1
Q
In Pavlov’s experiments, stimuli that naturally elicited salivation (meat powder) were deemed ___ ___ and the salivation as the ___ ___. The bell that played with the presentation of the meat powder eventually became the ___ ___ after enough conditioning trials, and salivation produced by the bell also became the ___ ___.
A
meat powder were deemed unconditioned stimuli; salivation unconditioned response;
bell conditioned stimulus; salivation conditioned response
2
Q
In classical conditioning, the US (unconditioned stim) seems to depend on the presentation of the CS (conditioned stim), which is why [trace/delay/simultaneous/backward] conditioning is the most effective form of it with respect to timing
A
delay (CS precedes US and they overlap with delay of about 1/2 second)
(trace is similar to delay but CS stops before US is presented, 2nd most effective)
(simultaneous is presenting and withdrawing stim at the same time, 3rd most effective)
(backwards conditioning is presenting US before CS and is not effective conditioning (all other types are “forward” conditioning))
3
Q
T/F: typically after about 100 classical conditioning trials, usually the conditioned response (CR) becomes stronger than the unconditioned resp (UR)
A
F: regardless of # of trials, the CR is usually weaker in intensity and or magnitude than the UR, although higher # of trials is related to higher strength and persistence of CR
4
Q
T/F: repeated exposure of the US (unconditioned stim) or the intended CS (conditioned stim) in classical conditioning without their pairing tends to in fact increase the acquisition of the CR (conditioned resp)
A
F: repeated exposure of either of these tends to slow down classical conditioning and acquiring the conditioned response
5
Q
In classical extinction, a conditioned response (CR) ___ly disappears as a result of the CS alone, although occasional “refresher trials” with conditioned pairings can help avoid extinction. Spontaneous ___ occurs when an extinguished conditioned response recurs to the CS without additional pairings, showing that conditioning is suppressed or inhibited but never lost.
A
gradually disappears; Spontaneous recovery (which can also occur with operant conditioning)
6
Q
stimulus g___: responding with conditioned response to stimuli that resemble the conditioned stimuli
A
stimulus generalization (e.g., if the CS was a bell sound, salivating to a sound at a diff frequency or seeing a picture of a bell)
7
Q
The opposite of stimulus generalization is stimulus discrimination, in which selective ___ and ___ occur, in which the intended CS is paired with the US and similar stimuli are not and subjects are taught to respond with a CR only to intended stimuli.
A
selective reinforcement and extinction
8
Q
In stimulus discrimination trials, experimental neurosis can arise when discriminations are ___
A
difficult (involves unusual behaviors like restlessness, aggressiveness, or fear)
9
Q
Higher-order conditioning occurs when a new neutral stimulus is paired with ___ so that the new stimulus produces a conditioned response
A
conditioned stimulus (CS)
(higher-order conditioning –> less intense CR than initial CR/CS results)
(previously established CS serves as an US to establish a CR for a new neutral stimulus) (e.g., the bell and meat powder go together and salivation occurs, bell causes salivation, bell and red light go together, red light causes salivation too)
10
Q
Once a CS/CR pattern is established in classical conditioning, if a new neutral stimulus repeatedly precedes the CS it can evenutally elicit the CR [this is called ___] but if the CS and the new stimuli are presented simultaneously this does not produce conditioning [this is called ___].
A
this is called higher-order conditioning;
this is called blocking (the new stim is redundant information)
(overshadowing occurs when two neutral stimuli occur at the same time prior to UR. learning occurs for both stimuli presented at once or just one of the stimuli but not the other, so one is overshadowed by the other because it is less salient.)
11
Q
John B. ___ is considered the “father of American behaviorism.” He is famous for his “Little Albert” studies, where he conditioned a small child to fear white rats and other similar stimuli.
A
Watson (he argued that all learning is the result of classical conditioning and rejected the use of introspection as the primary method of psychology)
12
Q
(interventions based on counterconditioning) reciprocal inhibition was developed by Wolpe to alleviate anxiety rxns by pairing a ___ stimulus that produces anxiety (CR) with a stimulus (US) that produces r___ or other response that is incompatible with anxiety.
A
pairing a conditioned stimulus…that produces relaxation (examples include systematic desensitization and behavioral sex therapy)
13
Q
read: systematic desensitization entails 4 stages
A
relaxation training, making an anxiety hierarchy, desensitization in imagination, and in vivo desensitization (using SUDS esp. in anxiety hierarchy stage)
14
Q
at what stage of systematic desensitization would techniques like progressive muscle relaxation and deep breathing be introduced? [anxiety hierarchy, desensitization in imagination, desensitization in vivo, relaxation training]
A
relaxation training
15
Q
The dismantling strategy in therapeutic outcomes research has shown that, in systematic desensitization, ext___, or repeated ex___ to the CS w/out the US, is the primary factor responsible for beneficial effects of this counterconditioning technique.
A
extinction, or repeated exposure to the CS w/out the US
16
Q
Sensate focus by Masters and Johnson (1970) involves pairing situations that evoke sexual performance anxiety with p___ physical sensations and re___.
A
pleasurable physical sensations and relaxation (sex therapy found to be most effective for treating premature ejaculation and vaginismus (Genito-Pelvic Pain Disorder) with “squeeze technique” and relaxation/progressive dilators respectively)
17
Q
In vivo aversion therapy has shown to be moderately effective initially for some patients and some problems, especially cigarette smoking, although relapse rates tend to be high and generalizability is limited. T/F?
A
T (it’s most successful when aversive stimulus or its consequence is similar to target behavior, like nausea-inducing drugs for ETOH or rapid smoking for cigarettes)
18
Q
In contrast to in vivo aversion therapy, covert sensitization involves having clients imagine themselves engaging in the maladaptive behavior and experiencing an aversive stimulus. Give an example of one such technique.
A
a smoker envisions themselves smoking and getting sick and throwing up on themselves, or gambling and going to play the slots and being painfully electrically shocked (also involves imagining a “relief” scene in which not doing the behavior is accompanied by pleasant sensations) (the target bh is the conditioned stimulus, while the aversive stimulus is the unconditioned stimulus)
19
Q
Read: interventions based on counterconditioning involve pairing (-) CS with pleasant or antithetical stimuli; interventions based on aversive counterconditioning involve pairing an undesired behavior with unpleasant or demotivating stimuli;
A
interventions based on classical extinction involve presenting the avoided CS without the US while preventing avoidance of CS so that CR extinguishes. It is based on Mowrer’s two factor learning, which says that phobias are the result of classical and operant conditioning - intentionally avoiding a learned fear response
20
Q
T/F: In vivo exposure with response prevention is a treatment for schizophrenia.
A
F: more like OCD or other anxiety and related disorders (involves exposure to avoided stimuli or obsessional cues while preventing compensatory rituals)
21
Q
Evaluation of in vivo exposure with response prevention (ERP) show that
1) prolonged, continuous exposure to CS is usually [less/more] effective than several brief exposures
2) simultaneous use of a [sleep agent/tranquilizer] that reduces anxiety can enhance effects
3) for it to work, ERP must be done with only a therapist, T/F?
A
1) prolonged more effective than several brief
2) tranquilizer can help
3) F: sometimes can be done in group setting, or alone, or with a partner (for agoraphobia and OCD)
22
Q
T/F: implosive therapy involves presenting the feared stimulus vividly in the imagination of a patient to the point of high anxiety in order to extinguish the avoidance response.
A
T (it makes use of psychodynamic themes to embellish the internal images)
23
Q
EMDR has only been shown to be effective for PTSD. T/F?
A
F (also used for panic attacks, phobias, depression, and SU disorders)
24
Q
Read: While EMDR assumes that rapid eye movements or bilateral stimulation can trigger the neurophysiological adaptive information-processing mechanism that trauma can disrupt, some researchers argue that the eye movements are an unnecessary component of the treatment and that EMDR is largely an imaginal exposure technique (Davidson and Parker, 2001).
A
Meanwhile, other researchers have criticized these researchers for the inappropriate populations and limited amount of treatment in their meta-analysis. EMDR has a conditional recommendation for PTSD from the APA, a place in the highest category of effectiveness and research support from the American Psychiatric Association and the VA, as well as a strong recommendation from the International Society for Traumatic Stress Studies.
25
The Adaptive I___ Processing (AIP) model explains that the sxs of PTSD are considered a result of inadequately processed past experiences and/or insufficient integration of sensory, cognitive, and affective elements of a traumatic memory that are continuing to cause distress, and EMDR aids in that integration of memory into other parts of the brain.
Adaptive Information Processing
26
Read: According to the study materials, EMDR is known for its signature bilateral stimulation and its lack of homework outside of session (i.e., all treatment is contained within each session).
And it involves less intense and detailed exposure to the traumatic memory.
27
Read: The 9 phases of EMDR:
1) Client History
2) Preparation
3) Assessment
4) Desensitization
5) Installation
6) Body Scan
7) Closure
8) Re-evaluation
28
The basic principles of operant conditioning were first described by Edward ___ and were subsequently expanded upon by B. F. ___
Edward Thorndike...B. F. Skinner
29
Thorndike was well-known for the study of ___ behavior and found that his subjects used ___-and-___ in problem situations. According to his law of effect, positive consequences ___ behavior, while negative results have little or no effect.
study of animal/cat behavior (in operant conditioning studies in puzzle boxes); trial-and-error; positive consequences increase behavior
30
In which of the following is a behavior more likely to increase rather than decrease? In which of the following is a stimulus applied as opposed to withdrawn?
-positive reinforcement
-positive punishment
-negative reinforcement
-negative punishment
bh likely to increase: positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement.
stimulus applied: positive reinforcement, positive punishment
31
If an organism is placed in a chamber with a painful electrified floor and are given the option to press a lever which makes the electrification stop, would this be an example of negative reinforcement or positive reinforcement if the likelihood of pressing the lever increased in the future?
negative reinforcement (removal of unpleasant stimuli)
32
A child normally receives an allowance per week, but one week she hits her younger sibling and the allowance is withheld for that week to encourage her to stop hitting. Is this an example of negative reinforcement or negative punishment?
negative punishment (take away a stimulus to decrease likelihood of behavior continuing)
33
A rat in a Skinner box is reinforced to press a button for food. Suddenly, pressing the button no longer releases food anymore. Instead of ceasing the button pressing, the rat presses the button more than usual before this behavior declines. This is called an extinction (response) ___ in operant conditioning
extinction (response) burst
34
In operant conditioning, behavioral contrast occurs when an organism is reinforced for 2 different behaviors and the reinforcement for 1 of them stops. The organism is likely to decrease that behavior but [increase/maintain] the one that is still reinforced.
in behavioral contrast, the one that is still reinforced it is increased
35
Which of the following are primary reinforcers and which are secondary?
a) money
b) applause
c) food
d) water
e) work promotion
c) food and d) water are primary reinforcers (unconditioned and inherently desirable).
a) money, b) applause, and c) work promotion are secondary reinforcers (conditioned, valuable only through repeated association with primary reinforcers).
(generalized reinforcers are secondary reinforcers that are paired with several different primary reinforcers, e.g., money)
36
(Operant conditioning) Although the rate of acquisition of a bh is fastest when the bh is reinforced on a ___ schedule, once the bh has been acquired, the best way to maintain the bh is to switch to an ___ (partial) schedule
continuous schedule; intermittent (partial) schedule
37
(Operant conditioning) In intermittent scheduling, the rate of reinforcement depends on either time between reinforcements (interval) or number of responses (ratio).
- Fixed Interval (FI): Rein after fixed period of time, # responses don't matter - [low/high] response rates
- Variable Interval (VI): Rein after variable period of time w/ certain average - steady and relatively [low/high] response rates
- Fixed Ratio (FR): Rein after fixed # of responses, steady and relatively [low/high] response rates
- Variable Ratio (VR): Rein after variable # of responses w/ certain average, [lowest/highest] response rates
FI - low response rates
VI - steady and low response rates
FR - steady and high response rate
VR - highest response rate (hardest to extinguish)
(FI ex. hourly wage; VI ex. pop quizzes during a class term; FR ex. compensation about finishing X units on the job; VR ex. gambling on the slots)
38
According to ___ law in operant conditioning, an organism will match its relative frequency of responding to the relative frequency of reinforcement when there are two or more simultaneous and independent schedules of reinforcement for different responses.
matching law
39
B. F. Skinner found that accidental, noncontingent reinforcement can lead to s___ behavior
superstitious behavior (which animals in his experiments displayed)
40
(Operant conditioning) S___ control is the process by which a bh does or does not occur due to the presence of discriminative stimuli. (+) discriminative stimuli signal that the bh will be reinforced, while (-) discriminative stimuli (S-delta stimuli) signal that the bh will not be reinforced.
Stimulus control
(cues in the environment may signal whether a response will be reinforced or not)
41
In operant conditioning, stimulus generalization occurs when ___ stimuli elicit the same response. Response generalization occurs when reinforcement of a specific response increases occurrence of ___ responses.
stimulus generalization...similar stimuli elicit the same response (like a pigeon learning to peck a blue button but also a green one); response generalization...similar responses (like a child being reinforced to say "dada" but also other words)
42
In operant conditioning, escape conditioning is most associated with what kind of conditioning? Reinforcement or punishment? Positive or negative? Avoidance conditioning involves a cue ((+) discrimination stimuls) that precedes the onset of a ___ ___ that signals its application, and an organism learns to perform a target behavior in the presence of the cue.
Negative reinforcement (like learning to press a lever for an electrified floor); negative reinforcer (Avoidance conditioning involves both classical and operant conditioning, i.e., two factor learning) (Avoidance conditioning is more complex than escape conditioning and involves presenting a cue immediately before the aversive stimulus is applied so that the individual can avoid the aversive stimulus by engaging in the target behavior as soon as the cue is presented.)
43
Read: Operant conditioning and intermittent scheduling: FI is getting a reinforcer at a specific time interval
On a fixed interval (FI) schedule, the subject stops responding once the reinforcement is delivered and then begins responding again toward the end of the interval. This produces a "scallop" in the cumulative recording.
44
(Interventions based on operant conditioning) The target bh and the positive reinforcer must have a contingent relationship where the reinforcer should be available ___ when the target bh has been performed. Especially when reinforcement is being used to establish a new bh, reinforcement should be i___. T___ is referred to as the process of reducing the proportion of reinforcements from continuous to intermittent after the bh is well-established
available only when the target bh performed; should be immediate; Thinning
45
(Interventions based on operant conditioning) While higher amounts of pos reinforcement generally help conditioning, too much reinforcement can lead to satiation, and the reinforcer ___ its value, which is more likely with p___ reinforcers and c___ schedules. Verbal c___ of the contingent relationship btw/ a bh and its reinforcer can enhance its effectiveness. Prompts to do a bh can help acquire the bh, acting as a positive discrimination stimulus, while gradualling removing a prompt is called f___.
reinforcer loses its value...more likely with primary reinforcers and continuous schedules; Verbal clarification; gradually removing a prompt is called fading
46
Read:
Both shaping and chaining are important in establishing complex behavior in operant conditioning interventions, however, a total sequence of events is the goal in chaining, while the final (terminal) behavior is of interest in shaping.
47
Give an example of a use of the Premack principle in operant conditioning interventions, I.e., using a high probability behavior to reinforce a low probability behavior
-Telling a child student that he can watch TV only after doing his homework for an hour.
-Telling a child she can have a cookie for dessert only after she has finished her vegetables.
-Agreeing with a client that they can play basketball outside after they have worked on their chores inside for an hour first.
48
(Operant conditioning interventions) In differential reinforcement, target ___s are extinguished while alternative __"__s are ___.
target behaviors are extinguished while alternative behaviors are reinforced (ex. a child is reinforced to chew on a sensory chewing bracelet as opposed to their hands)
49
(Operant conditioning interventions) Punishment is most effective when it is...
-I___ly applied at the outset of the bh
-Applied on a ___ schedule
-___ in intensity (too much and it produces rxns and too little makes habituation)
-Clarified verbally that it is the result of the target bh
-Accompanied by withholding all ___ ___ that perpetuated the bh
-Accompanied by reinforcement for a___ bh's
-Immediately applied
-Applied on a continuous schedule
-Moderate in intensity
-Accompanied...positive reinforcement
-Accompanied...alternative behaviors
50
Evaluation of punishment as a technique to change behavior shows that it does not actually eliminate behavior but merely ___ it.
suppresses it (Effects of punishment may only apply in certain situations when the punishment takes place or be short-term or inconsistent, and a person may engage in the behavior when punishment is less likely. Punishment is also associated with several negative side effects like fear of the punishing agent and increases in aggressiveness, negative emotions, and escape and avoidance, e.g., lying and running away.)
51
Verbal reprimands, like saying "No!" or "Stop!," have effects that are likely to be temporary if they are not backed up or followed by other ____.
by other consequences
52
Over___ is a positive punishment that involves a penalty for undesirable behavior that can include restitution and positive practice, as well as physical guidance. Negative practice is essentially the opposite of positive practice where a person r___s the target bh to the point of aversion or exhaustion
Overcorrection; Negative practice...repeats the target bh (Because physical guidance may be necessary, overcorrection is contraindicated for children who have experienced abuse or who are more physically powerful than the person administering the treatment.)
53
A parent uses a token economy to reward her children for good behavior but also removes tokens for arguing or failing to complete chores each week. She engages in r___ c___, a type of negative punishment that involves removing reinforcers when undesired behavior occurs.
response cost
54
Time-out entails removal of all positive [punishment/reinforcement] for a brief, prespecified period of time following a target bh
removal of all positive reinforcement (may be considered a negative punishment, research shows length of time not critical and it helps to have brief explanation of why its taking place)
55
(Operant conditioning interventions) Operant extinction entails withholding ___ment from a previously __"__ed response in order to eliminate or decrease it. These factors help this extinction:
-withholding ___% of the time
-extinguishing after [continuous/intermittent] schedule used to establish conditioning
-extinguishing after [long+intense/brief+not intense] schedule to establish conditioning
-also reinforcing ___ behaviors
withholding reinforcement from a previously reinforced response;
-withholding 100% of the time
-extinguishing after continuous schedule
-extinguishing after brief+not intense schedule
-also reinforcing alternative behaviors
56
The study materials refer to behavioral contracts between agreeing parties (like parents and children or therapist and client) as c___ contracts, which specify behaviors to be modified and consequences for those behaviors. Is it helpful to have the person whose behavior is supposed to be modified actively participate in the development of the contract?
contingency contracts;
yes
57
Token economies rely primarily on [primary/secondary] reinforcers that motivate behavior change, with those reinforcers being withheld or taken away for undesirable behavior
(generalized) secondary reinforcers that can be exchanged for desired items, activities, and other back-up (primary) reinforcers
58
social skills training relies on principles of what two kinds of learning used in behavioral therapy as well as social ___ theory
operant and classical conditioning and social learning theory
59
Functional behavioral assessment (or analysis) is conducted to determine the purpose of a behavior and more desirable substitute behaviors, as well as a___s and c___s of the target behavior
antecedents and consequences (FBA interventions work to eliminate the antecedents and consequences of the target behavior that maintain it and providing antecedents and consequences for the alternative behavior)
60
Cognitive learning theories reject the notion that external ___ is necessary for learning to occur
external reinforcement
61
Tolman, and his theory of latent learning, proposed that learning occurs even without r___ for said learning, although it can motivate performance of said learning.
without reinforcement (Tolman's experiments had rats who learned a maze even without reinforcement, although reinforcement aided learning)
62
(Cognitive learning theories) What kind of learning reflects an internal cognitive restructuring of the perceptual field that enhances an organism's ability to achieve its goals?
Insight learning (like a chimpanzee having an "aha" moment to put 2 sticks together to reach a banana) (Kohler a major contributor)
63
Bandura's observational learning asserts that bh's can be acquired simply by ___ing someone else (a model) perform those bh's, and involves 4 processes (attention, retention, production, and motivation). P___ modeling is the most effective type of observational learning, especially for phobias, combining modeling with guided participation. Self-e___ beliefs, which are about one's ability to do a bh or reach a goal, are a primary source of m___.
observing someone else; Participant modeling is the most effective type of observational learning; Self-efficacy beliefs...primary source of motivation
64
Read: Bandura's (1986) theory of observational learning...
is also known as social learning theory or social cognitive theory
65
In Bandura's original experiments with the "Bobo" doll in the aggressive display condition, which 2 of the following were true?
a) both boys and girls were more likely to imitate male models than female models
b) boys were more likely to imitate physically aggressive behaviors than girls
c) boys and girls imitated the verbally aggressive behaviors to a similar degree
b) and c)
boys more likely to imitate male models and girls more likely to imitate female models (providing incentives to imitating the aggressive model reduced gender differences in the imitation of physically aggressive behaviors)
66
May is in an observational learning situation. Her models include Nadine, who is a high-status expert similar to May in terms of age and gender and who exhibits visible, salient, and relevant behavior and whose behavior is reinforced by her environment, and Nathan, who exhibits low prestige, is a different age and gender, and does behavior that seems irrelevant and leads to negative consequences. Who is May more likely to imitate?
Nadine (seeing someone else be reinforced for their behavior is called vicarious reinforcement)
67
(Observational learning) Modeling for phobia treatment is most effective when it is paired with g___ participation to make participant modeling. When modeling is used for phobias, c___ models who initially exhibit apprehension around a feared stimulus but then ___ their fear and do the bh are more effective than mastery models who engage in the bh without fear.
guided participation; coping models...overcome their fear
68
Read: self-efficacy beliefs are a primary source of motivation and are impacted by 4 informational sources:
1) enactive attainment (prior success in doing the task)
2) vicarious experiences (seeing similar others doing the task)
3) verbal persuasion (others' encouragement)
4) emot and physio states (arousal, anxiety, fatigue, and other emot and physical feedback)
69
Vicarious learning is derived from indirect sources such as observation, rather than direct, hands-on, instruction. Bandura proposed that vicarious learning has several effects including the acquisition of new responses and the i___ or disi___ of an existing response
inhibition or disinhibition
70
Read: reciprocal determinism in observational/social learning theory states that...
there is a reciprocal (interactive and influential) relat btw/ a person's environment, overt behaviors, and cognitive, affective, and other personal characteristics, i.e., the environment influences behavior, behavior influences the environment, and both influence the individual.
71
Learned helplessness (Seligman) refers to the tendency to give up efforts to assert control on the environment, originally derived from studies on animals subjected to uncontrollably painful environments, and has been applied to models of depression. The reformulated version of the model added that some forms of depression are due to the tendency to a___ negative events to internal, stable, and global factors. A subsequent revision kept a__"__s but proposed that they're important only to the extent that they contribute to a sense of ____.
attribute negative events; sense of hopelessness
72
T/F: Ellis was responsible for cognitive therapy (CT), while Beck was responsible for rational-emotive behavior therapy (REBT)
F: Ellis and REBT, Beck and CT
73
Ellis's (1985) rational-emotive behavior therapy (REBT) conceptualizes emotions and behaviors in terms of a chain of events:
A) ___
B) ___
C) emotion or behavior that results from B
Ellis believed that the primary cause of neurosis is the continual repetition of certain irrational B's
A) external/activating event
B) belief about the event
C) emotion or behavior that results from belief about the event
Certain irrational beliefs (like shoulds, musts, awfulizing, low frustration tolerance, (-) evaluations or oneself or others)
(In REBT, D and E are added to chain, i.e., therapist's attempt to dispute and alter irrational belief, and alternative thoughts/beliefs resulting from D)
74
Both REBT and CT share as targets to change irrational or dysfunctional ___ that patients may exhibit that contribute to psychological distress
irrational or dysfunctional beliefs/assumptions/cognitions (they are both cognitive restructuring techniques) (An important distinction between Beck and Ellis is that the former views each mental disorder as being characterized by a unique set of faulty cognitions, while the latter assumes that all disorders derive from the same set of basic irrational beliefs.)
75
In Beck's theory of cognitive (behavioral) therapy, cognitive s___ are the underlying cognitive structures and rules a person lives by, ___ thoughts are the "surface level cognitions" that arise when cognitive s__"__ are activated, and cognitive d___ are systematic biases in info processing and are the link btw/ maladaptive s__"__ and negative __"__ thoughts.
cognitive schemas are the underlying cognitive structures...automatic thoughts are "surface level cognitions"...cognitive distortions are systematic biases (each disorder, like dep or anxt, has a different cognitive profile) (cog distortions are like black/white thinking, overgeneralizations, emotional reasoning, etc.) (Experiences of affective arousal are essential for changing dysfunctional cognitions, according to Beck.)
76
Cognitive (behavioral) therapy relies on c___ empiricism, which involves developing a c__"__ therapist-client relationship and gathering evidence to test hypotheses about the client's b___s and a___s.
collaborative empiricism; beliefs and assumptions
77
Meichenbaum and Gooodman (1971) developed self-i___ training, that involves interpolating adaptive, self-controlling behaviors in particular situations. It involves 5 steps (cognitive modeling, cognitive participant modeling, overt self-i__"__, fading overt self-i__"__, and covert self-i__"__)
self-instruction training (originally a method for helping children learn to control their impulsive behaviors ((Meichenbaum, D. H., & Goodman, J. (1971). Training impulsive children to talk to themselves: A means of developing self-control. Journal of Abnormal Psychology, 77, 115-126).))
78
(Cognitive restructuring techniques) Thought stopping entails eliminating unwanted thoughts by covertly yelling what sort phrase or snapping what sort of thing when the unwanted thoughts occur?
Yelling "stop" to oneself, or snapping a rubber band on one's wrist (often combined with covert assertion, which involves making alternative assertive self-statements following thought stopping)
79
(Cognitive restructuring techniques) Attribution retraining takes from the reformulated learned ___ness model to encourage clients to attribute their failures to external, unstable, and specific factors and their successes to i___, s____, and g___ factors.
learned helplessness model; successes to internal, stable, and global factors
80
(CBT Strategies) Stress inoculation is a CBT technique used to help individuals c___ with stressful and other aversive states by enhancing their c__"__ing ___s.
cope with stressful states...coping skills (It consists of 3 overlapping phases: Cognitive preparation (conceptualization) (what am I doing now to cope?),
Skills acquisition + rehearsal, and
Application + follow through)
81
(CBT strategies) According to problem-solving therapy (PST), which problem-solving style is the only one likely to yield adaptive problem solutions?
a) impulsive/careless
b) avoidance
c) rational
c) rational
(reliance on 5 skills: recognizing the problem, defining the problem, generating alternative solutions, choosing the best solution, and implementing and evaluating the chosen solution)
(PST proposes that problem-solving outcomes are determined by problem orientation (schemas about problems and their solutions) and problem-solving style)
82
(Rehm) Self-control therapy is a [long/brief] form of therapy based on the assumption that deficits in [2/3/4] aspects of self-control increase a person's vulnerability to symptoms of d___ and make it difficult to deal effectively with those symptoms. It is usually conducted as a [group/individual/couples] therapy
brief;
deficits in 3 aspects;
depressive symptoms;
group therapy
(Self-Monitoring,
Self-Evaluation, and
Self-Reinforcement are key aspects)
(Depressed people focus too much on negative events. Treatment attempts to alter this by encouraging clients to recognize the positive events that occur.)
83
Lewinsohn's behavioral model attributes depression to a low rate of response-contingent ___ment due to inadequate __"__ing stimuli in the environment and/or the person's lack of skill in obtaining __"__ment.
reinforcement (when a person's behaviors are not reinforced, this leads the behaviors to extinguish)
84
Read: (CBT techniques) Self-management procedures include self-monitoring, stimulus control, and biofeedback, along with self-instruction and thought stopping.
They emphasize the client's responsibility for modifying their own behavior.
85
(CBT self-management techniques) stimulus control strategies are designed to alter the associations between stimuli and the bh or its consequences in order to reduce a particular bh. Bh is said to be under stimulus control when its performance is contingent on the presence of certain stimuli. Give an example of stimulus control in treatment.
smoking only in certain uncomfortable parts of the home, eating only at mealtimes, studying in a particular location at school, replacing a fetish object with more appropriate sexual stimuli (consists of narrowing, cue strengthening, or fading)
86
The target in biofeedback is usually a [physiological/cognitive] response that is considered involuntary. It is based on the principles of [operant conditioning/cognitive restructuring] and provides immediate feedback. Research has found it to be [about as/not] effective as relaxation training for several problems, but is the treatment of choice for [one/some] disorders.
physiological response;
operant conditioning;
about as effective as relaxation;
some disorders (including Raynaud's disease, urinary and fecal incontinence, and migraine headaches) (Multiple studies have found relaxation training to be as effective as (or even more effective than) EMG biofeedback for tension headaches.) (Thermal (temperature) biofeedback - circulatory disorders (like Raynaud's) and migraines.
GSR (galvanic skin response) biofeedback - stress, anxiety, ADHD, and stuttering.
Respiration biofeedback - anxiety, asthma, and hyperventilation.)
87
Relational Frame Theory is the foundational to what therapy?
A) CBT
B) DBT
C) ACT
C) ACT (RFT explains how human language impacts experiences and subsequent behaviors)
(Ultimately, the goal of acceptance and commitment therapy (ACT) is to promote psychological flexibility through acceptance and committed action to activities that align with an individual's goals and values. ACT does not aim to change unhelpful thoughts and actually suggests that the act of suppressing difficult emotions or avoiding experiences associated with these emotions are the underlying cause of many symptoms.)
88
Memory entails the following:
-Encoding, which is more effective when it involves d___ rehearsal
-Storage, which can be disrupted by ___and ___ interference and ___ trauma
-Retrieval, which is facilitated by using r___ cues
deliberate rehearsal
retroactive and proactive interference and brain trauma
retrieval cues
89
Which model of memory describes memory as having 3 components, sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory?
a) information-processing (multi-store) model
b) levels-of-processing model
a) information-processing model
90
When information becomes the focus of attention, it is transferred to ___-___ memory, in which memory is held for about [10/30/60] seconds without rehearsal.
short-term memory; 30 seconds
91
Information is more likely to be transferred to long-term memory from short-term memory with ___ rehearsal, which involves relating new info to existing info, than with ___ rehearsal, which involves simply repeating the new info with little or no processing.
elaborative rehearsal; maintenance rehearsal
92
Studies on the s___ p___ effect find that recall of a list of items immediately after reading supports the "primacy effect" and the "recency" effect for the first and last bits of information, respectively. However, after a delay before recall, only the [primacy/recency] effect occurs.
serial position effect; primacy effect (only first bit of information recalled) (primacy bc already rehearsed and put in LTM, and recency bc still in short-term memory, but after delay the info is no longer in STM)
93
Which are the three levels of processing in levels-of-processing model of memory?
a) short-term, long-term, and episodic
b) episodic, procedural, semantic
c) structural, phonemic, semantic
c) structural, phonemic, semantic (which is the deepest level of processing with greatest amount of recall)
94
Procedural memory differs from delcarative memory, which can be further divided into semantic and episodic memory. Match the following memories with their memory classification:
1) remembering the story of your first car purchase
2) remembering how to drive a car
3) remembering that Kia and Toyota are both car brands
1) episodic (or declarative or explicit)
2) procedural (or implicit)
3) semantic (or declarative or explicit)
(the hippocampus and frontal lobe seem to mediate explicit memory, while the basal ganglia and cerebellum are important for implicit memory)
95
In controlled conditions, [younger/older] adults tend to do less well in prospective memory, i.e., remembering to do things in the future ("remember to remember"), however, the reverse is true in more naturalistic settings.
older adults tend to do less well in lab settings (in naturalistic settings, they tend to make better use of external aides like lists and calendars) (prospective memory is sometimes classified as a part of declarative memory)
96
Differences between people with good vs. poor working memory appear to come down to the ability to maintain ___ in the presence of distractions (Engle, 2002).
maintain attention in the presence of distractions.
97
Which of these theories of working memory consists of a central executive and 3 subsystems (phonological loop, visuo-spatial sketchpad, episodic buffer)?
a) multi-component model
b) filter theory of selective attention
c) feature-integration theory
a) multi-component model (Baddeley)
(tasks that depend on central executive are the ones most adversely affected by increasing age)
(filter theory of selective attention - bottlenecks in selective attention processes)
(feature-integration - two-stage theory of visual attention that explains how an individual combines pieces of observable information about an object to form a complete perception of the object)
98
Trace decay theory applies to what cognitive process?
forgetting (which is due to the gradual decay of memory traces (engrams) over time as the result of disuse) (some research argues that forgetting is due more to interference than to the decay of memory traces over time based on findings that people forget less when asleep than when awake for an equal amount of time)
99
Johnny learned a list of random words in the morning, but then he learned a different list of words that afternoon that were similar to the first and were not very important, and he was asked to recall both lists. He was not able to recall the second list of words very well, evidencing [retroactive/proactive] interference.
proactive interference
100
Kelly and Daisy are both in the same stats classes this semester. Kelly goes to their 9am class and the 10am one as well, while Daisy sleeps through the 9am class and only goes to the 10am class. When their classmates ask them about what they learned in the 10am class that day, Kelly finds that she remembers it less well than Daisy. This demonstrates what kind of interference?
proactive interference (if they both had gone to the 9am class but only Daisy went to the 10am class, she might have a harder time remembering the 9am class due to retroactive interference)
101
The tip of tongue phenomenon is believed to be inadequate ___ cues
inadequate retrieval cues (cue dependent forgetting)
102
S___ d___ learning highlights that recall of info can be easier when in the same emotional state during learning and recall.
State dependent learning (also encoding specificity principle) (also why recognition is easier than recall since there are more state dependent cues in recognition prompts)
103
Acrostics, acronyms, the keyword method, and method of loci are all examples of what memory strategy?
Mnemonic devices (the first two are verbal mnemonics and the last two are visual mnemonics)
104
Margaret is trying to memorize a series of items. Describe how she might use the method of loci (a mnemonic device) to do so.
She would associate these items with different places in a room or location she is already familiar with, for example, laying out the items in her mind in her bedroom or in front of the building she walks by on her way to school, or placing them on a map she has already memorized.
105
The Yerkes-Dodson law asserts that [low/moderate/high] levels of arousal maximize efficiency of learning and performance. Moreover, the more difficult the task, the [lower/higher] the optimal level of arousal.
moderate levels of arousal maximize efficiency; the more difficult the task, the lower the optimal level of arousal (relat between arousal and learning assumes an inverted-U shape)
106
Trace decay theory predicts that memories fade over time due to [disuse/natural biological deterioration/brain damage]
disuse (stands in contrast to interference theory (proactive and retroactive interference))
107
Read:
The "dual store" model of memory proposes that memory is a two-stage process, comprised of short-term and long-term memory.
The information-processing model (Atkinson & Shiffrin, 1968) describes memory as consisting of three components: sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory.
The levels-of-processing model implies that the depth of rehearsal is more important than the duration of rehearsal.
108
In the context of punishment, s___ occurs when an individual's response to a neutral (innocuous) stimulus increases after the individual has been exposed to a punishing (aversive) stimulus.
sensitization
109
Eb___ (1885) was among the first to conduct empirical studies on human memory. He was the participant in his own research, which involved memorizing lists of nonsense syllables and subsequently recalling the words to evaluate retention. His research led to the identification of learning and forgetting curves. Using these studies, he concluded that most forgetting occurs during the first ___ to five days and then gradually tapers off.
Ebbinghaus; first four to five days
110
Read: Sensory memory provides very brief storage of incoming sensory input. It includes a separate store for each sense, and the duration of sensory memory varies somewhat, depending on the sense.
For iconic (visual) memories, the duration is about .5 to 1.0 seconds; for echoic (auditory) memories, the duration is up to 4 or 5 seconds.
111
Read: CBT and panic disorders
As defined by Aaron Beck, the "goals of cognitive-behavior therapy are to correct faulty information processing and to modify dysfunctional beliefs and assumptions that maintain maladaptive behaviors and emotions" (Comprehensive Handbook of Cognitive Therapy, 1989, p. 28). From the perspective of cognitive-behavior therapy, panic disorder stems from "catastrophic misinterpretations" of bodily sensations and mental experiences. Therefore, the first few sessions of therapy focus on clarifying the nature of the client's symptoms and how they misinterpret them.
112
Read: (Operant conditioning) In punishment trials, habituation occurs when a punishment becomes less effective because it starts low enough for an organism to become used to it. These methods help mitigate habituation:
- Brief vacations from punishment
- Utilizing different methods of punishment
- Restricting the use of punishment to only a couple of specific target behaviors
113
In classical conditioning, ___conditioning occurs when: (1) the neutral stimulus is accidentally paired with the US and, as a result, produces a response similar to the UR; or (2) repeated presentation of the US increases the likelihood that the individual will respond to a novel stimulus (not just the US or CS) with a response similar to the UR, especially in the same context in which the US was presented.
pseudoconditioning (Pseudoconditioning occurs when a neutral stimulus elicits a response due to the accidental pairing of the stimulus with another stimulus that evokes that response or when repeated exposure to a US increases the likelihood that the individual will respond to a neutral stimulus with a response similar to the UR.)
114
Read: Non-contingent reinforcement (the use of positive reinforcement that is not related to a target behavior) is a powerful method to reduce problematic behavior...
for example, having a child who seeks more attention in class sit next to the teacher so they have more regular attention and don't need to engage in the behavior to get it
115
C___ learning refers to responding to two or more stimuli based on their combination rather than on the individual experience of any of those stimuli alone.
C___ learning refers to learning a task in which one classifies objects by being shown example(s) of the object along with their classes or categories. Then the learner will generalize what they have learned to a similar object.
In___ learning is learning that is not premeditated, deliberate, or intentional and that is acquired as a result of some other, possibly unrelated, mental activity.
Configural learning;
Concept learning;
Incidental learning
116
Read: The Hebbian rule is a learning rule that describes how neuronal activities influence the connection between neurons (i.e., synaptic plasticity)
It explains associative learning in which simultaneous firing of cells leads to pronounced increases in synaptic strength between those cells, and provides a biological basis for the pairing of stimulus and response in classical conditioning
117
Read: Sign tracking, in operant conditioning, refers to elicited behavior directed towards a stimulus that is reliably paired with a primary reinforcer.
Instinctive drift is the tendency of learned behavior to gradually return to a more innate behavior. For example, raccoons trained to drop coins into a container will eventually begin to dip the coins into the container, pull them back out, rub them together, and dip them in again. The learned behavior of dropping coins becomes more representative of the innate behavior of food washing.
118
Differential Reinforcement of Incompatible behavior entails only reinforcing behaviors that are i___ with the problem behavior while withholding reinforcement for the problem behavior.
Differential Reinforcement of Alternative behavior entails reinforcing a behavior that serves as a viable ___ for the problem behavior but is not necessarily i__"__ with the problem behavior.
Differential Reinforcement of Other behavior entails delivering reinforcement whenever the problem behavior does not occur during a predetermined ___ of ___.
incompatible;
viable alternative;
a predetermined amount of time
119
Contra___ness is an inability to associate a specific conditioned stimulus and a specific unconditioned stimulus despite repeated conditioning experiences.
___ learning refers to the ability adaptive for evolution, allowing certain associations to be learned more readily than others.
Contrapreparedness;
Prepared learning
120
The [basal ganglia/hippocampus/nucleus accumbens] is a brain structure in the limbic system that plays a significant role in the influence of reinforcement on behavior where dopamine is central to the reinforcing quality of events.
nucleus accumbens
(The basal ganglia are involved in the storage and retrieval of procedural memories.
The hippocampus encodes new episodic memories in humans. It also plays a role in the capacity to reduce the associability of conditioned responses.)
121
Conditioned suppression is a procedure in which the conditioned stimulus signals that a(n) ___ event is coming. The measure of conditioning is the suppression of ongoing behavior when the conditioned stimulus is presented.
Attribute conditioning occurs when the attributes or characteristics of one stimulus are transferred to ___ ___.
Automatic reinforcement refers to behavior that is derived from s___ stimulation that occurs as a result of performing the behavior.
aversive;
another stimulus;
sensory stimulation
122
In the first months of life, infants can locate objects through [response/place/latent/avoidance] learning, which involves learning the association between bodily reaction and a particular stimulus in a position in space.
response learning
(Response learning refers to performing a specific series of movements or responses (e.g., eye movement, or reach).
Place learning is the learning of locations or physical positions of goals (e.g., where food can be found).
Latent learning occurs without any obvious reinforcement of the behavior.
Avoidance learning is the process by which an individual learns a behavior or response to avoid a stressful or unpleasant situation.)
123
Food deprivation is a common m___ o___ in ABA. If an individual is hungry, food is reinforcing, but if an individual is satiated, food is less reinforcing. M__"__ o__"__s are environmental conditions that encourage or discourage certain behaviors. Their purpose is to enhance or reduce the reinforcement value by making something more or less desirable.
Motivating operation
124
The principle of latent inhibition suggests that it is often easier to learn something new than to ___ something ___.
unlearn something familiar (like getting stuck in a rut, repeating known errors, or using an injured arm or leg out of habit)
125
Sensory ___conditioning involves pairing two neutral stimuli together, then pairing one of the stimuli with an unconditioned stimulus until classical conditioning is achieved, and if the other stimuli alone elicits a conditioned response, sensory __"__conditioning has occurred.
Sensory preconditioning
(Ex. Stage 1: bell and tone together
Stage 2: tone and food+salivation together until tone=salivation
Stage 3: bell also = salivation)
126
Conditioned ___ is an internal state that has been behaviorally learned and prevents an individual from responding to stimuli that would normally elicit a response. This type of __"__ can be conditioned through the use of punishers (e.g., electric shock) or lack of reinforcers. A conditioned __#__or (CS-) is presented in trials when an excitor (CS+) is not followed by a reinforcer, and so the organism learns not to expect the reinforcer when CS- appears.
T___ conditioning is a procedure where an unconditioned stimulus is presented at regular intervals but in the absence of an accompanying conditioned stimulus. An organism learns that the stimulus is coming at the specific interval and will display a conditioned response, thus the interval acts as a conditioned stimulus.
Conditioned inhibition/inhibitor;
Temporal conditioning
127
The e___-v___ theory postulates that motivation for a given behavior or action is determined by two factors: 1) e__"__ - how probable it is that a wanted outcome is achieved through the behavior or action, and 2) v__"__ - how much the individual v__"__s the desired outcome.
expectancy-value theory (Martin Fishbein)
128
Which of the following is the gradually decreasing and eventually ceasing the use of a reinforcement schedule?
A. Fading
B. Thinning
B. Thinning (Fading is gradually removing a prompt)
129
The opposite of becoming habituated to a stimulus is through ___, which involves the reappearance of an old response to a previously habituated stimulus following the presentation of another, seemingly irrelevant novel stimulus, thereby interrupting the habituation
dishabituation
130
T/F: Recent research studies have demonstrated the effects of neurofeedback (EEG biofeedback) as a nonpharmacological treatment for ADHD. Meta-analyses have produced a large effect size for symptoms of inattention and impulsivity and a medium effect size for hyperactivity.
T
EPPP
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