
107
What is the scaphoid bone and why is it clinically significant?
Most commonly fractured carpal bone; poor blood supply (retrograde) leads to avascular necrosis; tenderness in anatomical snuffbox
108
What forms the carpal tunnel?
Floor: carpal bones, Roof: flexor retinaculum, Contents: 9 flexor tendons + median nerve
109
What are the thenar muscles?
Opponens pollicis, Abductor pollicis brevis, Flexor pollicis brevis (OAF); innervated by median nerve
110
What are the hypothenar muscles?
Opponens digiti minimi, Abductor digiti minimi, Flexor digiti minimi brevis; innervated by ulnar nerve
111
What is the function of lumbricals?
Flex MCP joints and extend IP joints
112
What is the function of interossei?
PAD and DAB: Palmar ADduct fingers, Dorsal ABduct fingers
113
What are the rotator cuff muscles?
Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres minor, Subscapularis (SITS)
114
What does supraspinatus do?
Initiates abduction (first 15°); most commonly torn
115
What does infraspinatus do?
External rotation of shoulder
116
What does teres minor do?
External rotation and adduction
117
What does subscapularis do?
Internal rotation of shoulder
118
What is the painful arc syndrome?
Supraspinatus tendon impingement under acromion during 60-120° abduction
119
What muscles make up the anterior compartment of arm?
Biceps brachii, brachialis, coracobrachialis
120
What is the function of biceps brachii?
Flexes elbow, supinates forearm
121
What is the function of brachialis?
Primary elbow flexor (strongest)
122
What muscles make up the posterior compartment of arm?
Triceps brachii (long/lateral/medial heads)
123
What is the function of triceps?
Extends elbow
124
What forms the anatomical snuffbox borders?
Lateral: APL and EPB tendons, Medial: EPL tendon, Floor: scaphoid and trapezium
125
What vessel crosses the anatomical snuffbox?
Radial artery
126
What are the superficial veins of upper limb?
Cephalic vein (lateral), basilic vein (medial), median cubital vein (connects them at cubital fossa)
127
What passes through the quadrangular space?
Axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeral artery; bordered by teres minor, teres major, long head of triceps, surgical neck of humerus
128
What is the triangular interval?
Passage for radial nerve and profunda brachii artery; between long and lateral heads of triceps
129
What is Dupuytren's contracture?
Progressive fibrosis of palmar aponeurosis causing flexion contracture of digits (especially 4th and 5th)
130
What is the glenohumeral joint?
Ball-and-socket synovial joint between humeral head and glenoid fossa
131
What stabilizes the GH joint?
Rotator cuff muscles, glenoid labrum, joint capsule, ligaments (weak bony stability - most mobile joint)
132
Why is the GH joint prone to dislocation?
Shallow glenoid fossa, loose capsule, weak inferior support
133
What direction do most GH dislocations occur?
Anterior-inferior (axillary nerve at risk)
134
What type of joint is the elbow?
Hinge joint (humeroulnar and humeroradial articulations)
135
What are the ligaments of the elbow?
Ulnar collateral ligament (medial), radial collateral ligament (lateral), annular ligament (around radial head)
136
What is the radioulnar joint?
Pivot joint allowing pronation and supination
137
What is the 9-region abdominal scheme?
RUQ: right hypochondriac, epigastric, left hypochondriac; Middle: right lumbar, umbilical, left lumbar; LLQ: right iliac, hypogastric, left iliac
138
What are the layers of anterior abdominal wall?
Skin, superficial fascia, external oblique, internal oblique, transversus abdominis, transversalis fascia, peritoneum
139
What is the inguinal canal?
Passage in lower anterior abdominal wall for spermatic cord (males) or round ligament (females)
140
What are the openings of inguinal canal?
Deep inguinal ring (internal, in transversalis fascia), superficial inguinal ring (external, in external oblique)
141
What is the difference between direct and indirect inguinal hernias?
Direct: medial to inferior epigastric vessels, through Hesselbach's triangle (acquired); Indirect: lateral to vessels, through deep ring (congenital)
142
What is McBurney's point?
1/3 distance from ASIS to umbilicus; point of maximal tenderness in appendicitis
143
What is the linea alba?
Midline fibrous structure from fusion of aponeuroses; extends xiphoid to pubic symphysis
144
What provides arterial supply to anterior abdominal wall?
Superior epigastric (from internal thoracic), inferior epigastric (from external iliac) - these anastomose
145
What is the rectus sheath?
Aponeurotic sheath enclosing rectus abdominis; formed by aponeuroses of external oblique
146
What is the arcuate line?
Horizontal line where all aponeuroses pass anterior to rectus; below this only transversalis fascia is posterior
147
What are the boundaries of the femoral triangle?
Superior: inguinal ligament, Lateral: sartorius, Medial: adductor longus, Floor: iliopsoas and pectineus
148
What are the contents of the femoral triangle (lateral to medial)?
Femoral Nerve, Artery, Vein, Empty space (lymphatics) - mnemonic NAVEL
149
What passes through the adductor canal?
Femoral artery and vein; saphenous nerve; becomes popliteal vessels after passing through adductor hiatus
150
What muscles are in the anterior thigh compartment?
Sartorius, quadriceps femoris (rectus femoris, vastus lateralis/medialis/intermedius), iliopsoas, pectineus
151
What is the function of quadriceps femoris?
Extends knee; rectus femoris also flexes hip
152
What nerve innervates anterior thigh?
Femoral nerve (L2-L4)
153
What muscles are in the medial thigh compartment?
Adductor longus, adductor brevis, adductor magnus, gracilis, obturator externus
154
What is the function of medial thigh muscles?
Adduct thigh
155
What nerve innervates medial thigh?
Obturator nerve (L2-L4)
156
What muscles are in the posterior thigh compartment?
Biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus (hamstrings)
157
What is the function of hamstrings?
Flex knee, extend hip
158
What nerve innervates posterior thigh?
Sciatic nerve (tibial division)
159
What are the borders of the popliteal fossa?
Superolateral: biceps femoris, Superomedial: semimembranosus/semitendinosus, Inferolateral: lateral head gastrocnemius, Inferomedial: medial head gastrocnemius, Floor: popliteal surface of femur/knee capsule
160
What are the contents of the popliteal fossa?
Popliteal artery (deepest), popliteal vein, tibial nerve, common fibular nerve
161
What is the hip joint?
Ball-and-socket synovial joint between femoral head and acetabulum
162
What makes the hip joint stable?
Deep acetabulum, acetabular labrum, strong joint capsule, ligaments (iliofemoral, pubofemoral, ischiofemoral)
163
What is the strongest ligament in the body?
Iliofemoral ligament (Y-ligament of Bigelow)
164
What ligament carries blood to femoral head?
Ligament of head of femur (ligamentum teres) - artery to head of femur
165
What is the unhappy triad?
ACL tear + MCL tear + medial meniscus tear; from lateral blow to knee
166
What are the cruciate ligaments?
ACL (prevents anterior tibial displacement), PCL (prevents posterior tibial displacement)
167
What are the collateral ligaments of knee?
MCL (tibial collateral), LCL (fibular collateral)
168
What are the menisci?
Fibrocartilage discs (medial and lateral) that deepen tibial articular surface and absorb shock
169
Why is medial meniscus more commonly torn?
Attached to MCL and joint capsule (less mobile)
170
What muscles are in the anterior leg compartment?
Tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus, fibularis tertius
171
What is the function of anterior leg compartment?
Dorsiflexion and inversion of foot; toe extension
172
What nerve innervates anterior leg?
Deep fibular nerve
173
What is foot drop?
Injury to common fibular nerve causes inability to dorsiflex foot
174
What muscles are in the lateral leg compartment?
Fibularis longus, fibularis brevis
175
What is the function of lateral leg compartment?
Evert and plantarflex foot
176
What nerve innervates lateral leg?
Superficial fibular nerve
177
What muscles are in the posterior leg compartment?
Superficial: gastrocnemius, soleus, plantaris; Deep: tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus, popliteus
178
What is the function of posterior leg compartment?
Plantarflexion and inversion; toe flexion
179
What nerve innervates posterior leg?
Tibial nerve
180
What forms the calcaneal (Achilles) tendon?
Gastrocnemius and soleus (together = triceps surae)
181
What is the most commonly ruptured tendon?
Achilles tendon
182
What is the ankle joint?
Hinge joint between tibia/fibula mortise and talus; allows dorsiflexion and plantarflexion
183
What ligament is most commonly sprained?
Anterior talofibular ligament (from ankle inversion injury)
184
What are the arches of the foot?
Medial longitudinal (highest), lateral longitudinal, transverse
185
What supports the arches of the foot?
Bones, ligaments (plantar calcaneonavicular/spring ligament, long/short plantar ligaments), muscles, plantar aponeurosis
186
What is plantar fasciitis?
Inflammation of plantar aponeurosis causing heel pain
187
What are the layers of the scalp (SCALP)?
Skin
188
Why do scalp wounds bleed profusely?
Dense connective tissue holds vessels open
189
What are the bones of the neurocranium?
Frontal, parietal (2), temporal (2), occipital, sphenoid, ethmoid
190
What are the bones of the viscerocranium (facial skeleton)?
14 bones including maxilla
191
What are the 3 cranial fossae?
Anterior (frontal lobe), middle (temporal lobe), posterior (cerebellum, brainstem)
192
What are the 3 layers of meninges?
Dura mater (outer), arachnoid mater (middle), pia mater (inner)
193
What is the dura mater?
Tough outer layer with 2 layers (periosteal and meningeal)
194
What are the dural reflections?
Falx cerebri (between hemispheres), tentorium cerebelli (separates cerebrum from cerebellum), falx cerebelli, diaphragma sellae
195
What is an epidural hematoma?
Bleeding between skull and dura; usually from middle meningeal artery tear
196
What is a subdural hematoma?
Bleeding between dura and arachnoid; usually from bridging vein tear
197
What is a subarachnoid hemorrhage?
Bleeding into subarachnoid space; often from ruptured aneurysm
198
What are the 12 cranial nerves?
I Olfactory, II Optic, III Oculomotor, IV Trochlear, V Trigeminal, VI Abducens, VII Facial, VIII Vestibulocochlear, IX Glossopharyngeal, X Vagus, XI Accessory, XII Hypoglossal
199
What is the function of CN I?
Smell
200
What is the function of CN II?
Vision
201
What is the function of CN III?
Eye movement (SR, IR, MR, IO), pupil constriction, lens accommodation
202
What is the function of CN IV?
Eye movement (SO - looks down and in)
203
What are the 3 divisions of CN V?
V1 ophthalmic, V2 maxillary, V3 mandibular
204
What is the function of CN V?
Facial sensation, muscles of mastication (V3 only)
205
What is the function of CN VI?
Eye movement (LR - abducts eye)
206
What is the function of CN VII?
Facial expression muscles, taste (anterior 2/3 tongue), parasympathetic to lacrimal/submandibular/sublingual glands
207
What is Bell's palsy?
CN VII paralysis causing inability to close eye and facial droop
208
What is the function of CN VIII?
Hearing (cochlear division), balance (vestibular division)
209
What is the function of CN IX?
Taste (posterior 1/3 tongue), sensation to pharynx, stylopharyngeus muscle, parasympathetic to parotid gland
210
What is the function of CN X?
Motor to pharynx/larynx, parasympathetic to thoracic/abdominal viscera, sensation from pharynx/larynx
211
What is the function of CN XI?
Sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles
212
What is the function of CN XII?
Intrinsic and extrinsic tongue muscles (except palatoglossus)
213
What muscles does CN III innervate?
SR (superior rectus)
214
What muscle does CN IV innervate?
SO (superior oblique) - depresses adducted eye
215
What muscle does CN VI innervate?
LR (lateral rectus) - abducts eye
216
What are the branches of the external carotid artery?
Some Anatomists Like Freaking Out Poor Medical Students: Superior thyroid, Ascending pharyngeal, Lingual, Facial, Occipital, Posterior auricular, Maxillary, Superficial temporal
217
What does the internal carotid artery supply?
Brain (via anterior and middle cerebral arteries), eyes (ophthalmic artery)
218
What forms the circle of Willis?
Anterior cerebral arteries, anterior communicating artery, internal carotid arteries, posterior communicating arteries, posterior cerebral arteries
219
What is the TMJ?
Synovial joint between mandibular condyle and mandibular fossa of temporal bone
220
What are the movements of TMJ?
Elevation, depression, protrusion, retrusion, lateral excursion
221
What muscles close the jaw?
Masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid
222
What muscles open the jaw?
Lateral pterygoid, digastric, mylohyoid, geniohyoid
223
What nerve innervates muscles of mastication?
Mandibular division of trigeminal nerve (CN V3)
Anatomy PTD 500
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