Arrival Flashcards

(94 cards)

1
Q

What is a STAR?

A

Standard terminal arrival route is an ATC-coded IFR arrival route established for use by arriving IFR AC. Simplifies clearance delivery procedures and facilities transition between enroute and IAPs.

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2
Q

If ATC issues your flight a STAR, must you accept it?

A

No, you are not required. You can put NO STAR in the remarks section to designate you would not like STAR.

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3
Q

What is an RNAV STAR?

A

Serve the same purpose as conventional STARs but only used by AC with GPS.

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4
Q

What does RNAV1 on an RNAV STAR mean?

A

Keep accuracy by +/- 1NM for 95% of the total flight.

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5
Q

What does clearance “descend via” authorize you to do when navigating on a STAR procedure?

A
  1. Descend at pilot’s discretion to meet published restrictions and lateral navigate
  2. Descend from a previously assigned altitude at pilot’s discretion to the altitude depicted at that waypoint.
  3. Once established, to descend and to meet all published or assigned altitude or speed restrictions
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6
Q

What is a terminal arrival area?

A

Published or assigned track by which aircraft are transitioned from the en route structure to the terminal area.

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7
Q

If you are cleared direct to an IAF within a TAA but not cleared for the approach are you cleared to descend to TAA altitude?

A

An ATC clearance to IAF without an approach clearance does not authorize to descend to a lower altitude.

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8
Q

How are flyover and flyby waypoints used in a GPS approach prcoedure?

A

FLy by are used when AC should begin a turn to the next course prior to reaching the waypoint for turn anticipation.

Fly over are used when AC must fly over the point prior to starting a turn.

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9
Q

When being radar-vectored for an approach, at what point may you start a descent from your last assigned altitude to a lower altitude if cleared for the approach?

A

Comply with the minimium altitude for IFR and maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a segment of a published route or IAP at which time published altitudes apply.

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10
Q

Define: Initial approach segment, intermediate approach segment, final approach segment, missed approach segment

A

Initial: Bw the initial fix and the intermediate fix.
Intermediate: bw the intermediate and final approach fixes
Final: Bw the final approach fix and the the runway
Missed: bw the missed approach point and the missed approach fix

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11
Q

What are standard IFR separation minimums?

A

Minimum of 3 miles separation is provided bw AC operating within 40 mile of the radar antenna site and 5 miles bw AC operating beyond 40 miles.

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12
Q

What is the minimum vectoring altitude? MVA

A

Lowest MSL altitude at which IFR AC will be vectored by a radar controller except as otherwise authorized by approaches, departures and missed approaches.

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13
Q

What is an MSA and when do you use it?

A

Minimum safe altitude which provides 1000 feet of obstacle clearance within a 25 mile radius of the reference point.

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14
Q

What are feeder routes?

A

Route depicted on IAP charts to designate courses for AC to proceed from the enroute to IAF.

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15
Q

Is the ATC clearance “cleared for the visual”, a VFR clearance or an IFR? What requirements must be met to accept such a clearance?

A

A visual approach is conducted on an IFR plan and authorizes a pilot to proceed visualy and clear of clouds to the airport but you must 1) have either the airport 2) the preceding AC in sight.

Reported weather must have ceiling at or above 1000 feet and viz 3 miles or greater.

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16
Q

What does “contact approach” mean?

A

You need to remain clear of clouds, have 1 statute mile of flight visibility, and reasonably expect to continue to the airport in those conditions. Plus, the airport must have a published instrument approach.

ATC cannot initiate this only the pilot can.

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17
Q

When is a procedure turn not required?

A

Straight in
Holding pattern replaces the PT
Arc – when flying a DME arc
Radar vectored to final approach course
Procedure turn barb is absent in the plan view or the NoPT is depicted
Timed approach
Teardrop procedure and a course reversal is required

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18
Q

What are standard procedure turn limitations?

A
  1. Turn on the depicted side
  2. Adhere to depicted min alts
  3. Complete the maneuver within the specified distance
  4. Do not exceed 200 knots
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19
Q

What procedure is followed when a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn?

A

A holding pattern may be specified for course reversal in some procedures: the holding pattern is established over an intermediate fix or FAF.

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20
Q

What is a precision approach?

A

Instrument approach that is based on a navigation system that provides course and glidepath deviation info.

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21
Q

What are the components of a standard ILS?

A
  1. Guidance info: localizer, glide slope
  2. Range info: marker beacons, DME
  3. Viz info: approach lights, tochdown, runway lights
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22
Q

Describe visual and aural indications that a pilot receives when crossing the outer, middle and inner markers?

A

Outer: blue light, dull tone
Middle: amber light, medium tone, medium speed
Inner: white light, high tone, high speed

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23
Q

What are the distances from the landing threshold of outer, middle and inner markers?

A

Outer: 4-7 miles from threshold
Middle: 3,500 feet from threshold
Inner: bw middle marker and threshold

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24
Q

When is the inner marker used?

A

Indicates the point at which an AC is at decision height of the glide path.

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25
What should a pilot do when on the glide slope the wind switches from a headwind to calm/tailwind
Pitch decreases Thrust increases then reduces Vertical speed increases Airspeed decreases then increases Reaction: increased power than a decrease
26
Localizers operate within what frequency range
Odd tenths within 108.10 and 111.95
27
Where is the locazlier antenna installation located relative to the runway?
Far end of the approach runway
28
Where is the glide slope antenna located and what is its usable range
750 to 1250 feet from approach end and offset 250 - 650 from it. Useable up to 10NM
29
What range does a standard localizer have?
Course guidance through the descent path to the runway threshold from a distance of 18NM from the antenna site.
30
What is the angular width of a localizer signal
Adjusted to provide an angular width of between 3 and 6 degrees.
31
What is the normal glide slope angle for a standard ILS?
3 degrees
32
What is the sensitivity of a CDI tuned to a localizer signal compared with a CDI tuned to a VOR?
Full left/right deflection occurs at 2.5 degrees from centerline localizer whcih is 4 times greater than when tuned to a VOR where 10 degrees is a full scale deflection
33
What is a decision altitude?
A specified altitude on an instrument approach procedure at which the pilot must decide whether to continue to the approach or initiate an immediate missed approach if the pilot does not see the required visual references.
34
When flying IAP when can the pilot descend below MDA or DA/DH?
No pilot may operate below unless: 1. The AC is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers. 2. The flight viz is not less than the viz prescribed in the SIAP 3. If the light system, the threshold, the threshold markings, the threshold lights, the REIL, glipeslope, touncdown zone, runway markings, runway lights
35
What rate of turn is recommended during execution of a no-gyro approach procedure?
Standard rate until final then one-half standard rate on final
36
What is the definition of TDZE?
Touchdown zone elevation is the highest elevation in the first 3000 feet of the landing surface.
37
After landing you notice the white runway centerline light begin to alt white and red, what does this mean?
White is until the last 3000 feet, then alternate the next 2000 and red for the last 1000.
38
What is the definition of a non precision approach?
Course deviation but no glidepath like VOR and LNAV
39
What is MDA?
Minimum descent altitude is the lowest altitude expressed in feet above MSL to which descent is authorized on final approach or circle to land.
40
What is the definition of a stablized approach?
Must be stabilized by 1000 feet above airport elevation in IMC and 400 feet above airport elevation for straight in approaches. 1. Glide path correct 2. Heading is tracking, bank angle does not exceed 15 degrees 3. Airspeed within within +10/-5 knots 4. Configuration: correct landing configuartion 5. Rate of descent - constant and no greater than 500 feet fpm 6. Power setting is appropriate 7. Checklists
41
What is a VDP?
Visual descent point - defined on the final approach course of a nonprecision straight-in approach procedure from which normal descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown may be commenced. Need to have the runway environment in sight.
42
While flying the final segment of a non-precision approach with a VDP, the pilot breaks out of the clouds and has required visibility and necessary viz references available to begin the descent. Should you wait until the VDP is reached before descending below MDA?
You should not descend below the MDA prior to reaching VDP and acquiring the necessary visual references.
43
How do you compute your own VDP
Take the AGL value of the MDA and divide it by 300 = VDP in NM
44
What is a VDA?
Vertical descent angle. Non-precision approach charts provides the pilot with information required to establish a stabilized approach descent from the FAF or stepdown fix to the TCH.
45
How do you use the published VDA on a non-precision approach chart to fly a stabilized descent to the MDA?
1. Determine the published vertical descent angle on the approach chart 2. Determine your estimated or actual ground speed 3. locate the rate of climb/descent table
46
Does the VDA guarantee an obstacle protection below the MDA?
No
47
Will SIAP always have a FAF?
No, when FAF is not designated on an apporach that incorporate a NDB or VOR, a FAF is designated and is typically where the procedure turn intersects the final approach course inbound.
48
If no FAF is published, where does the final approach segment begin on a nonprecision approach?
PT intersects final approach course inbound
49
What is a stepdown fix?
Permits additional descent within a segment of an instrument approach procedure by identifying a point at which a controlling obstacle has been safely overflown.
50
What does a VASI system provide?
Visual descent guidance during an approach to a runway, safe obstruction clearance within 10 degrees of centerline up to 4NM from the runway threshold
51
What criteria determines whether or not you may attempt an approach?
Nothing that says you cant but if you reach MDA or DA/DH and decide to descend to land, flight viz must be equal to what is published.
52
Define the following: LNAV, LP, LNAV/VNAV, LPV
LNAV: laternal nav only, non-precision, MDAs LP: localizer performance, non-precision, MDAs LNAV/VNAV: laternal and vertical navigation, non-preicsion, DAs LPV: localizer performance and vertical guidance, precision
53
What is indicated when a letter suffix is added to the approach title?
When two or more straight-in approaches with the same type of guidance exist for a runway, a letter suffix is added to the title. They start with Zulu and go in reverse order.
54
What is an LPV approach?
Localizer performance w/ vertical guidance. Need WAAS.
55
How can you determine if your aircraft is equipped to fly an LPV approach procedure?
GPS/WAAS operation must be conducted in accordance with the FAA-approve AC flight manual.
56
What does the term LP on an RNAV GPS approach plate?
Localizer performance.
57
What is the significance of temperature limitations published on an approach procedure chart?
A min and max temperature is published on procedures which authorize Baro-VNAV operation.
58
What are the reasons your GPS receiver would fail to sequence from the armed to the approach mode to the final approach waypoint?
May be a satellite anomaly. Should always ensure it switches from armed to approach.
59
If the GPS does not switch to approach mode or a RAIM failure annunciation occurs prior to the FAWP, what procedure should you follow?
The approach should not be completed and the procedure to the missed approach waypoint should proceed. Contact ATC.
60
What is the significance of the presence of a gray shaded line from the MDA to the runway in the profile of the RNAV GPS approach.
It is clear of obstructions on the 34:1 slope.
61
What is LNAV + V?
Advisory vertical guidance is provided. The glidepath is artificial.
62
How will rising terrain be depicted in the plan view of an IAP chart?
Terrain will be depicted with contour lines in shades of brown in the plan view portion of all IAPs at airports.
63
What is the significance of the negative W symbol on some RNAV GPS approach charts?
It means that WAAS unreliable NOTAMs are common and vertical outages may occur daily at these locations. Use LNAV or circling minima for flight planning at these locations.
64
If a discrepancy exists bw the info provided by a GPS navigation database and the information published on an approach chart, which one takes precedence?
The published approach chart is primary resource.
65
When flying an RNAV GPS approach, most GPS require to choose loading or loading and activate. What's the difference?
Loading an approach adds its component waypoints to the end of the flight plan but does not make them active. Activating an approach will cause the GPS to give course guidance to the IAF.
66
What are circle to land approaches?
Not technically an approach but a maneuver initiated by a pilot to align the AC with the runway for landing when straight in is not possible. When towered, can only be done after ATC authorization.
67
What is indicated by an approach procedure title "VOR-A" which is only followed by a letter?
Do not have straight-in landing minimums and only have circling minimums.
68
Why do certain airports have only circling mins published?
When either a normal rate of descent or the runway alignment factor of 30 degrees is exceeded.
69
Can a pilot make a straight in if using an approach that has circling mins?
Yes, if you have the runway in sight and have sufficient time to make a normal landing.
70
If cleared for a straight in VOR-DME 34 approach, can a pilot circle to land?
Yes, a straight in approach is an instrument approach wherein final approach is begun without first having executed a procedure turn.
71
When can you begin your descent to the runway during a circling approach?
1. The AC is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing can be made at normal rate of descent and procedures. 2. The flight viz is not less than what is prescribed in the SIAP 3. At least one of the specific runway viz references for the intended runway is visible and identifiable.
72
While circling to land you lose viz contact with the runway env. At the time viz contact is lost, your approximate position is a base leg at the circling MDA, what procedure should be followed?
Initial climbing turn towards the landing runway and continue the turn until on the missed approach course.
73
What obstacle clearance are you guaranteed during a circling approach maneuver?
Cat A: 1.3 mile radius Cat B: 1.5 C: 1.7 D: 2.3 E: 4.5
74
What is the significance of the presence of a negative C on the circling line of minima?
Circling approach protected areas use the radius dependent on AC approach category and the altitude of the circling MDA. The approaches using expanded circling approaches have the negative C.
75
How can you determine the approach category of an aircraft?
Vref (which is 1.3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration)
76
What are the different AC approach categories?
A: Speed less than 91 knots B: 91-120 C: 121-140 D: 141-165 E: 166+
77
When must a pilot execute a missed approach?
1. Arrival at the missed approach point and the runway env not in sight 2. Arrival at DA on the glide slope w/ the runway not yet in sight 3. Pilot determines safe landing not possible 4. When circling to land and contact is lost 5. When ATC advises
78
On a nonprecision approach, how is the missed approach determined?
1. Timing from the FAF when approach aid is away from the airport 2. NAVAID when nav facility is on the field 3. Waypoints on the GPS
79
If no FAF is depicted, how is MAP determined?
The MAP is at the airport.
80
Where is the MAP on a precision approach?
The MAP is at the decision altitude.
81
Under what conditions are missed approach procedures published on an approach chart not followed?
When ATC has assigned alternate missed approach instructions.
82
If during the execution of an instrument approach, you determine a missed approach is necessary due to full-scale needle deflection, what action is recommended?
Protected obstacle clearance areas for missed approaches assume that missed approach is initiated at the DA or MAP. You should fly the IAP as specified on the approach plate to the MAP at or above MDA before executing turning maneuver.
83
What action should a pilot take in the event a rejected landing occurs at a position other than the published missed approach point?
The pilot should contact ATC to obtain amended clearance. If you can't contact ATC, reintercept the published segment of the missed approach and comply with route and altitude instructions. If the pilot judges missed approach is not approriate then you can consider maintaining visual conditions and reattempt a landing or a cricle climb over. Contact ATC when able.
84
What are factors the pilot should consider when assessing options available if it becomes necessary to execute a missed approach from beyond the MAP or below the MDA / DA?
Direction of flight Min turning altitudes AC performance Viz climb restrictions Obstacles
85
What is a low approach?
Go around maneuver following an approach.
86
Is it legal to land a civil AC if the actual visibility is below the mins published on the approach chart?
No.
87
When landing at an airport with a control tower, must the pilot call FSS to close it?
No, if operating on an IFR plan to an airport with a control tower, it will automatically be closed.
88
You are IFR and land at an airport without a tower and did not close the plan. What will this do?
The airspace cannot be released for other IFR AC until the status of the flight is known.
89
If the viz provided by ATC is less than that prescribed for the approach can a pilot legally continue?
Yes and no. It's the pilot's discretion to determine the visibility and if it is less than minimums then you must execute a missed approach regardless of the reported viz.
90
How do you determine the flight viz when coming out of the clouds?
Decision bar: Every approach lighting system has a decision bar located 1000 feet from the runway threshold. Sequenced flashing lights: 1000 foot clue. Lights stop flashing at the decision bar.
91
When the approach title procedure contains more than one nav sytem separated by a slash, what does this mean?
More than one type of equipment must be used to execute the approach.
92
What if the approach title contains an OR? What does this mean? "VOR or GPS"
Either type of equipment may be used.
93
With no FAF available, when would final descent to the published MDA be started?
For non precision approaches, a final descent is initiated and the final segment begins at the FAF or the final approach point.
94
What significance does the black triangle with a white A on the approach chart mean?
Inidicates nonstandard IFR alternate minimums exist. "Trouble T"