Big 89

Question 1

1. Explain Captain/Dispatcher joint responsibility.

Answer 1

The captain and dispatcher are jointly responsible for the preflight planning of each flight. They shall determine the suitability of weather, field, traffic, airway facilities. Both have the authority to delay flight. Any time the flight cannot be conducted in accordance with the release, the first person encountering such information shall contact the other to institute the necessary amendment to the release.

Vol 1, 20.20 Pg. 2

Question 2

2. When is an alternate required?

Answer 2

Mnemonic = 1-2-3 / 1500&2 / 2000&3 / MMOISRS / 3585

• 1-2-3 = The basic 1-2-3 rule: 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, ceilings 2,000 or more, vis 3 SM or more.
• 1500&2/2000&3 = For flag operations, ceiling 2,000 AFE, or 1,500 above lowest approach mins, (whichever is greater), and vis 3 SM or 2 SM above lowest approach mins (whichever is greater).
• M = Marginal: within 100 OR ½ of Cat 1 mins at destination, AND within 100 OR ½ of DERIVED mins at 1st alternate. 2nd alternate required.
• M = Method 2. Engine failure at cruise, clear all obstacles by 2,000 feet, 5 SM either side of route — but if failure occurs before reaching cruising alt, we need to be able to return to departure airport, or divert to a takeoff alternate using Method 1 calculations
• O = Offline charters
• I = International (when only 1 runway or flight time >6 hours — and NO 3585!)
• S = Severe icing
• R = RNAV only approach (alternate must have non-RNAV approach)
• S = Supplemental
• 3585 = 3585: destination = not less than ½ the vis for the expected approach. 1st alternate not less than ½ ceiling and vis of DERIVED alternate mins. 2nd alternate at or above DERIVED alternate mins.

Question 3

3. How do we compute landing distance? Normal procedures. Alternate procedure.

Answer 3

• Normal procedure = AOC landing performance assessment.
• Alternate procedure = QRH Landing Performance Table
  
  • If using alternate procedure, also the Max landing weight tables to ensure missed approach climb performance.

Vol 2, 3.15 pg. 9

Question 4

4. Explain Method 1 vs Method 2. Standard strategy vs Obstacle. Procedures for both. Where would we see it listed?

Answer 4

METHOD 1 VS METHOD 2

• Method 1 – enroute obstacle clearance required from V₁ to the destination, clear all obstacles by 1000 feet / 5 sm.
• Method 2 (driftdown), engine failure at cruise altitude, the aircraft must be able to divert to at least one suitable airport, clearing all obstacles by 2,000 feet / 5 sm.

Vol 1, 20.32 Pg. 5-6

STANDARD STRATEGY VS OBSTACLE STRATEGY INITIAL PROCEDURE

• Standard Strategy:
  
  • Set MCT, disconnect A/THR.
  • Descend at .78/300 (or .77/270 in the NEOs).
• Obstacle Strategy:
  
  • Set MCT, disconnect A/THR
  • Remain level until slowing to Green Dot, then descend at Green Dot
  • Revert to Standard Strategy when clear of all obstacles.

Vol 2, 8.01 pg. 8-9

WHERE WOULD WE SEE IT LISTED?

On Page 1 of the release, between the flight plan block and the MELs, there’s the Planned Takeoff / Max Planned Takeoff Weights. In that block is specified either Method 1 of Method 2. If Method 2, drift down points and diversionary airports are specified.

Vol 1, 20.32 Pg. 2

Question 5

5a. Explain the following flight mode:

NORMAL

Answer 5

Bank protection, yaw damping & turn coordinating, pitch protection, high AoA protection, load protection, high speed protection.

Vol 3, 27.20.10

Question 6

5b. Explain the following flight mode:

ALTERNATE

Answer 6

No bank protection, yaw damping, no pitch protection, low speed stability (stall warning vs high AoA protection), load factor protection, high speed stabilities.

Question 7

5c. Explain the following flight mode:

DIRECT

Answer 7

No protections, mechanical ruddder, stall warning, no load protection, overspeed warning.

Question 8

5d. Explain the following flight mode:

MECHANICAL BACKUP

Answer 8

Temporary mode in case of complete electrical failure. Remaining controls are rudder, horizontal stabilizer, and engine thrust.

Question 9

5f.~~Explain the following flight mode:~~

~~High/low speed and high AOA protections~~

Answer 9

HIGH SPEED PROTECTION

The aircraft automatically recovers following a high speed upset. Depending on the flight conditions (high acceleration, low pitch attitude), the High Speed Protection is activated at/or above V_MO/M_MO.

When it is activated, the pitch trim is frozen (on A319 only), spiral static stability is introduced to 0° bank angle (instead of 33° in normal law), and the bank angle limit is reduced from 67° to 40°. The pitch trim is limited between the setting at the aircraft’s entry into this protection and 11° nose-up. As the speed increases above V_MO/M_MO, the side-stick nose-down authority is progressively reduced, and a permanent nose-up order is applied to aid recovery to normal flight conditions.

The High Speed Protection is deactivated when the aircraft speed decreases below V_MO/M_MO, where the usual normal control laws are recovered.

The flight crew should never deliberately fly the aircraft beyond V_MO/M_MO, unless absolutely necessary for operational reasons, such as avoiding another aircraft.

The pilot should, as soon as possible, reduce resistance to the High Speed Protection and allow the aircraft to return to a speed below V_MO/M_MO, by smoothly relaxing the forward stick force to attain a comfortable nose-up pitch rate. It is not usually necessary to apply a pull force to recover. If a quicker recovery is required for operational reasons, the pilot should pull back smoothly and progressively, monitoring the g indication on the ECAM.

LOW SPEED PROTECTION

An aural low energy warning, “SPEED SPEED SPEED” synthetic voice sounds every 5 seconds whenever the aircraft energy (as computed by the FAC) goes below a threshold under which thrust must be increased in order to recover a positive flight path angle.

During acceleration, the warning is triggered before alpha floor (unless alpha floor is triggered by stick deflection). The amount of time between the two warnings depends on deceleration rate.

The low energy warning is available in CONFIG 2, 3, and FULL.

The low energy warning is inhibited:

1. When TOGA is selected; or
2. Below 100 feet RA; or
3. Above 2000 feet RA; or
4. When alpha floor or the ground proximity warning system alert is triggered; or
5. In Alternate or Direct Law; or
6. If both radio altimeters fail.

If the Low Energy condition persists, Alpha Floor is triggered.

HIGH ANGLE OF ATTACK PROTECTION

The aircraft resists attempts by either a pilot or the atmosphere to stall it. If a pilot attempts a stall, he/she feels the aircraft trying to pitch down as speed approaches the amber and black strip. The pilot can resist this tendency until speed reaches the red band (α_MAX), and then further nose-up control is not available. Between these two points, floor automatically sets go around thrust. The pilot can hold full back stick, if it is needed (see wind shear), and the aircraft stabilizes at an angle of attack close to but short of the 1g stall.

WHEN FLYING AT α_MAX, THE PILOT CAN MAKE GENTLE TURNS, IF NECESSARY.

As the aircraft enters protection at the amber and black strip (α_PROT), the system inhibits further nose-up trim beyond the point already reached. Nose-down trim remains available if the pilot pushes the stick forward.

Question 10

5g.~~Explain the following flight mode:~~

~~ALPHA LOCK~~

Answer 10

ALPHA/SPEED LOCK FUNCTION (SLATS)

The alpha/speed lock function inhibits slat retraction at high angles of attack and low speeds. The Slat Flap Control Computers (SFCCs) use angle of attack (alpha) or airspeed information from the ADIRUs to inhibit slat retraction.

The alpha/speed lock function is activated when:

1. Alpha exceeds 8.6° or
2. Airspeed falls below 148 knots

Results of alpha/speed lock function: Retraction from position 1 to position 0 is inhibited.

Inhibition removed when:

1. Alpha falls below 7.6° or
2. Speed exceeds 154 knots

Alpha/speed lock function not active if:

1. Alpha exceeds 8.6° or airspeed falls below 148 knots after pilot has moved the flap lever to 0; or
2. Aircraft is on ground with speed less than 60 knots

Question 11

6. Explain Ground Speed Mini:

Answer 11

A FMGC computed approach speed based on V_APP, surface winds, and winds aloft. It maintains a constant ground speed instead of maintaining a constant indicated airspeed.

~~The purpose of the ground speed mini function is to take advantage of the aircraft inertia when the wind conditions vary during the approach. It does so by providing the crew with an adequate indicated speed target. When the aircraft flies this indicated speed target, the energy of the aircraft is maintained above a minimum level ensuring standard aerodynamic margins versus stall. If the A/THR is active in SPEED mode, it will automatically follow the IAS target, ensuring an efficient thrust management during the approach. The minimum energy level is the energy level the aircraft will have at touch down if it lands at VAPP speed with the tower reported wind, as inserted in the PERF APPR page. The minimum energy level is represented by the Ground Speed the aircraft will have at touchdown. This Ground Speed is called “GROUND SPD MINI”. During the approach, the FMGS continuously computes the speed target, using the wind experienced by the aircraft, in order to keep the ground speed at or above the “Ground Speed Mini”. The lowest speed target is limited to VAPP, and its upper limit is VFE of next configuration in CONF 1, 2 or 3 and VFE - 5 in CONF FULL. The speed target is displayed on the PFD speed scale in magenta, when approach phase and managed speed are active. It is independent of the AP/FD and/or ATHR engagements. Wind is a key factor in the ground speed mini function.~~

Vol 2, 10.47 pg. 1

Question 12

7a. Preliminary Cockpit Prep

What is the minimum Bat voltage and what does that voltage ensure?

Answer 12

• 25.5 volts
• Ensures 50 % Bat charge

Vol 2, 3.05 pg. 3

Question 13

7b. Preliminary Cockpit Prep

What indications do you get when performing the APU Fire test WITHOUT AC Power?

Answer 13

• APU Fire pushbutton illuminates (half of the lights)
• Squib and Discharge light both illuminate

Vol 2, 3.05 pg. 3

Question 14

7c. Preliminary Cockpit Prep

Referencing 7b, what additional indications do you get when AC power is available?

Answer 14

• Master Warning flashers
• CRC
• ECAM

Vol 2, 3.05 pg. 3

Question 15

8. If Brake accumulator pressure is out of green band, how can it be charged?

Answer 15

Turn on the Yellow electric pump.

Vol 2, 3.05 pg. 4

Question 16

9. At the gate with the engines off, you turn on the yellow hydraulic pump. Will this action pressurize the green hydraulic system?

Answer 16

YES.

If you turn on the Yellow Electric Pump, this action will pressurize the Yellow System directly, and pressurize the Green system via the PTU.

However, PTU is inhibited when:

• One engine running and parking brake on.
• One engine running, parking brake off, and N/W DISC.
• 40 seconds after cargo door operation.

Vol 2, 3.05 pg. 4

Vol 3, pg. 1795

Question 17

10. How do you perform an alternate brake check?

Answer 17

NOTE: The purpose of this check is to verify the efficiency of the alternate braking system (absence of “spongy pedals”).

• (F/C) Y ELEC PUMP . . . CHECK OFF
• (F/C) CHOCKS . . . CHECK IN PLACE
• (F/C) PARKING BRAKE . . . OFF
• (F/C) BRAKE PEDALS . . . PRESS

Apply maximum pressure on both pedals.

• (F/C) BRAKE PRESSURE (on BRAKE press indicator) . . . CHECK

Pressure must build up without delay symmetrically on left and right sides for the same application simultaneously applied on left and right pedals. With full deflection of the left and right pedals, pressure must be between 2000 and 2700 psi.

• (F/C) BRAKE PEDALS . . . RELEASE
• (F/C) PARKING BRAKE . . . ON

The parking brake must be on during the exterior inspection to allow the flight crew to check brake wear indicators.

Vol 2, 3.05 pg. 4

Question 18

11. What is the minimum engine oil quantity for flight?

Answer 18

CEO 9.5 qt + 0.5 qt per hour of estimated flight time

NEO the highest of 10.6 qts or 9.0 qts + 0.5 qts per hr

Vol 2, 2.10 pg. 7

Vol 2, 3.05 pg. 5

Question 19

13. During single engine taxi, the #2 engine must be started a minimum of how many minutes prior to take off and why?

Answer 19

5 minutes.

1. We need to let the engines warm up in order to prevent thermal shock. Warm-up time has been standardized to 3 minutes across the fleet. And, coincidentally, we also need to let the Center Tank Transfer cycle complete its 2 minute test on some of our older planes to make sure the engines are feeding off their respective, separate wing tanks.
2. The NEOs can take up to 2 minutes to start, so 2 + 3 = 5.

Vol 2, 3.10 pg. 6

Question 20

14. What temp and conditions must the engine anti-ice be turned on and in what phase of flight?

Answer 20

First, definition of icing conditions:

• OAT (on ground) or TAT (in flight) at or below 10°C
• visible moisture (clouds, fog, rain, etc) or standing water, slush, ice or snow on taxiways or runways. (Vol 2, 5.45 pg. 9)
• ENGINE ANTI-ICE must be ON during all ground and flight operations, when icing conditions exist, or are anticipated, except during climb and cruise when the SAT is below -40°C.
• ENGINE ANTI-ICE must be ON during a descent in icing conditions, even if the SAT is below -40°C. (Vol 2, 5.45 pg. 10)
• WING ANTI-ICE WING ANTI-ICE may either be used to prevent ice formation, or to remove ice accumulation from the wing leading edges. WING ANTI-ICE should be selected ON whenever there is an indication that airframe icing exists. This can be evidenced by ice accumulation on the visual ice indicator (located between the two cockpit windshields) or on the windshield wipers. (Vol 2, 5.45 pg. 10)
• If icing conditions last longer than 30 minutes, or if vibration occurs, the engines must be run-up to 70% N1 for a sustained period of at least 30 seconds, if ground surface conditions and the environment permit. If ground surface and environment do not allow acceleration to 70% N1 then power setting and run-up time should be as high as practical. This run-up should be accomplished just prior to takeoff, with particular attention paid to the engine parameters to ensure normal operation. (Vol 2, 5.45 pg. 9)

Question 21

19. Weight and balance. What ways can you get a valid W&B?

Answer 21

1. ACARS Weight Balance / Performance (AWP).
2. Computerized Weight and Balance Manifest.
3. Flight Crew Readback form

Vol 2, 3.10 pg. 1

Question 22

21. What do the FACs do?

Answer 22

• Beta target
• Low Energy warning
• Reactive windshear
• Flight envelope protections (all the markings on the speed tape)
• Tail functions – yaw damping, turn coordinating, rudder travel limiter, rudder trim, alternate law yaw

Question 23

22. When is a TO Alternate required?

Answer 23

When departure airport is below CAT I mins.

Vol 1 20.40 Pg. 3

Question 24

23. What is the time and distance for a TO alternate?

Answer 24

• Max time of 1+00 (normal cruise speed, single engine, still air)
• max distance of 330 nm.

Vol 1, 20.40 Pg. 3

Question 25

24. When is the A/P required for an approach?

Answer 25

AUTOPILOT REQUIRED Weather less than 4000 RVR (3/4 mile). Vol 1, 25.60 Pg. 3

Question 26

25. When is an autoland required?

Answer 26

Autoland required below CAT I mins. Also, if weather is below 2400 RVR (½ sm), approach will be briefed and flown as an autoland, assuming all the CAT II/CAT III autoland conditions can be met (runway, aircraft, crews, wind, braking action, no international, etc). If the conditions cannot be met, then can be flown as a CAT 1 approach down to our lowest mins, 1800 RVR or as published. NOTES: * Captains are the PF for all autoland approaches. * Autolands are not authorized on runways less than 150 feet wide. * Autolands are approved for CONF 3 and CONF FULL. * CONF FULL is recommended for all autolands to maximize forward slant range visibility. * Autolands are prohibited if braking action is reported less than medium. * Autoland approaches may be conducted when the following conditions are satisfied: * CAT II/III runway * CAT II/III aircraft * crews CAT II/III trained * appropriate ground facilities are operational * wind within limits * braking action medium or better. * Automatic landing is not allowed below -1000 ft pressure altitude. (Vol 2, 2.10 pg. 4)

Question 27

26. In flight, when will the speed brakes automatically retract?

Answer 27

Speedbrake extension is inhibited, if: "SEAFAT" * SEC 1 and SEC 3 both have faults, or * Elevator (L or R) has a fault, or * Angle-of-attack protection is active, or * Flaps are in configuration FULL, or * Alpha Floor activation. * Thrust levers above MCT position If an inhibition occurs when the speedbrakes are extended, they retract automatically and stay retracted until the inhibition condition disappears and the pilots reset the lever. (The speedbrakes can be extended again 10 s or more after the lever is reset). When a speedbrake surface on one wing fails, the symmetric one on the other wing is inhibited. Vol 3, 1631-1632

Question 28

27. What does centering the BETA Target with the bank index do?

Answer 28

It applies the correct amount of rudder to yield optimum aircraft performance when we're single engine. Vol 3, page 1655 NOTE: The sideslip target is blue if: * CONF 1, 2, or 3 is selected, and * any ENG N1 \> 80% * the N1 split exceeds 35%. In this case the sideslip index is called β (Beta) target. When this index is centered with the roll index, the sideslip equals the sideslip target for optimum aircraft performance.

Question 29

28. If you lose the Blue Hyd system fluid, is the RAT available?

Answer 29

No. The RAT will deploy, but the Blue System will not pressurize without fluid. Also, the hydraulically powered emergency generator will not work without Blue System hydraulic fluid. If both AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 are lost and the aircraft speed is above 100 kt, the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) extends automatically. This powers the BLUE hydraulic system, which drives the emergency generator by means of a hydraulic motor. If you lose all Blue Hydraulic fluid, you cannot drive the emergency generator. This generator supplies the AC ESS BUS, and the DC ESS BUS via the ESS TR. If the RAT stalls, or if the aircraft is on the ground with a speed below 100 kt (or you lose all Blue Hyd fluid), the emergency generator has nothing to drive it. The emergency generation network automatically transfers to the batteries and static inverter, and the system automatically sheds the AC SHED ESS and DC SHED ESS buses. Vol 3, pg. 1478

Question 30

29. What protections are available in... NORMAL, ALTERNATE, DIRECT

Answer 30

Question 31

30. Is Alpha Floor available in Alternate Law? Direct Law?

Answer 31

No, no. Only available in Normal Law. **Alpha Floor is lost with:** 1. Certain SFCC and FAC failures; or 2. Both FCUs fail; or 3. An EIU fails; or 4. Both FMGCs fail; or 5. **Alternate or Direct Law**; or 6. In Engine Out when slats/flaps are extended (above CONFIG 1) Vol 2, 9.15 pg. 5

Question 32

31. Why should the Captain wait to call for the “after start” checklist until after visually confirms that the tow bar has been disconnected?

Answer 32

This technique ensures all pins have been removed and accounted for, and that all personnel and equipment are safely out of the way before moving the aircraft. \*NEED CITATION

Question 33

32. What color is the “NW STRG DISC”?

Answer 33

Green if no engines are running, amber if one engine is running. Vol 3, page 2206

Question 34

33. Do you have A/Skid if you lose your normal braking?

Answer 34

Depends on the failure. If the failure is due to G HYD SYS loss, A/Skid is still available. If the failure is the G & Y HYD SYS loss, BSCU loss, or the A/Skid & NW STRG switch off, A/Skid is not available. *There are four modes of operation:* * *Normal braking* * *Alternate braking with antiskid* * *Alternate braking WITHOUT antiskid* * *parking brake* Vol 3, pg. 2211

Question 35

34. What powers the AC ESS BUS and DC ESS Bus if both engine driven gens are lost and the airspeed is above 100 kts?

Answer 35

The RAT! RAT powers Emer Gen, which powers AC ESS Bus, and the DC Ess Bus (via ESS TR). *If both AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 are lost and the aircraft speed is above 100 kt, the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) extends automatically. This powers the blue hydraulic system, which drives the emergency generator by means of a hydraulic motor. This generator supplies the AC ESS BUS, and the DC ESS BUS via the ESS TR. If the RAT stalls, or if the aircraft is on the ground with a speed below 100 kt, the emergency generator has nothing to drive it. The emergency generation network automatically transfers to the batteries and static inverter, and the system automatically sheds the AC SHED ESS and DC SHED ESS buses. When the aircraft is on ground :* * *Below 100 kt, DC BAT BUS is automatically connected to the batteries.* * *Below 50 kt, AC ESS BUS is automatically shed, leading to the loss of all display units.* *Note:* 1. *During RAT extension and emergency generator coupling (about 8 s), the batteries power the emergency generation network.* 2. *On ground, if only the batteries are powering the emergency generation network, APU start is only available when the speed is below 100 kt.* Vol 3, page 1478

Question 36

35. What is the max recommended thrust to be used to get the A/C to move on the Ramp?

Answer 36

40% N1 Vol 2, 3.10 pg. 8

Question 37

36. How do you get out of “TOGA LOCK” if it is triggered by “A FLOOR”?

Answer 37

Disconnect the autothrust, but set thrust levers to TOGA first. *Indications of Alpha Floor:* 1. *“A FLOOR” in green, surrounded by a flashing amber box on the FMA, and in amber on the engine warning display (as long as Alpha Floor conditions are met).* 2. *“TOGA LK” in green, surrounded by a flashing amber box on the FMA, when the aircraft leaves the Alpha Floor conditions. TOGA thrust is frozen.* * ALPHA FLOOR* * Alpha Floor protection automatically sets the thrust at TOGA when the aircraft reaches a very high angle of attack. The FAC generates the signal to set TOGA thrust, regardless of the position of the thrust levers.* * Alpha Floor is available from lift-off until 100 feet RA on the approach.* * Alpha Floor is lost with:* 1. *Certain SFCC and FAC failures; or* 2. *Both FCUs fail; or* 3. *An EIU fails; or* 4. *Both FMGCs fail; or* 5. *Alternate or Direct Law; or* 6. *In Engine Out when slats/flaps are extended (above CONFIG 1)* Vol 2, 9.15 pg. 5

Question 38

37. What flight controls are left when in Mechanical Back Up Law?

Answer 38

Rudder, manual THS trim, and engine thrust. Vol 2, 9.10 pg. 1

Question 39

38. If the pilot manually tunes a freq thru the RAD/NAV function, does it affect the auto tuning of the FMGC?

Answer 39

No. Three modes of tuning are available. * Automatic Tuning * This is the basic means for tuning navaids. * In normal operation, the FMGC tunes navaids automatically, with each FMGC controlling its own receivers. * If one FMGC fails, the remaining FMGC controls both sides receivers. * Manual Tuning * The flight crew can use the MCDU to override the automatic tuning of navaids by FMGC in order to select a specific navaid for visual display. * **This does not affect the automatic function of the FMGC.** * Any entry on one MCDU is sent to both FMGC in dual mode, or the remaining FMGC in single mode. * Back Up Tuning * If both FMGCs fail, the flight crew can use the RMPs (Radio Management Panels 1 and 2) on the pedestal for back up tuning. * The CAPT RMP controls VOR1 and ADF 1. * The F/O RMP controls VOR2 and ADF 2. * Either RMP controls ILS / GLS / MLS, provided “STBY NAV” is selected on RMP1 and RMP2. * RMP3 (if installed) is not used for navaids tuning. Vol 3, pg. 2299

Question 40

39. What equipment must be operating prior to entering RVSM airspace?

Answer 40

RVSM OPERATIONS EQUIPMENT REQUIREMENTS A320 requirements: "FFAT PAD" * **F**WC (Flight Warning Computer) * **F**CU (Flight Control Unit) * **A**utopilot * **T**ransponder * **P**FDs X2 (Primary Flight Displays) * **A**DRs X2 (ADR 1 required)(Air Data Reference) * **D**MCs X2 (Display Management Computers) FAA requirements: * Two primary altitude measuring systems; * One automatic autopilot system; * One altitude alerting device; and * One altitude reporting transponder. Vol 1, 25.40 Pg. 2

Question 41

40. What are the 4 requirements to accept an RNAV departure?

Answer 41

1. Cross track error \< 0.5 NM; 2. RNAV SIDs / STARs must be retrieved by procedure name from the navigation database; 3. Pilots must use FD and / or Autopilot in LNAV; 4. Must be able to engage flight guidance no later than 500 feet above airport elevation. All RNAV Departure Procedures (SIDs) and RNAV Standard Terminal Arrival Routes (STARs) are designated as RNAV 1 procedures on the applicable SID/STAR chart. Vol 1, 25.40 pg. 2

Question 42

41. What is the required response to “SINK RATE” aural warning?

Answer 42

If you’re IMC, the magic altitude is 1,000 feet AGL. If you’re VMC, the magic altitude is 500 AGL. Above the magic altitude, adjust flight path. Below the magic altitude, go around. Vol 2, 3.15 pg. 20

Question 43

42. How must an approach be conducted when visibility is less than 3⁄4 sm, or RVR 4000?

Answer 43

Weather less than 4000 RVR (3/4 mile) and autopilot available approach must be coupled. Vol 1, 25.60 Pg. 3

Question 44

43. How must an approach be conducted when visibility is 1⁄2 sm or RVR 2400 or less?

Answer 44

Must be briefed and flown as an autoland. Vol 1, 25.60 Pg. 3

Question 45

44. What flight release paperwork is required to be onboard before a flight can block out?

Answer 45

The following data, generally referred to as the flight paperwork, is required before a revenue flight may block out: * Dispatch or Flight Release * Flight Plan * Latest available weather and forecast * NOTAM Reports * Performance information (via AWP or the Takeoff and Landing Report [TLR]) * Weight & Balance manifest * NOTE: When AWP is available, the TLR or data from the TLR is only required when special ACARS runway entry codes are necessary due to runway NOTAMS being in effect (shortened runway, temporary obstacle in departure path).* * The above information may be obtained by any available means. A printed, written or electronic record of the information must be available to the flight crew during aircraft operation. All of the data listed above shall be retained until the conclusion of the flight.* Vol 1, 20.30 Pg. 1

Question 46

45. What is the required response to an “AUTOLAND” warning light during CAT II / III approach?

Answer 46

An immediate missed approach is required. *These red warning lights on the outer edges of the glareshield are activated between 200 ft RA and touchdown if any of the following conditions exist:* * *Excessive ILS beam deviation (1/4 dot localizer, 1 dot glideslope)* * *The loss or disconnect of both autopilots* * *ILS transmitter failure* * *The difference between both RA indications is greater than 15 ft* Vol 1, 6.30 pg. 13

Question 47

46. How does a pilot initiate the call to the FAs to inform them to prepare the cabin for possible EVAC?

Answer 47

Press the EMERGENCY CALL button. Vol 1, 45.40 pg. 1

Question 48

47. What are the maneuvering speeds in the Airbus? Green DOT, S , F for selected flap position?

Answer 48

* Green Dot = L/D_MAX * S = minimum slat retract speed * F = minimum flap retract speed Vol 3, page 1340

Question 49

48. What is the lowest Authorized RVR F9 can depart a runway?

Answer 49

500/500/500 (with HIRLs and CLs). *Lower than Standard Takeoff Minima: When takeoff minima are equal to or less than the applicable standard takeoff minima, crews are authorized to use the lower than standard takeoff minima described in the following paragraphs.* * *TDZ RVR 1600 (TDZ refers to the beginning of the takeoff roll) or visibility or RVV (runway visual value) 1/4 statute mile, provided one of the following visual aids is available:* * *High Intensity Runway Lights (HIRL); or* * *Operative Runway Centerline (CL) Lights; or* * *Serviceable Runway CenterLine Markings (RCLM);* * *or if none of the above visual aids are available, visibility or RVV 1/4 statute mile may still be used provided other runway markings or runway lighting provide pilots with adequate visual reference to continuously identify the takeoff surface and maintain directional control throughout the takeoff roll.* * *Crews are authorized to conduct operations using the lowest RVR authorized in Table 20.40.1 below based on the following criteria:* Vol 1, 20.40 Pg. 2

Question 50

49. What should the setting be on the RMP 3 (if installed)?

Answer 50

* Check ON * STBY NAV lights out. * Ensure HF and AM lights are extinguished.

Question 51

50. When is an exterior inspection required?

Answer 51

The assigned flight crew must perform a complete preflight exterior inspection prior to every flight. Vol 2, 3.05 pg. 6

Question 52

51. When is a crew briefing required?

Answer 52

CREW BRIEFING * When practicable, the captain shall conduct a crew briefing with all assigned crewmembers prior to the first flight of a duty day. * If crewmember changes occur during the duty day, additional briefings should be conducted with the newly assigned crewmembers. * If it is not practicable to conduct a briefing with all crewmembers at the beginning of a duty day or with newly assigned crewmembers following a crew change, the captain should ensure the first officer and at least one of the assigned flight attendants (preferably the “A” flight attendant) has received the crew briefing. The briefed flight attendant(s) will be responsible for briefing all other flight attendants. * *Flight attendants who were not briefed by the captain should, if possible, visit the flight deck prior to departure and identify themselves to the flight crew.* * *Due to the sensitive nature of material possibly discussed in a briefing (security procedures, maintenance items, etc.), crew briefings should not take place in the gate area or near passengers. The crew room is an ideal location for crew briefings. Briefings may also take place on the aircraft or in the loading bridge prior to passenger boarding.* Vol 1, 15.20 pg. 1

Question 53

52. When is a DDA required?

Answer 53

A Derived Decision Altitude (DDA) must be utilized when conducting an approach with a published MDA(H). *DDA is derived by adding 50 feet to the published MDA(H). This will ensure that the aircraft will not descend below the published MDA(H) if the required visual references for continuing the approach are not observed and a missed approach becomes necessary.* Vol 1, 20.50 Pg. 2

Question 54

53. Regarding task sharing in the handling of OEBs, ECAMS, or QRH procedures, what actions are the PF responsible for in addition to routine tasks?

Answer 54

During ECAM actions, the PF is responsible for aviating, navigating, communicating, and initiating OEB / ECAM / QRH actions. ~~PF, the pilot flying, is responsible for:~~ 1. ~~thrust levers~~ 2. ~~control of flight path and airspeed~~ 3. ~~aircraft organization (request configuration change)~~ 4. ~~navigation~~ 5. ~~communications~~ Vol 2, 4.05 pg. 1

Question 55

54. ~~Who is the Pilot Flying on the ground?~~

Answer 55

On the ground, the captain is always the “pilot flying” for the purpose of ECAM actions. Vol 2, 4.05 pg. 1

Question 56

54. When are "heads down" activities permitted during taxi?

Answer 56

PM "Heads down" activities are only permitted during straight taxi, i.e., no turns. Vol 2, 3.10 Pg. 8

Question 57

55. Is F9 authorized to fly circle-to-land approaches? Is F9 authorized to fly circle-to-land maneuvers? If so, what are the minimums?

Answer 57

* F9 is NOT authorized to perform circle-to-land approaches, but we ARE authorized to perform circle-to-land maneuvers. * Mins are 1,000 and 3, or the published circling mins (if higher). * MDA is 1,000 AFE, or published circling MDA (if higher). * *To perform a circle-to-land maneuver, the pilot must:* * *Have a ceiling and visibility that is the higher of either:* * *A reported ceiling of at least 1,000 feet and visibility of at least 3 statute miles; or* * *The reported weather is at least equal to the charted circling minimums for the approach to be used.* * *Use the higher Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) of either:* * *1,000 feet (AFE); or* * *The MDA of the charted circling minimums for the approach to be used.* *NOTE: Frontier Airlines does not have any aircraft listed in Ops Spec C075 to do a circle-to-land maneuver at a published MDA below 1000 feet (AFE). Those approaches are NOT AUTHORIZED.* * *Remain clear of clouds.* * *If visual reference to the airport is lost, a missed approach must be executed.* Vol 1, 20.50 Pg. 3

Question 58

56. ~~How long is the aircraft airworthiness sign-off good for?~~

Answer 58

"Service check time compliance is the responsibility of MX." ~~In other words, we are not responsible, so we don't need to know. Used to be 8 days.~~ Vol 1, 25.20 Pg. 1

Question 59

56. Is a logbook page required to be completed each calendar day? When starting a new lobgook page, what information is required to be entered along with the discrepancy/write-up?

Answer 59

A logbook page is NOT required to be completed for each calendar day if a MX action has not been performed (e.g., oil added, discrepancy entered, computer reset). When starting a new logbook page, the following infomration is required to be entered along with the associated discrepancy/write-up: * aircraft number; * today's date (based on DENVER)

Question 60

57. Who normally performs the Engine Fire Warning test on the preliminary setup flow?

Answer 60

Historically it's been the Captain, but the FO is also allowed. Vol 2, 3.05 pg. 16

Question 61

58. When do we use the Flight Path vector/director for approaches?

Answer 61

For visual traffic patterns and non-precision approaches. Vol 2, 9.10 pg. 6

Question 62

59. If a circuit breaker pops on the ground or in flight, can we reset it?

Answer 62

IN FLIGHT: No, unless the captain judges it necessary for the safe continuation of the flight. Only one reset. ON THE GROUND: * Do not re-engage Fuel pump C/Bs of any fuel tank * The flight crew may re-engage any other tripped C/Bs provided the action is coordinated with Maintenance and the cause of the tripped C/B has been identified. Vol 2, 5.05 pg. 1

Question 63

60. When is a logbook entry required for a computer reset?

Answer 63

If the reset is successful, make a logbook entry. If the reset is unsuccessful, it will probably be written up as a discrepancy. Vol 1, 25.20 Pg. 10

Question 64

61. An RNAV GPS approach has LPV as well as LNAV/VNAV and VNAV minimums. Which minimums can F9 use?

Answer 64

LPV mins are NOT authorized. * We can do LNAV/VNAV to DA. Use this whenever possible. * We can do LNAV to DDA (derived from applicable MDA). MINIMUMS * *RNAV (GPS)/RNAV (GNSS) FULLY MANAGED (FINAL APP mode):* * *Use published LNAV / VNAV minimums whenever applicable.* * *Enter DA(H) into the BARO field on the PERF APPCH page.* * *For procedures that only provide LNAV minimums (or VOR MDAs), a DDA must be calculated, utilized as minima, and entered into the BARO field on the PERF APPCH page.* * *RNAV (GPS)/RNAV (GNSS) MANAGED / SELECTED (NAV mode): Use published LNAV minimums (or VOR MDA) with DDA and fly the Managed/Selected technique. Derive a DDA from published MDA(H) and enter said DDA into the BARO field on the PERF APPCH page.* Vol 2, 6.15 pg. 20

Question 65

62. What is the proper terminology for the transition through 18,000 feet climbing and descending?

Answer 65

Climbing: * PF: "Pull standard, [altitude]." * "Standard pulled, altitude checked." Descending: * PF: "Push, QNH 30.00, [altitude]" * PM: "QNH 30.00 pushed, altitude checked." *Transition ALTITUDE on the way up, transition LEVEL on the way down*. Vol 2, 3.40 pg. 6

Question 66

63. How many wing walkers are required to park the plane at the gate?

Answer 66

Two wing walkers are preferred. Technically, NONE are REQUIRED. Vol 1, 25.30 Pg. 1

Question 67

64. First flight of the day, the electrical system is supplied with AC power. Is the battery voltage check required?

Answer 67

No. Vol 2, 3.05 pg. 3

Question 68

65. Do Bat 1 & 2 need to be in AUTO for an APU start?

Answer 68

Yes, both need to be in AUTO. Vol 2, 3.05 pg. 3

Question 69

66. During cockpit preparation, when turning Bat 1 & 2 off then on, what are we looking for?

Answer 69

This initiates a charging cycle. 10 seconds after turning the batteries back on, the ELECTRIC SD page should show the batteries below 60 amps and decreasing. If one is above 60, wait until the end of the charging cycle and perform this test again. Vol 2, 3.05 pg. 15

Question 70

67. During cockpit preparation, setting QNH on the FCU, what is the max altitude difference between PFD 1 and PFD 2?

Answer 70

+/- 20 feet on the ground Vol 2, 3.05 pg. 23

Question 71

68. During engine start with the thrust levers out of the idle position, will the engines start?

Answer 71

Engines will start regardless of the thrust lever position. Unless thrust levers are at IDLE, thrust will rapidly increase to the corresponding thrust lever position, causing a hazardous situation. Vol 2, 3.10 pg. 2

Question 72

69. After engine start, the ground crew reports a fuel leak from the engine drain mast. What is our action?

Answer 72

Run the engine at idle for 5 minutes. If the leak stops during these 5 minutes, the aircraft can be dispatched without maintenance action. If the leak is still present after 5 minutes, maintenance action is required before flight. Vol 2, 3.10 pg. 4

Question 73

70. During engine start, the electric power supply is interrupted. What is our action?

Answer 73

Abort start (engine master switch -- OFF), dry crank for 30 seconds (mode selector -- CRANK, man start -- ON). * In case the electrical power supply is interrupted during the start sequence (indicated by the loss of ECAM DUs), abort the start by switching OFF the MASTER switch. Then, perform a 30-second manual dry crank cycle.* * MANUAL DRY CRANK CYCLE* * To initiate the dry crank:* * *(F) ENG MODE selector . . . CRANK* * *(F) ENG MAN START pb-sw . . . ON* *To stop the dry crank:* * *(F) ENG MAN START pb-sw . . . OFF* * *(F) ENG MODE selector . . . NORM* Vol 2, 3.10 pg. 4

Question 74

71. When is a full alignment of the ADIRS required?

Answer 74

ADIRS Full alignment required... "GAG CCFI" * GPS not avail and NAVAID coverage poor * Alaska * GPS not avail \> 3 hours * Class 2 * Crew Change * First Flight * International Vol 2, 3.05 pg. 14

Question 75

72. After landing, when do we perform an IRS Performance Check? What are the limits?

Answer 75

ASK SIM INSTRUCTOR. Is it 5 miles, or do you use the chart? Or if it's 5 miles, then use the chart? During every after parking check. Book doesn’t have nice easy “limits,” but there is a chart to compare position error (MCDU position monitor page) to NAV time. Vol 2, 3.20 pg. 5 However, there is this note on Vol 2, 3.20 pg. 5 that says: On other flights, a fast alignment must be accomplished any time the difference between the IRS position and the FMGC position exceeds 5 NM (see MCDU POSITION MONITOR page). So limit is 5 miles?

Question 76

73. Which leading edge devices are ice protected? Is the tail ice protected?

Answer 76

The three outboard leading edge slats (3, 4, and 5) are ice protected. Slats 1 and 2 are not. (Vol 3, page 1817). The tail is not ice protected.

Question 77

74. What is the lowest RVR you could use for takeoff from DEN 34R, assuming all lights are working?

Answer 77

500/500/500.

Question 78

75. What is the definition of Marginal weather?

Answer 78

* Basic defintion: ceiling within 100 feet, or vis within ½ sm. * If it's marginal based on CAT I mins at destination, AND marginal based on DERIVED mins at the alternate, then 2nd alternate required. Vol 1, 20.20 Pg. 3

Question 79

76. What does RNAV 1 mean?

Answer 79

It means Required Navigation Performance is 1.0. The system must maintain less than than 1 NM error for 95% of the time. Vol 1, 25.40 pg. 2

Question 80

77. How do you verify that your EPE does not exceed your RNP of 1.0?

Answer 80

On PROG page, NAV ACCUR HIGH means that Estimated Position Error (EPE) does not exceed RNP. Vol 2, 5.25 pg. 7

Question 81

78. When may we fly to a published MDA?

Answer 81

Never. If we see MDA, we are required to use DDA. Vol 1. 20.50 pg. 2

Question 82

79. If you were preparing for a CAT IIIb approach and the standby altimeter failed, would it affect your CAT status or capability in any way?

Answer 82

No. Standby altimeter is not on the list of required equipment.

Question 83

80. Who has the authority to cancel a flight?

Answer 83

Only Systems Operations Control (SOC) has the authority to cancel a flight. Vol 1, 20.20 Pg. 2

Question 84

81. In case of a Dual Engine Failure, what action do you apply first — ECAM or QRH?

Answer 84

Depends. If the ECAM displays the _ENG_ ALL ENGINES FAILURE procedure, then follow the ECAM. It will provide the initial steps, then direct the pilot to the QRH procedure. If the ECAM displays some other procedure, then the pilot must go straight to the QRH. *The dual engine failure is the situation where the aircraft entirely or partially loses engine thrust, and is no longer able to maintain level flight. The dual engine failure can be identified by the Flight Warning Computer (FWC) or by the flight crew: – In most cases, the FWC detects a dual engines failure condition and displays the ENG DUAL FAILURE ECAM alert. In this case, the ECAM provides the immediate actions to take in the case of a dual engine failure. The ECAM procedure will then direct the flight crew to apply the applicable QRH procedure, depending on if there is fuel or not.* Vol 2, 4.05 pg. 2

Question 85

82. For **abnormal procedures** during takeoff, which checklist is read first — After Takeoff Checklist or the Abnormal Checklist?

Answer 85

FOR ABNORMAL PROCEDURE DURING TAKEOFF, READ: 1. The AFTER TAKEOFF checklist 2. Then the ECAM/ABNORMAL Procedure or checklist Among the exceptions are engine problems (which are not **abnormal**, they are **emergency**). For these, refer to Table 4.05.1. Vol 2, 4.05 pg. 9

Question 86

83. When may a single engine auto-land be done, and in what configuration?

Answer 86

The A320 Series are certified and capable of completing an autoland with one engine inoperative in **CONFIG FULL (A319 in CONFIG 3)**. Frontier Airlines limitations prohibit single engine autoland, however the flight crew may use emergency authority if it is determined to be the safest course of action. * CAT II/III ENGINE INOPERATIVE PROCEDURES* * Low visibility landing minima are based on normal operations. For non-normal operations, flight crews are expected to take the safest course of action to resolve the non-normal condition. Crews should be aware that the A320 Series are certified and capable of completing an autoland with one engine inoperative in **CONFIG FULL (A319 in CONFIG 3)**. Frontier Airlines limitations prohibit single engine autoland, however the flight crew may use emergency authority if it is determined to be the safest course of action.* * If an engine fails enroute prior to the FAF, the flight shall not continue towards a nearest suitable airport with weather below CAT I minimums. A diversion to a suitable alternate airport with CAT I or better weather is required.* * If an engine fails during the approach at or beyond the FAF but prior to reaching AH/DH/DA, a missed approach is required if weather conditions are below CAT I minima unless the crew determines that continuing the approach via emergency authority is the safest course of action.* * If an engine fails at or beyond AH/DH/DA on a CAT II/ III approach:* * *CAT II: Continue the autoland if external visual references are sufficient.* * *CAT III: Continue. Automatic approach, landing and rollout have been demonstrated with one engine inoperative.* *NOTE: If an engine fails at or beyond AH/DH/DA on a CAT II/III approach, the Airbus Flight Manual recommends the procedures listed above. Continuing the approach via emergency authority is the safest course of action.* Vol 2, 6.30 pg. 15

Question 87

84. When do you select flaps full on a single engine approach?

Answer 87

When established on final descent to an assured landing. If a level-off is expected during the approach, the approach should be performed CONF3. * SINGLE ENGINE APPROACH* * With the exceptions noted below, single engine approach procedures are identical to normal approach procedures. Do not extend Flaps Full until established on a final descent to a landing. This difference may be consequential on approaches with step downs fixes prior to the final descent point, or if a level off is required prior to the DDA/DA/DH. If a level off is expected during the final approach perform the approach and landing with Flaps 3*. Vol 2, 6.15 pg 33

Question 88

85. What colors are verbalized when confirming mode changes on the FMA?

Answer 88

No colors. “...the PF will announce all FMA mode changes surrounded by a white box **without** the associated color.” Vol 2, 3.40 pg. 2

Question 89

86. When is it appropriate to call “continuing” on an approach?

Answer 89

“Continuing” is called by the PF if the Approach Lights are in sight (but the runway environment is not yet in sight, because then the call would be “landing.”) An example might be, if we reach minimums and see the approach lights, but we do not yet see the runway. We are allowed to descend to 100 feet above TDZE, so this is an instance we would call "continuing." Then we we get the runway environment in sight, we would call "landing." Vol 2, 6.15 pg. 5-6

Question 90

87. What action is taken at minimums when landing from a non-precision approach?

Answer 90

Autopilot off, flight directors off. *The bird is also helpful. For MANAGED / SELECTED and SELECTED / SELECTED non-precision approaches, the Flight Path Director (TRK- FPA) will be utilized because it allows the pilot to set the desired FPA for approaches that use selected vertical guidance and enables the FPV (“Bird”) when the flight directors are turned off for the visual transition to landing (no longer following flight director guidance).* Vol 2, 6.15 pg. 10

Question 91

88. What do you do if the aircraft starts to move with the parking brake on?

Answer 91

Immediately release the PARKING BRK handle to restore braking by pedals. Vol 2, 3.10 pg. 2

Question 92

89. Is it OK to leave the cockpit unattended when the parking brake is released?

Answer 92

No. At least one of the pilot duty stations will be manned anytime the parking brake is released unless, at the discretion of maintenance, work is being performed. Vol 2, 3.05 pg. 4