Initial Upgrade Exam

Question 1

1. Max takeoff weight for 319.

Answer 1

154,320 lbs

Question 2

2. Max takeoff weight for 320

Answer 2

166,440 lbs

Question 3

3. G load limits for clean configuration

Answer 3

-1 to +2.5

Question 4

4. Min runway width

Answer 4

100 ft / 30 m

Question 5

5. Max tailwind for takeoff

Answer 5

• 10 kts for 321s
• 15 kts for 319s / 320s

Question 6

6. Is #5 the same for all aircraft?

Answer 6

No

Question 7

7. Max tailwind for landing?

Answer 7

10 kts

Question 8

8. Is #7 the same for all aircraft?

Answer 8

Yes

Question 9

9. Define a narrow runway.

Answer 9

Any runway less than 150 ft / 45 m wide.

Question 10

10. Crosswind limit for wet narrow runway.

Answer 10

33 kts

Question 11

11. Max M_MO.

Answer 11

0.82 Mach

Question 12

12. Severe Turbulent Air Penetration speed at FL 210.

Answer 12

275 KIAS

Question 13

13. Max airspeed at which gear may be retracted.

Answer 13

220 KIAS

Question 14

14. What is the taxi speed limitation on the 320s and 321s?

Answer 14

Weight greater than 167,550, 20 kts in a turn.

Question 15

15. Max positive differential pressure.

Answer 15

9.0 psi

Question 16

16. Is a log book entry required or any action required when APU “LOW OIL LEVEL ECAM” advisory displayed?

Answer 16

A logbook entry is not required after receiving this advisory message. Contact MCC to determine the status of required maintenance action.

Question 17

17. Max altitude for APU start.

Answer 17

39,000 ft (with normal electrics)

Question 18

18. Min altitude for A/P engaged on ILS approach with CAT 1 displayed.

Answer 18

160 feet.

Question 19

19. When is a DDA used?

Answer 19

DERIVED DECISION ALTITUDE (DDA)

• For non-precision approaches conducted to an applicable Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA), a Derived Decision Altitude (DDA) must be calculated and observed as minima.
• DDA is calculated by adding 50’ to the published MDA.

Vol 2, 2.10 pg. 4

A Derived Decision Altitude (DDA) must be utilized when conducting an approach with a published MDA(H). DDA is derived by adding 50 feet to the published MDA(H). This will ensure that the aircraft will not descend below the published MDA(H) if the required visual references for continuing the approach are not observed and a missed
approach becomes necessary.

Vol 1, 20.50 Pg. 2

Question 20

20. When are autobrakes required?

Answer 20

Autobrakes (if available) are required for all CAT III approaches.

Question 21

21. As Capt, you are on a CAT IIIB approach. What must be displayed prior to your call “landing?”

Answer 21

CAT 3 DUAL must be annunciated on the FMA.

Question 22

22. During TO and Go-Around, when is the 10 min and 950 degree C time limit authorized?

Answer 22

Only in the case of engine failure.

Question 23

23. Name 2 of the 5 limits for using reduced thrust takeoffs.

Answer 23

“MEL’s special COWs perform at 25%”

Flex takeoff permitted unless:

• Prohibited by MEL
• Prohibited by special departure procedure
• Contaminated runway
• OAT greater than assumed temp
• Windshear
• Performance
• 25% reduction of thrust compared to full thrust setting

Question 24

24. What is the max fuel imbalance?

Answer 24

3,300 lbs (varies widely).

Question 25

25. Can you takeoff with one outer tank empty and the other full?

Answer 25

No

Question 26

26. What do you use for the min O2 for 2/3/4 crewmembers?

Answer 26

4/6/8, 6/7/9, 6/8/10

Question 27

27. When are you required to review the OEBs? Where are they found?

Answer 27

Review before EVERY flight. Found behind red tab at back of QRH.

Question 28

28. When can the flight control check be accomplished?

Answer 28

After 2nd engine start.

Question 29

29. When can the TO brief be conducted?

Answer 29

At any point deemed appropriate during the outbound taxi.

Question 30

30. When can you call for the “TO to the Line” checklist?

Answer 30

After the FO’s takeoff briefing, the 2nd engine start, and the flight control checks have all been accomplished.

Question 31

31. What are you required to check for the response to “Flight Instruments” on the checklist?

Answer 31

* V1 Speed (blue) . . . SET * V2 Speed (magenta) . . . SET * Flight Director [(1FD2) (white)]. . . ON ”magenta over blue, 1 flight director 2.”

Question 32

32. What is the min altitude and display required prior to engaging the A/P?

Answer 32

Above 100’ and SRS is displayed on FMA.

Question 33

33. What altitude does “sterile” cockpit begin and end?

Answer 33

10,000 AFE

Question 34

34. List the memory items for EMERGENCY DESCENT.

Answer 34

IMMEDIATE ACTIONS: * CREW OXY MASKS . . . USE * SIGNS . . . ON * EMER DESCENT . . . INITIATE * If A/THR is not active: * THR LEVERS . . . IDLE * SPD BRK . . . FULL

Question 35

35. List the memory items for LOSS OF BRAKING.

Answer 35

* REV . . . MAX * BRAKE PEDALS . . . RELEASE * A/SKID OFF . . . ORDER * A/SKID and N/W STRG . . . OFF * BRAKE PEDALS . . . PRESS * MAX BRK PR . . . 1000 PSI If still no braking: * PARKING BRAKE . . . SHORT AND SUCCESSIVE APPLICATIONS

Question 36

36. List the memory items for UNRELIABLE SPEED INDICATION.

Answer 36

* AP / FD . . . OFF * A/THR . . . OFF * PITCH / THRUST * Below THR RED ALT. . . 15º / TOGA * Above THR RED ALT and Below FL 100 . . .10º / CL * Above THR RED ALT and Above FL 100 . . . 5º / CL * FLAPS . . . MAINTAIN CURRENT CONFIG * FLAPS (if CONF FULL) . . . SELECT CONF 3 AND MAINTAIN * SPEEDBRAKES. . . CHECK RETRACTED * L/G . . . UP

Question 37

37. List memory items for WINDSHEAR AHEAD.

Answer 37

When airborne: * THR LEVERS . . . TOGA As usual, the slat / flap configuration can be changed, provided the windshear is not entered. * AP (if engaged) . . . KEEP ON * SRS ORDERS . . . FOLLOW During landing: * GO AROUND . . . PERFORM * AP (if engaged) . . . KEEP ON

Question 38

38. List memory items for STALL RECOVERY.

Answer 38

* NOSE DOWN PITCH CONTROL . . . APPLY * BANK . . . WINGS LEVEL * THRUST . . . INCREASE SMOOTHLY AS NEEDED * SPEEDBRAKES . . . CHECK RETRACTED * FLIGHT PATH . . . RECOVER SMOOTHLY If below 20,000 and clean: * Flaps 1 . . . SELECT

Question 39

39. List 3 of the 7 ECAM WARNING that are NOT inhibited during takeoff.

Answer 39

* APU FIRE * ENG 1(2) FIRE * DUAL INPUT * L + R ELEV FAULT * L(R) SIDESTICK FAULT * FWC 1 + 2 FAULT * ENG DUAL FAILURE

Question 40

40. How do you confirm the altitude if you are a STAR with a descent via to 11,000 and have a constraint on the PFD of 13,500?

Answer 40

When a constraint is displayed on the PFD that differs from the clearance altitude set on the FCU, pilots will point to and announce the clearance altitude (displayed on the FCU) and the constraint (displayed on the PFD).

Question 41

41. In cruise flight, when is a crosscheck of the altimeters required?

Answer 41

At first level off in RVSM airspace and every hour thereafter.