1
Q
Reliability and validity of assessment measures: Reliability refers to the degree to which the test scores are free from the effects of m___ e___, while validity refers to the degree to which a test m___ what it is d___ed to m__“__.
A
free from the effects of measurement error; measures what it is designed to measure
2
Q
Standardization of an assessment measure can mean 2 things:
1) regulation of the consistency of ___ a test is administered/scored such that deviation from standard procedure may yield i___ results
2) a test is administered in standard conditions with a rep___ p___ to establish norms, and future test takers who differ considerably from that pop are more likely to have i__“__ results
A
1) how a test is administered/scored…invalid results;
2) representative population…invalid results
3
Q
While norm-referenced scores permit comparisons between an examinee’s performance and that of individuals in the ___ group, criterion-referenced scores permit interpretation with regard to an ex___ c___.
A
individual in the norm group…external criterion (%ile ranks and standard scores are examples of norm-referenced scores) (criterion-referenced scores are also known as domain-referenced and content-referenced scores) (self-referenced scores are provided by ipsative scores that allow intraindividual comparisons)
4
Q
A protocol analysis in behavioral assessment entails an assessment of t___ processes by asking examinees to verbalize their t__“__ processes or p___-s___ing processes out loud.
A
assessment of thought processes…verbalize their thought processes or problem-solving processes out loud.
5
Q
Dynamic assessment, derived from work by V___, involves deliberate d___ from standardized testing to obtain additional info or see if a testee would benefit from assistance or instruction. Testing the ___, a kind of dynamic assessment, involves providing additional cues, suggestions, or feedback after standard admin to see what they are able to do with some a___.
A
Vygotsky; deliberate deviation; Testing the limits; with some assistance
(Test-teach-retest and Graduated prompting are two other kinds of dynamic assessment)
6
Q
Formative vs. summative assessment: in a classroom example, midterms and final exams are more like which kind of assessment? (Quizzes and homework assignments are more like the other if they are designed to evaluate learning early on the process and help make appropriate changes.)
A
midterms and finals are like summative assessments (examine change compared to some standard or benchmark)
7
Q
T/F: In comparisons between actuarial (stastical) predictions vs. clinical predictions, research shows that clinical judgment alone is more accurate than the actuarial method alone.
A
F: the actuarial method alone is more accurate than clinical judgment alone (when fair comparison made between both approaches, e.g., same data used for both methods) (e.g., Aegisdottir et al., 2006; Grove & Meehl, 1996).
(actuarial method alone is also about equally accurate as a combination of actuarial and clinical methods)
8
Q
To avoid making critical statements in assessment with children when they exhibit undesirable bxs, making ___-based corrections, making i___nal statements, or ignoring the behavior are recommended.
A
rule-based corrections (e.g., “One of the rules in this room is that we don’t throw things”)…invitational statements (e.g., “Come and sit at the table”)
(descriptive statements, reflections, and labeled praise are also recommended in general in assessment with kids)
9
Q
Research shows that interviews with children as young as [2/4/6] can be used to obtain reliable and valid data.
A
6
10
Q
Although open-ended questions are recommended in assessment with children, starting questions with the word [what/why/how] is discouraged
A
why
(open-ended questions elicit more info and reduce likelihood that they will be led to accept the interviewer’s conclusions)
11
Q
Which statement is more accurate?
1) In every domain of assessment, there are culturally-fair-and-free tests widely available.
2) There are no truly “culture-free” or “culture-fair” tests.
A
2) There are no truly “culture-free” or “culture-fair” tests (although many attempt to have less of a cultural loading or be more culturally sensitive)
12
Q
T/F: Research demonstrates that racial or cultural match or mismatch between examinee and examiner is always more important than rapport or the examiner’s attitude.
A
F (there is no consistent effect of a match or mismatch of the examiner and examinee in terms of race, ethnicity, or culture)
13
Q
___-report is one of the quickest and lowest cost methods for collecting assessment data, but weaknesses include shaky validity and reliability
A
Self-report
14
Q
T/F: Psychophysiological measures are used to analyze momentary psychophysiological experiences as they occur and obtain objective/qualitative data about subjective emotional experience. Fortunately, they are also relatively cheap and require little training to use.
A
F: First sentence is true, but they are costly and require much training to use.
15
Q
T/F: A major advantage of direct observation in psychological assessment is the small amount of time the process often takes.
A
F: The amount of time associated with conducting observations is a weakness of the approach.
16
Q
[Computerized Adaptive Testing/Dynamic Assessment] allows a testing experience to be tailored to the individual examinee by choosing subsequent items based on their previous answers.
A
Computerized Adaptive Testing (CAT)
17
Q
According to ___’s Two-Factor Theory of intelligence, performance on any cognitive task depends on a general intelligence (g) factor plus one or more specific factors (s) unique to the task
A
Spearman (1927)
18
Q
___ and ___ proposed Fluid (Gf) and Crystallized (Gc) intelligence. Which of the two includes reading, numerical skills, and factual knowledge? Which of two enables one to solve new problems, recognize patterns, and reason abstractly?
A
Horn and Cattell (1966);
Crystallized intelligence (Gc) includes reading, numerical skills, and factual knowledge (and acquired skills, affected by educational and cultural exp’s);
Fluid intelligence (Gf) enables one to solve new problems, recognize patterns, and reason abstractly (does not depend on specific instruction, is less affected by educat and culture)
19
Q
C___’s three-stratum theory distinguished between three levels (strata) of intelligence. Stratum III is g, meaning ___ ___. Stratum II consists of [2/8/16] broad abilities. Name one.
Stratum I consists of specific abilities that are each linked to one of what?
A
Carroll’s three-stratum theory (1997);
Stratum III is g, meaning general intelligence;
Stratum II consists of 8 broad abilities, examples include fluid intelligence, crystallized intelligence, and general memory and learning;
Stratum I consists of specific abilities that are each linked to one the second stratum abilities
20
Q
Which intelligence theory was developed on the basis of extensive empirical research and serves as the framework for IQ tests including the KABC-II and Woodcock-Johnson IV, currently distinguishing between 16 broad-stratum abilities and over 80 narrow-stratum abilities each linked to a broad-stratum?
A. Carroll’s Three-Stratum Theory
B. Sternberg’s Triarchic Theory
C. McGrew’s Cattell-Horn-Carroll (CHC) Theory of Cognitive Abilities
D. Spearman’s Two-Factor Theory
A
C. McGrew’s Cattell-Horn-Carroll (CHC) Theory of Cognitive Abilities (1997)
(Although McGrew acknowledges the existence of g general intelligence, it is omitted from his theory bc of his belief that it does not contribute to psychoeducational assessment practice)
21
Q
(Theories of intelligence) Between Guilford’s convergent and divergent thinking (1967), which relied on rational, logical reasoning and involved the use of logical judgment and consideration of facts to derive the correct solution to a problem? Which involved nonlogical processes, creativity, and flexibility to derive multiple solutions?
A
Convergent is the former (logical, rational) while divergent is the latter (creative, flexible)
(Guilford argued that most intelligence tests focus on convergent thinking)
22
Q
Which theorist about intelligence argued that most intelligence tests emphasize analytical abilities but neglect creative and practical abilities, noting that “succesful intelligence” is the ability to modify, adapt to, and choose environments that accomplish one’s goals and goals of society?
A. Spearman
B. Sternberg
C. Gardner
D. Guilford
A
B. Sternberg (1999) (triarchic theory, IQ includes analytical, creative, and practical abilities)
23
Q
T/F: Gardner (1998) believed that there are 8 types of cognitive ability: linguistic, musical, logical-mathematical, spatial, bodily-kinesthetic, interpersonal, intrapersonal, and naturalistic; and he believed that everyone possesses all inteligences to some degree and that they are fixed for each person.
A
F: All true except for the last part - intelligences are not static but can be developed by exposure to appropriate learning experiences
24
Q
Most reported heritability coefficients for people in industrialized countries range from 60-___% for intelligence
A
60-80%
25
At least until middle-age, the impact of genetic factors on IQ [increases/decreases] while the impact of environmental factors [increases/decreases] with increasing age
impact of genetics on IQ increases;
impact of environmental factors on IQ decreases (Bouchard & McGue, 2003)
26
The confluence model by Zajonc (2001) asserts that, in a family with multiple siblings, [firstborn/last born] children tend to demonstrate higher IQ than their siblings.
firstborn (get more undistracted adult attention, are exposed to more adult language, and are more likely to act as "tutors" for their siblings)
27
Which 3 of the following are true about the Flynn effect?
A. It asserts that IQ test scores consistently increased between the 1930s and 2000 in the US and other industrialized countries.
B. It showed that IQ increased by 3 points each decade, likely due to improvements in enviro factors.
C. Gains in IQ were mostly in crystallized intelligence.
D. Since 2000, research about continuity of the effect is mixed and may be reversing in some countries or in certain IQ brackets.
A., B., and D.,
It involved greater increases in fluid than crystallized intelligence.
28
IQ test scores become fairly consistent after about age [7/14/21].
7 (and they stay mostly stable until about later adulthood)
29
(IQ and Aging) Until about what age does crystallized intelligence continue to increase? When does fluid intelligence peak and thereafter decline (partly due to declines in working memory efficiency and processing speed)?
Age 60;
late adolescence
30
What did the Seattle Longitudinal Study demonstrate about IQ increases or decreases over time?
It showed that IQ tends to increase over time until about age 60 or until the period just preceding death. (Early cross-sectional research suggested that IQ declines more rapidly, but the research was likely subject to cohort (intergenerational) effects.)
31
Which of the following regarding cognitive decline are false?
A. When given as much time as needed, older examinees do better on cognitive tasks but struggle under time pressure due to decline in efficiency and proc speed.
B. Physical health, particularly cardiovascular functioning, is one of the strongest predictors of maintenance of cog functioning.
C. Cognitive decline is always irreversible, in spite of any training or practice.
C.
(Schaie and Willis (1986) proposed that some cognitive decline is reversible for some people and can be helped with simple training and practice)
32
Research on IQ differences in gender suggest that females do better than males on some measures of verbal ability, especially during the ___ years.
school years (and they're less likely to have a reading disability) (and gender differences in intellectual abilities tend to be small)
33
Differences in IQ have been most consistently shown between white and Black examinees, whether this is due to influences of genetics, environment, or test biases is unclear.
Test biases include s___ bias (differential validity) when validity coefficients for a predictor differ for different groups and accuracy varies, and i___ bias (or unfairness) when validity coefficients and criterion performance are the same but mean predictor scores differ and underestimate one group.
slope bias (the regression lines have different slopes on the scatter plot);
intercept bias (the regression lines on the scatter plot cross the Y-intercept at different points)
34
The coefficient for the IQ between identical twins raised together is [between .6 and .7/ between .8 and .9]
between .8 and .9 (about .85)
(.67 for identical twins reared apart
.58 for fraternal twins reared together
.39 for biological parent and child (together)
.24 for biological siblings reared apart)
35
Between unstructured and structured direct observation, which tends to yield quantitative data while which tends to yield qualitative?
Structured - quantitative
Unstructured - qualitative
(Structured direct observations are most appropriate when standardized information needs to be gathered and result in quantitative data.
Unstructured direct observations look at the natural occurrence and provides qualitative data. Weaknesses of this approach include participant and observer bias.)
36
T/F: Like the WAIS-IV intelligence test, the Stanford-Binet (SB-5) can only be provided to adults. It is limited only to measuring general cognitive ability.
F: The SB-5 has an age range of 2-85+ (its French predecessor was developed in 1905 and came out in America in 1916); F: assists in psychoeducational eval, dx of developmental disabilities and exceptionalities, and forensic, career, neuropsych, and early childhood assessment
37
Does the Stanford-Binet (SB-5) measure both verbal and nonverbal skills on the same 5 cognitive factors while also being based on the hierarchical g (general mental ability), derived from the Cattell-Horn-Carroll theory of cognitive abilities?
Yes (Fluid reasoning, knowledge, quantitative reasoning, visual-spatial processing, and working memory)
38
Routing subtests are relevant for the SB-5 for what reason?
Help determine starting points for subtests (on the Stanford-Binet) (Fluid Reasoning nonverbal and Knowledge verbal, i.e., Object Series/Matrices and Vocabulary)
39
SB-5 and WAIS-IV
Subtest scaled scores: M=___; SD=3
Composite standard scores or Index scores: M=100; SD=___
Subtest scaled scores: M=10; SD=3
Composite standard scores of Index scores: M=100; SD=15 (SB-5 - FSIQ, Verbal and Nonverbal IQ, Factor Indexes (FR, KN, QR, VS, WM), and Abbreviated Battery IQ (routing subtests)) (WAIS-IV - FSIQ, WMI, VCI, PSI, PRI)
40
Which three of the following would it be valid to administer a WAIS-IV to?
A. 15 1/2 yr old
B. 16 1/2 yr old
C. 55 1/2 yr old
D. 90 1/2 yr old
B., C., and D.
(Age range is 16:00 - 90:11)
41
On the WAIS-IV, FSIQ and Index scores must be interpreted with caution when there is a difference of [1.5/2/2.5] SDs or more between any two Index scores or between any two subtests that contribute to an index.
1.5 SDs
42
On the WAIS-IV, in clinical groups such as those with mild cognitive impairment, Alzheimer's Disease, MDD, ADHD, and TBI, the ___ ___ Index is typically the most affected.
Processing Speed Index (GAI composed of VCI and PRI)
43
The WAIS-IV manual suggests waiting a period of [1-2/3-4] years before retesting an examinee to avoid a practice effect.
1-2 years
44
Which of the following people could take a WAIS-IV? A WISC-V?
A. 6 yr old
B. 16 yr old
C. 38 yr old
A. could take a WISC, C. could take a WAIS, and B. could do either
45
The WPPSI-IV is primarily used for what age range for intelligence testing?
A. early grade school
B. late adolescence
C. late adulthood
A. early grade school (Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence) (range 2:6-7:7)
46
How does the KABC-II work to be a culture-fair test? What age range is it designed for?
minimizing verbal instructions and responses; children (3:0-18:11) (5 scales: Simultaneous, Sequential, Planning, Learning, and Knowledge)
47
Which of these Kaufman intelligence tests is a brief screening test of verbal (crystallized) and nonverbal (fluid) ability and is appropriate for people 4:0-90+?
A. KABC-II
B. KBIT-2
B. KBIT-2 (Kaufman Brief Intelligence Test, Second Edition)
48
Which is true about the Woodcock-Johnson?
A. It is appropriate for ages 18-80+
B. It is used to assess intelligence, dx learning problems, and identify appropriate interventions
B.
(2-80+ is age range) (3 Co-normed batteries: Tests of Cognitive Abilities, Oral Language, and Achievement)
49
Which 2 of these tests does not make use of the Cattell-Horn-Carroll theory of cognitive abilities?
A. Slosson Intelligence Test
B. Woodcock-Johnson
C. KABC-II
D. Stanford-Binet (SB-5)
E. Cognitive Assessment System, Second Edition (CAS2)
A. Slosson Intelligence Test and E. Cognitive Assessment System
(The KABC-II can be interpreted from the Cattell-Horn-Carroll theory or Luria's neuropsychological processing model) (The CAS2 also draws from Luria and helps with differential dx, special education eligibility, and instructional planning for children) (Slosson is IQ screener for crystallized IQ)
50
Which of the following is an advantage of the Denver Developmental Screening Test II for young children?
A. It is a relatively cheap test to acquire.
B. It can be administered by paraprofessionals who have received only a few hours of training.
C. It has a near 100% accuracy rate for assessing developmental delays.
B. (A. and C. not necessarily true)
51
While the WISC-V and the WAIS-IV both use the Verbal Comprehension Index (VCI), Working Memory Index (WMI), and Processing Speed Index (PSI), which two of these indices are specific to the WISC?
A. Fluid Reasoning (FRI)
B. Perceptual Reasoning (PRI)
C. Visual-Spatial (VSI)
A. Fluid Reasoning (FRI) and C. Visual-Spatial (VSI) (PRI is specific to the WAIS-IV)
52
Which of these tests is useful for individuals with a motor or speech impairment, and that measures receptive vocabulary?
A. Haptic Intelligence Test for the Blind
B. Peabody Picture Vocabular Test (PPVT-5)
C. WAIS-IV
B. PPVT-5 (examinees pick the right pictures on a series of cards)
(The Haptic Intelligence Scale uses tactile and kinesthetic methods to assess the intelligence of individuals with visual impairments.)
53
Which of these tests would not be considered culture-fair or disability-friendly?
A. KABC-II
B. WPPSI-IV
C. Raven's Progressive Matrices
D. Leiter International Performance Scale-Third Edition (Leiter-3)
B. WPPSI-IV
(all the others deemphasize verbal instructions or interactions and have reduced cultural content)
54
A unique aspect of the Kuhlmann-Anderson Test, the Cognitive Abilities Test (CogAT), and the Wonderlic Tests (like the WPT-R and the WBST) is that they are all admininstered in ___ settings.
group settings
55
Both the Slosson Intelligence Test - Fourth Edition (SIT-4) and the Kaufman Brief Intelligence Test, Second Edition (KBIT-2) are ___ tests of crystallized (verbal) intelligence
screening tests (KBIT-2 also does nonverbal (fluid) ability)
56
Which of the following measures an examinee's reasoning abilities, is appropriate for students in grades K through 12, and is used to determine a student's eligibility for placement in a gifted/talented program?
A. Cognitive Abilities Test (CogAT)
B. Wonderlic Personnel Test-Revised (WPT-R)
C. Kuhlmann-Anderson Test-Eighth Edition
D. Wonderlic Basic Skills Test (WBST)
A. Cognitive Abilities Test (CogAT)
57
___-based measurement (CBM) involves periodic assessment of school-aged children with brief s___ed and v___ed measures of academic skills that reflect the current school curriculum for purposes of evaluating instructional effectiveness and making instructional decisions.
Curriculum-based measurement; brief standardized and validated measures of academic skills (The primary use of curriculum-based measures is to evaluate a student's progress in order to determine if instruction needs to be modified)
58
In contrast to curriculum-based measurement, performance-based assessment evaluates how well a student carries out a p___ activity or produces a ___, and is argued to be more egalitarian in nature
carries out a physical activity or produces a product (downside is that it may reflect prior experience as opposed to learning)
59
The Woodcock-Johnson IV Tests of Achievement, the Illinois Test of Psycholinguistic Abilities (ITPA-3), the Wide-Range Achievement Test (WRAT5), and the Wechsler Individual Achievement Test (WIAT-4) are commonly used to determine what kind of mental health condition?
learning disabilities
60
Which one of these is not used to determine a learning disability?
A. Woodcock-Johnson IV
B. WAIS-V
C. ITPA-3
D. WRAT5
E. WIAT-4
B. WAIS-V (all others are achievement tests)
(Woodcock-Johnson IV Tests of Achievement
Illinois Test of Psycholinguistic Abilities (ITPA-3)
Wide-Range Achievement Test (WRAT5)
Wechsler Individual Achievement Test (WIAT-4))
61
Which of these is designed most specifically to evaluate a child's strengths and weaknesses in terms of linguistic abilities, and is based on Osgood's communication model, which distinguishes between channels of communication, psycholinguistic processes, and levels of organization?
A. WRAT5
B. ITPA-3
B. ITPA-3 (Illinois Test of Psycholinguistic Abilities, Third Edition)
62
T/F: Earlier research on the SAT found that it is as accurate at predicting college GPA for examinees who obtain test scores in the middle range as examinees who test in the upper range. The test is also related to socioeconomic status and ethnicity, and coaching is most helpful for students at the lower end of the score range.
First statement false, last two correct. (SAT has shown to be less accurate of a predictor of college GPA for mid range examinees) (SAT and high school GPA are both about the same level of accuracy in predicting college performance, and together they are more accurate)
63
Between achievement and aptitude tests, which are traditionally defined as measures of innate capacity or potential for learning a specific skill?
aptitude tests
64
In the context of job selection, ___ ___ reflects a bias against certain groups of people. However, in the context of multiple aptitude test batteries, it means when a test has nonsimilar validity coefficients for different criterion groups or categories.
differential validity (often, multiple-aptitude tests have weak differential validity)
65
T/F: A weakness of many specific aptitude tests is that their predictive validity tends to be low, e.g., in the .20s
T (they are often used to predict job performance)
66
T/F: Occupational interest inventories are good predictors of occupational choice, satisfaction, and persistence, but they are better predictors of academic and occupational success.
F: They are less valid than IQ tests for predicting academic and occupational success (they are better predictors of occupational choice, satisfaction, and persistence when combined with measures of self-confidence, self-efficacy, and personality)
67
The Self-Directed Search (SDS) is based on ___'s (1997) theory of career choice, emphasizing the importance of a match between a person's preferences to the characteristics of the job
Holland's theory of career choice (RIASEC, hexagon)
68
The 6 occupational themes of Holland's career choice model form a hexagon. The closer the tips are in the hexagon, the more related they are considered to be. In order from top left, they are...
RIASEC
Realistic
Investigative
Artistic
Social
Enterprising
Conventional
(used in Self-Directed Search (SDS))
69
Holland's RIASEC model (used in SDS) includes the following 6 occupational themes. Give a job example of each:
- Realistic (technical, physical, mechanical, outdoor)
- Investigative (scientific, mathematical, analytical, scholarly)
- Artistic (music, art, writing, drama, other creative)
- Social (work with/help others)
- Enterprising (competition, management, sales, public speaking)
- Conventional (structured, organizing activities, detail-oriented, follow others' instructions)
R (engineer, mechanic, pilot, construction worker, electrician, farmer, police officer)
I (scientist, veterinarian, mathematician, professor, med technician)
A (artist, actor, musician, writer, designer)
S (teacher, psychologist, social worker, nurse, minister, personnel manager)
E (sales manager, realtor, stockbroker, financial planner, buyer)
S (accountant, admin assisstant, actuary, technical writer, paralegal, banker)
70
In Holland's RIASEC model, between Conventional and Realistic preferences, which involve structured, unambiguous activities that involve organizing data, attending to detail, and completing the instructions of others?
Conventional (Realistic involves technical, mechanical, physical, outdoor activities)
71
Melanie just took the SDS Fifth Edition. She expressed interest in becoming a musician most of all, and her Summary code from the SDS indicated that Artistic was her top theme, meaning that she has high [coherence/congruence/differentiation].
However, her expressed interests overall belong to several RIASEC categories, meaning that she has low [coherence/congruence/consistency] and her Summary code starts with AC, meaning that it has low [congruence/consistency]. Her score in A is much higher than any other score, meaning she has high d___
high congruence;
low coherence
low consistency (if first two letters on Summary Code are near each other on hexagon then it's high consistency)
high differentiation
(commonness refers to the frequency with which the examinee's Summary Code occurred in different normative groups)
72
The ___ Interest Inventory (SII) provides scores on General Occupational Themes (RIASEC), Basic Interest Scales, Occupational Scales, and Personal Styles Scales. Dev of the Occupational Scales used an empirical c___ keying strategy; results indicate the degree to which the examinee's interests are similar to those of ___ workers of the same ___ in 122 occupations.
Strong Interest Inventory; empirical criterion keying strategy; similar to those of satisfied workers of the same gender in 122 occupations (The General Occupational Themes are Holland's occupational themes, and the Basic Interest Scales and Personal Styles Scales evaluate what their names imply)
73
The Kuder Career Interests Assessment indicates degree of matching with each of 16 overarching career c___s and provides an overview of an examinee's interests as they relate to Holland's RIASEC occupational themes
career clusters (based on National Career Clusters Framework (16 clusters and 79 career pathways) (highlights top 5 clusters and provides resources for learning about jobs in those clusters)
74
Between the Differential Aptitude Test (DAT) and the General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB), which is used with HS seniors and adults for vocational counseling and job placement and which is for students grades 7-12 to assist with educational and career counseling?
The DAT is for students grades 7-12 to assist with educational and career counseling
The GATB is used with HS seniors and adults for vocational counseling and job placement
75
The research has confirmed that the various psychomotor skills (often reflecting dexterity and coordination) are relatively [independent/interdependent]
independent (there is no underlying "general psychomotor factor," unlike the g for intelligence)
76
For use especially in structured personality test development, e___ criterion k___ gives test items to appropriate criterion groups (e.g., those with depression and those without) and items that distinguish the two are used in the test.
empirical criterion keying
77
The MMPI-3 was originally developed using e___ criterion k___ using groups of psychiatric inpatients (grouped by dx) at a Minnesota hospital and a control group, with items distinguishing diagnosed groups and the controls
empirical criterion keying
78
Which of the following is false regarding the MMPI-3?
A. It was released in 2020.
B. It includes new nationally representative norms.
C. It includes a German language version with norms from a German-speaking sample.
D. It uses updated items and scales that better represent current understanding or disorders.
C.
(Spanish, not German)
79
On the MMPI Validity scales, which is associated with "faking bad" and which is associated with "faking good"?
A. L (Lie)
B. F (Frequency)
C. K (Correction)
B. F (Frequency) - faking bad
C. K (Correction) - faking good
(L (Lie) is associated with presenting oneself in a favorable light)
80
On the MMPI, a high score on the L (Lie) Scale indicates an attempt to present oneself in a ___ light or lacking i___ of one's own motivations. A high score on the F (Frequency) suggests responsive c___ness or an attempt to "fake ___." A high score on the K (Correction) suggests d___ness or an attempt to "fake ___," and the scale is useful as a "suppressor variable" bc it helps correct for d__"__ness in responses
Both the ___ and ___ scales are associated with poor treatment prognosis.
Lie scale...favorable light...lacking insight;
Frequency scale...responsive carelessness..."fake bad";
Correction scale...defensiveness (or denial, resistance)..."fake good";
Both the Lie and Correction scales are associated with poor treatment prognosis.
(High K score indicates answering all "false.") (While the L (Lie) scale does reflect efforts to present oneself in an overly favorable light, it typically indicates naïve or unsophisticated defensiveness—such as denying minor human faults. It is less strongly associated with responding "false" to all items or with calculated denial and resistance to treatment.)
81
On the MMPI, raw scores are converted to T scores for interpretation. Select the correct means, SDs, and cutoff for interpretation on the MMPI.
A. M=50; SD=10; >65 clin significant
B. M=60; SD=15; >70 clin significant
C. M=100; SD=10; >115 clin significant
A. M=50; SD=10; >65 clin significant
82
(Invalid MMPI profiles) When scores on the L, F, and K scales of the MMPI for a V-shaped pattern (hi L/K, low F), this suggests that someone is trying to show themselves [favorably/unfavorably].
favorably (common for child custody litigants)
83
(Invalid MMPI profiles) An extremely elevated ___ scale on the MMPI with a hi value on the __"__-K index suggests sx exaggeration ("fake bad") and has been linked to malingering.
F (Frequency) scale (F minus K greater than +9)
84
(Invalid MMPI profiles) A very elevated F scale score and hi scores (T>65) on most or all the clinical scales suggests ___ responding to test items.
random responding
85
(Invalid MMPI profiles) When examiness respond true to all items, which two validity scales tend to be below 50 and which other one tends to be elevated? If every item was answered false, would the scale elevations be reversed or would all 3 validity scales be elevated?
L and K below 50, F elevated;
if every item false all scales elevated (random responding + faking good?)
86
Although the MMPI has not shown to be very helpful for differential diagnosis, it is used for assessing personality and behavior through p___ analysis, which involves considering the [1-5/2-3] scales with the highest scores
profile analysis; 2-3 scales
87
Cattell's Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire was developed on the basis of ___ analysis.
factor analysis (identified 16 primary personality traits)
88
According to the Big Five Personality traits (NEO Personality Inventory-3), people high in ___ tend to make others happy, and they tend to be altruistic, trusting, and compliant.
agreeableness (those low in agreeableness are less concerned with what others think of them and may be willing to make more unpopular decisions)
89
The N in the OCEAN Big Five personality acronym refers to N___, which includes anxiety, hostility, depression, self-consciousness, impulsivity, and vulnerability to stress
Neurotocism
90
Which personality theory was derived by an atheoretical lexical approach that assumed that all socially relevant personality characteristics are encoded in language?
A. Myers-Briggs Types
B. Big Five personality traits
C. Cattell's 16 Personality Factors
B. Big Five personality traits (original list derived by Gordon Allport in 1925 from Webster's Dictionary) (Research has generally confirmed that the five-factor model replicates across cultures)
91
The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) is based on the work of psychologist Carl ___, including 4 bipolar dimensions: Introversion-Extroversion (I/E), Sensing-Intuition (S/N), Thinking-Feeling (T/F), and Judging-Perceiving (J/P). Although it is used often in ___ counseling, results about its validity for these purposes are mixed.
Carl Jung; career counseling (to select a college major or career path)
92
According to the study materials, the Rorschach Inkblot Test can be administered to participants as young as [2/4/6]
2 (other sources say as young as 3 or 5)
93
(Rorschach interpretation)
A large number of [whole/unusual detail] responses suggests integrated, organized thinking.
Many [color/white space] responses indicates emotionality and impulsivity.
Use of [uncommon details/white space] suggests oppositional tendencies.
Confabulation suggests ___ damage, emot disturbance, or i___ disability.
whole - integrated, organized thinking
color - emot, impulsive
white space - oppositionality
confab - brain damage, emot disturbance, intellectual disability
94
T/F: Reseach on the Rorschach has always yielded positive and conclusive data about its reliability and validity
F: Early studies yielded negative or inconclusive data about reliability + validity, although Exner system shown to have some better reliability + validity
95
Which 2 personality tests are based on Murray's theory of needs?
A. Rorschach
B. MMPI-3
C. Thematic Apperception Test
D. Edwards Personal Preference Schedule
C. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) (20 ambiguous scene cards in total, little use for diagnostic specificity but useful for gross diagnostic distinctions, lacks single standardized scoring system or strong psychometric properties)
and
D. Edwards Personal Preference Schedule (EPPS) (measures relative strength of Murray's needs using a forced-choice format to minimize social desirability bias)
96
The Halstead-Reitan N___ Test Battery (HRNB) is used to detect ___ damage and determine its severity and possible location, with a Halstead Impairment Index ranging from 0 to ___, with higher scores indicating greater impairment.
Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Test Battery; brain damage; 0 to 1.0
97
Between the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery (HRNB) and the Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery (LNNB), which takes less time to administer; is more highly standardized re: content, admin, and scoring; and provides more complete coverage of neurological deficits/more precise ID of brain damage?
The Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery (so it's faster, more standardized, more comprehensive, more precise)
98
Which of these assessments involves having an examinee copy a geometric drawing off of 16 stimulus cards (copy phase) and then do them again from memory (recall phase), used as a measure of visual-motor integration and neuropsych screener?
A. Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Test Battery (HRNB)
B. Wisconsin Card Sorting Test
C. Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test (Bender II)
C. Bender-Gestalt II (The Benton Visual Retention Test (Benton VRT) also involves visual cognitive assessment for neuropsych eval using recreations of geometric figures produced from memory, although doesn't assess academically or ID emot problems like Bender does and doesn't requiring copying figures at first)
99
The Beery-Buktenica Developmental Test of Visual-Motor Integration (Beery VMI) involves examinees copying increasingly difficult geometric figures in order to assess for [which 2: deficits w/ neurological impairment/deficits that could lead to learning+bh problems/deficits suggestive of concussion]
assess for deficits w/ neurological impairment and deficits that could lead to learning+bh problems
100
The Wisconsin Card Sorting Test (WCST) is sensitive to damage in what brain region? It is used to assess the ability to form ___ concepts and ___ cognitive strategies in response to feedback.
frontal lobe (impaired performance linked to alcoholism, autism, schizophrenia, depression, and malingering (Spreen & Strauss, 1998));
form abstract concepts and shift cognitive strategies in response to feedback
101
The Stroop Color-Word Association Test assesses the degree to which an examinee can suppress a p___ (habitual) response to instead do an unusual one. It is sensitive to ___ lobe damage and has been linked to ADHD, mania, schizophrenia, and depression.
prepotent (habitual) response; frontal lobe damage
102
The Tower of London, Tower of Hanoi, Stroop Color-Word Association Test, and Wisconsin Card Sorting Test all are helpful in detecting ___ lobe damage
frontal lobe damage (they also all detect depression and (inconsistently) other conditions, such as Autism, ADHD, and schizophrenia)
103
To measure attention, memory, and executive functioning (planning) the best option would be to use which 2:
A. Tower of London
B. Beery VMI
C. Tower of Hanoi
D. Wisconsin Card Sorting Test
A. or C.
104
The Mini Mental Status Exam (MMSE) is a screening tool for cog impairments for ___ adults and assesses 6 aspects: orientation, registration (immediate recall), attention and calculation, delayed recall, language, and visual construction. Scores that are ___ and below indicate cognitive impairment (30 Max score)
older adults; 24 and below indicate cognitive impairment
105
The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to assess to the level of consciousness in individuals with a brain injury. A numbered score is given in three categories [___-opening, verbal ___, and m___ responses] and summed. Scores between 3 and [8/15/30] are considered unconscious
eye-opening, verbal utterances, and motor responses (i.e., visual response, verbal response, and motor response);
3 and 8 (scores range from 3-15, and 3-8 is considered unconscious)
106
The Rancho Los Amigos Scale of Cognitive Functioning is a measure of cognitive r___ during the first weeks to months following a head ___. It involves rating the patient in terms of [3/10/20] levels with [lower/higher] levels indicating greater troubles with functioning and need for assistance.
cognitive recovery; a head injury; 10 levels with lower levels indicating greater troubles with functioning and need for assistance (lower rating is similar to Glasgow Coma Scale with lower scores meaning greater brain injury and more unconscious state)
107
Development of the Beck Hopelessness Scale (BHS) was based on research showing that hopelessness is an accurate prediction of ___ ___ and behavior
suicidal ideation and behavior
108
A score of 29 on the Beck Depression Inventory-2 would typically indicate [minimal/mild/moderate/severe] depression. A score of 10 would indicate what level?
severe depression; minimal depression
(0-13: minimal
14-19: mild
20-28: moderate
29-63: severe)
(21 items total, 0-3 score per item)
109
Assessment of ADHD in children often begins with ___-band scales that assess general bh and psych functioning and helps distinguish ADHD from other disorders, and then is followed by ___-band scales to get more detailed information and facilitate tx planning and eval.
broad-band...narrow-band
(broad ex. Behavioral Assessment System for Children (BASC-3), and Child Behavior Checklist (CBCL)
narrow ex. Conners 3, Vanderbilt Assessment Scales or ADHD Rating Scale V, or Attention Deficit Disorders Evaluation Scales (ADDES-5), as well as performance tests like Stroop Test or Conners' Continuous Performance Test (CPT-3))
110
The Autism Diagnostic Observation Schedule, Second Edition (ADOS-2) is a semi-structured, direct assessment of social ____ and p___, while the Autism Diagnositic ___-Revised (ADI-R) is a standardized __"__ completed with a caregiver.
direct assessment of social communication and play; Autism Diagnostic Interview-Revised is a standardized interview
111
An IQ of ___ or below is usually considered meeting criteria for intellectual disability
70 (+/-5 points based on clinical judgment of the psychologist)
112
Criteria for intellectual disability include onset in the developmental period, sig limits to IQ functioning, and sig limits to adaptive functioning. Limitations for adaptive functioning can be assessed with a standarized scale of adaptive behavior. Which of these are examples of such a test?
A. Vineland Adaptive Behavior Scales
B. Behavioral Assessment System
C. Adaptive Behavior Assessment System
A. and C. (B. could be the BASC-3 (B. A. S. for Children, 3rd Ed))
113
The ___ Adaptive Behavior Scales [__"__-3] is used to evaluate ___ skills for children and adults suspected of having an i___ disability, a___ spectrum disorder, ADHD, ___ injury, or dementia and to assist in the development of e___tional and t___ plans. It is appropriate for people age [0-90/5-70] and can be completed in interview or rating scale format with a caregiver.
Vineland Adaptive Behavior Scales; evaluate adaptive skills; intellectual disability, autism spectrum; brain injury; educational and treatment plans; 0-90
(communication, daily living skills, and socialization, and motor skills for kids <9 and optional maladaptive bh index)
114
Which of the following is not true of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA)?
A. All students with a suspected disability from infancy to 21 must be evaluated by a team of specialists to determine their specific needs
B. An IEP must be developed for each kid w/ a disability enrolled in the public school system that provides educat for the students in the "least restrictive environment" and that has been approved by the child's parents
C. Reliable, valid, and nondiscriminatory psychological tests may be used, and assignment to special education classes must only be made on the basis of 1 IQ test
C. (assignment to spec ed classes cannot be made on the basis of any single test, including an IQ test)
115
According to the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA), an IEP must be developed for each kid w/ a disability enrolled in the public school system that provides educat for the students in the "least ___ environment" and that has been approved by the child's ___s
"least restrictive environment"; child's parents
116
Which court case determined that IQ testing would not be allowed for Black children in the state of CA for the purpose of spec ed placement?
A. Larry P. v. Riles (1979)
B. Brown v. Board of Education (1954)
C. Jenkins v. United States (1962)
A. Larry P. v. Riles (1979)
(Brown v. Board was the supreme court case ruling against school segregation
Jenkins v. US was the The D.C. Circuit Court of Appeals case allowing for psychologists to provide expert testimony on issues of mental illness or insanity)
117
Larry P. v. Riles (1979) was brought by plaintiffs on behalf of Black children who were disproportionately enrolled in ___ ___ classes in the SF school system. Based primarily on expert witness testimony, the judged ruled that "IQ tests are racially and culturally biased, [and] have a discriminatory impact on Black children," banning IQ testing for Black children in CA for the purpose of __"__ __"__ placement.
special education classes...placement
118
Malingering is a conscious effort by an individual to fabricate or exaggerate psychological or physical sxs for the purpose of obtaining...
an external reward
119
Which of the following, in conjunction with other sources of information, is considered a valid screening device for identifying brain damage, assessing school readiness in first graders, predicting academic achievement, and identifying emotional problems?
A. Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test-II
B. Benton Visual Retention Test
C. Beery-Buktenica Developmental Test of Visual-Motor Integration (Beery VMI)
A. Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test-II
(The Benton Visual Retention Test (BVRT) is used to assess visual memory, visual perception, and visual-motor skills to identify brain damage in individuals ages eight and older.
The Beery VMI is used to assess the visual-motor integration skills of individuals ages two and older to identify deficits that are associated with neurological impairments or might lead to learning and behavior problems.)
120
M___ should be suspected when there are inconsistencies between (a) the individual's test or subtest scores, (b) behavioral observations of the individual and their test results, and/or (c) information obtained directly from the individual and from collateral sources (Weiner, 2003).
Malingering
121
(MMPI) The validity scale configuration where the L scale and the K scale are below a T score of ___ and the F scale is at or above a T score of ___ is the most frequently encountered array in clinical settings. Clients with this configuration are admitting to personal and emotional difficulties, are requesting assistance, and are unsure of their resources to deal with these problems. Under most conditions, this configuration is most desirable for any form of psychological intervention or treatment.
50; 65
122
On the MMPI, a T-score of [60/65/70] or higher is considered clinically significant for all scales.
65 (M=50, SD=10)
123
Raven's Progressive Matrices are:
A. measures of simultaneous and sequential processing
B. measures of inductive and deductive reasoning
C. nonverbal measures of general intelligence
C.
124
Read: MMPI-3 Clinical Scale profiles:
Clinical scales 4 (Antisocial Behavior) and 9 (Hypomanic Activation) indicate possible impulsivity, risk-taking, rule-breaking, and social misconduct. Individuals scoring high on these scales may have a history of substance use and antisocial behavior.
1 (RC1) (Somatic Complaints) and 6 (RC6) (Ideas of Persecution): emotional distress and potential paranoia
3 (Hysteria) and 7 (Dysfunctional Negative Emotions): mistrustful, emotionally reactive individual
2 (Low Positive Emotions) and 0 (Social Introversion): depressive symptoms and social withdrawal
8 (Abberant Experiences): unusual perceptions or thoughts associated with thought dysfunction
RCd (Demoralization): general unhappiness and dissatisfaction
125
The Columbia Mental Maturity Scale-Third Edition (CMMS) is a measure of general reasoning for individuals aged [3:6 through 9:11/65:0 through 90+]
3:6 through 9:11
126
Regarding examiner qualifications for administering psychological tests, what kind of tests are Level B tests?
1. Those that should be administered only by individuals with a grad degree in psych who are licensed psychologists or closely supervised by such a person
2. Those that require advanced coursework and supervised experienced in testing
3. Those that be may administered and interpreted by non-psychologists
2.
(1. describes Level C
3. describes Level A)
(Ethical Standards for the Distribution of Psychological Tests and Diagnostic Aids (APA, 1950))
127
Read: The Block Design subtest actually is a measure of nonverbal reasoning, visual-motor coordination, and processing speed...
not mental manipulation, concentration, and attention
128
The FSIQ on the WISC-V is derived from a combination of scores on a subset of 7 core subtests: Similarities, Vocabulary, Block Design, Matrix Reasoning, Figure Weights, Digit Span, and ___.
Coding
129
Which of the following WAIS-IV indexes is least sensitive to (least adversely affected by) Alzheimer's dementia?
A. Processing Speed
B. Working Memory
C. Perceptual Reasoning
D. Verbal Comprehension
D. Verbal Comprehension
(The research has confirmed that the WAIS is useful for assessing aspects of cognitive ability that are affected by Alzheimer's dementia. The Verbal Comprehension Index is least likely to be impacted, considering that verbal information typically is stored in long-term memory and is not inherently impacted by declines in short-term memory and processing speed.
Processing speed is directly impacted by the natural aging process. This decline often is exacerbated by mild Cognitive Impairment and Alzheimer's.
Working memory is significantly impacted by Alzheimer's, as short-term memory deteriorates in response to the disease.
The Perceptual Reasoning Index is significantly impacted by Alzheimer's, as it secondarily assesses processing speed and working memory.)
130
Read:
Tests used to assess the intellectual development of infants under age 2 include the Bayley Scales of Infant and Toddler Development and the Fagan Test of Infant Intelligence (which measures selective attention)
131
The Wonderlic Personnel Test is a:
A. measure of clerical skills
B. brief measure of cognitive ability
C. brief interest inventory
B. brief measure of cognitive ability
(The Wonderlic Personnel Test is a 12-minute, 50-item exam that assesses cognitive ability (general intelligence) and is used in organizations to assist with hiring decisions.)
132
Read: Although the use of anatomically correct dolls to evaluate children for sexual abuse is controversial, there is evidence that they are useful in some circumstances.
There is evidence that children who have been sexually abused are more likely than those who have not to provide sexualized responses to these dolls. In addition, they are useful for children who have limited verbal abilities or are too embarrassed to verbally describe what has happened to them.
133
Children with a___ tend to find embedded figures (small parts within a whole figure) faster than non-a___ peers on the Embedded Figures Test, which is a measure of field ___/___
autism/autistic; field dependence/independence
134
The Big Five personality traits model is generally replicable across cultures. However, factor analyses have not been entirely consistent, with evidence for ___ showing the weakest replicability in some Asian and other non-Western countries.
openness to experience (conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism are the others)
135
Which of the following is the tendency to be influenced by one's knowledge about the world in evaluating conclusions and to accept them as true because they are believable rather than because they are logically valid?
A. Response bias
B. Belief bias
C. Observer bias
B. Belief bias
(Response bias is the tendency for a study participant to give one answer or type of answer more than others, regardless of the stimulus condition.
Observer bias can occur in unstructured direct observation.)
136
Read: Nomothetic assessments involve establishing generalizations that apply to ALL individuals. Clinicians who adopt this approach study what individuals share with others (e.g., similarities between people).
This contrasts with idiographic assessment, which is the measurement of variables and functional relations that have been individually selected, or derived from assessment stimuli or contexts that have been individually tailored, to maximize their relevance for the PARTICULAR individual.
137
Item c___tion occurs when predictor and criterion assessment instruments contain the same or semantically s___ elements, thus the magnitude of shared variance between the two instruments overestimate the relation between the two constructs due to the overlapping items.
Item contamination (is also known as criterion contamination); similar elements
EPPP
flashcards
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