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Question 1

1,”Consider the following: I. Austria II. Hungary III. Italy IV. Serbia V. Slovenia VI. Bosnia and Herzegovina How many of the above countries share land borders with Croatia? (a) Only three (b) Only four (c) Only five (d) All the six”

Answer 1

1,b,”Croatia is a country located in the northwestern part of the Balkan Peninsula. It is small but has a very varied landscape and is shaped like a crescent. The capital city, Zagreb, is in the north. The eastern part of Croatia’s upper crescent borders Serbia, while the north borders Hungary and Slovenia. The curved part of the country stretches along the Adriatic Sea and its southern end touches Montenegro. So, points II, IV and V are correct. Croatia shares a long border with Bosnia and Herzegovina. This border includes a narrow strip that reaches the Adriatic Sea and separates southern Croatia from the rest of the country. So, point VI is correct. Italy shares a maritime border with Croatia and not a land border. So, point III is not correct. Austria does not share a land border with Croatia. So, point I is not correct. The Danube River separates Croatia and Serbia, while the Bregana, Sutla, Dragonja, Cabranka and Kupa Rivers separate Slovenia and Croatia. So, only four of the above countries share land borders with Croatia. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: The Prime Minister of India recently visited the Republic of Croatia.”

Question 2

2,”Which one of the following best describes the term "thirstwave"? (a) The total amount of water lost by a crop during its growth cycle (b) Three or more consecutive days of abnormally high evaporative demand (c) An extended heatwave with temperatures exceeding 50°C (d) A sudden drop in groundwater levels due to over-extraction”

Answer 2

2,b,”Evaporative demand refers to the atmosphere’s capacity to draw moisture from the land surface - essentially, how “thirsty” the air is. It represents the potential amount of water that could evaporate from soil and transpire from plants if an unlimited water supply were available. Unlike heatwaves, which are driven mainly by high temperatures and specific wind patterns, a “thirstwave” is influenced by a combination of factors, including temperature, humidity, solar radiation and wind speed. A thirstwave is defined as three or more contiguous days of intense evaporative demand which goes above the 90th percentile for that location and season, meaning the air demands unusually high moisture from land and vegetation. Rising temperatures not only intensify heat but also alter the dynamics of land-atmosphere water exchange. This affects humidity levels, wind flow and solar radiation, all of which collectively increase evaporative demand. In India, this growing phenomenon highlights a critical data and research gap, as the country lacks sufficient monitoring and modeling of evaporative demand trends. This gap has implications for water resource management, agriculture and climate adaptation planning. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: India is witnessing a rising evaporative demand of water, putting pressure on its agroecosystems.”

Question 3

3,”Consider the following statements with regard to the ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement (AITIGA): I. It covers trade in goods only. II. It has been ratified by all Parties, except Cambodia. III. Under the AITIGA, ASEAN and India have committed to liberalising tariffs on over 90 per cent of goods. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None”

Answer 3

3,b,”In 2009, the ASEAN Economic Ministers (AEM) and the Minister of Commerce and Industry of India convened in Bangkok for the Seventh AEM-India Consultations. Both sides formally signed the ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement (AITIGA). It entered into force on 1 January 2010. This agreement enhances economic ties between ASEAN member states and India by promoting trade liberalisation and cooperation in the region. The AITIGA specifically pertains to trade in goods only and does not include services. AITIGA entered into force on 1 January 2010. The signing of the AITIGA on 13 August 2009 in Bangkok paved the way for the creation of one of the world’s largest free trade areas with more than 1.9 billion people and a combined GDP of US$ 5.36 trillion. The ASEAN-India Trade in Services Agreement was signed by all Parties on 13 November 2014 and had entered into force on 1 July 2015. As of date, the Agreement has been ratified by all Parties. Meanwhile, the ASEAN-India Investment Agreement was signed by all Parties on 12 November 2014. The Agreement entered into force on July 2015. So, statement I is correct and statement II is not correct. Under the AITIGA, ASEAN and India have committed to progressively eliminating duties on 76.4 percent of goods and to liberalising tariffs on over 90 percent of goods. Because of the uneven levels of development and differing economic policies within ASEAN, the agreement applies two different classes of tariff rates depending on whether or not they are WTO members. So, statement III is correct. Generally speaking, the agreement grants less developed ASEAN members with less liberalized economies, such as Myanmar and Laos, a longer timeframe to reduce their tariffs. So, only two of the above statements are correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: The 6th ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement (AITIGA) Joint Committee and meetings were held recently in New Delhi.”

Question 4

4,”Consider the following: I. NAVYA II. Sabla III. Saksham IV. Kishori Shakti Yojana V. Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan How many of the above initiatives in India have been launched specifically for adolescent girls? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All the five”

Answer 4

4,b,”Adolescent girls are young females, typically aged 10-19, experiencing the physical and emotional changes of puberty as they transition from childhood to adulthood. This period is crucial for development and adolescent girls often face unique challenges related to health, education and empowerment. Nurturing Aspirations through Vocational Training for Young Adolescent Girls (NAVYA): A pilot vocational training programme for adolescent girls aged 16-18 years (minimum Class 10 qualification), jointly launched by the Ministry of Women & Child Development (MWCD) and the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE). The initiative aims to train girls in non-traditional and emerging job roles across various districts and states. So, point I is correct. Rajiv Gandhi Scheme for Empowerment of Adolescent Girls (Sabla): A centrally sponsored scheme of MWCD, targeting girls aged 11-18. Its objectives include improving nutrition, health, home and life skills and vocational training through Anganwadi Centres. So, point II is correct. Saksham is a scheme of the All India Council for Technical Education aimed at (AICTE) providing encouragement and support to specially-abled children to pursue Technical Education. This is an attempt to give every young student who is otherwise specially abled the opportunity to study further and prepare for a successful future. So, point III is not correct. Kishori Shakti Yojana: Under the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS), this MWCD scheme supports the holistic development of adolescent girls (11-18 years). It provides nutritional supplements, health education, life-skill development, vocational exposure and counselling. So, point IV is correct. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan: It is aimed at accessibility for persons with disabilities, not specifically adolescent girls. So, point V is not correct. So, only three of the above initiatives have been launched by the Government of India specifically for adolescent girls. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: India is set to roll out a door-to-door mobilisation drive to equip adolescent girls with vocational skills and integrate them into the workforce.”

Question 5

5,”Consider the following statements with regard to the Himalayan Brown Bears: I. They hibernate through most of the winter, relying on stored body fat to survive. II. They are typically found above the tree line, between 3,000 and 5,500 metres. III. They are endemic to Gangotri National Park. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None”

Answer 5

5,b,”The Himalayan brown bear (Ursus arctos isabellinus) is the largest mammal found in the high-altitude regions of the Himalayas, particularly in areas like Kashmir. They prefer altitudes above the tree line, between 3,000 and 5,500 meters (9,800 and 18,000 feet) above sea level. During summer, these bears can migrate even higher to graze in alpine pastures and later return to lower valleys as winter approaches, where they enter hibernation around October. So, statement II is correct. These bears are primarily diurnal and lead solitary lives, except during the mating season or when females are raising cubs. They hibernate through most of the winter, relying on stored body fat to survive. Remarkably, they may lose up to one-third of their body weight by the time they emerge from hibernation in spring. So, statement I is correct. The Himalayan brown bear is found in both Gangotri National Park and Govind Wildlife Sanctuary in Uttarakhand, but it is not endemic to these areas. The bear’s range extends beyond these two protected areas, including regions of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and parts of Pakistan and Pakistan-occupied Kashmir. So, statement III is not correct. Himalayan brown bears are omnivorous, feeding on a diverse range of food sources including roots, grasses, insects and small mammals such as marmots and pikas. In autumn, they migrate to lower altitudes in search of fruits and berries. They are also known to be opportunistic feeders, occasionally preying on livestock like sheep and goats when available. So, only two of the above statements are correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: The first sighting of the Himalayan brown bear in Dumka between Nelang and Bhairon Ghati is seen as a positive sign for the fragile Himalayan ecosystem and a potential range expansion.”

Question 6

6,”Consider the following: I. Treasury Bills II. Preference shares III. Government Securities IV. Bonds How many of the above investment instruments are components of a Debt Mutual Fund? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All the four”

Answer 6

6,c,”A Debt Mutual Fund is a type of investment option that mainly puts money into fixed-income instruments such as treasury bills, bonds, government securities and similar debt assets. These funds provide investors with a chance to earn steady returns while taking on relatively lower risk. The following are the instruments of a Debt Mutual Fund: Treasury Bills (T-Bills) are short-term loans taken by the government. They are safe and pay a fixed return. Debt mutual funds often invest in them because they are low risk and give steady returns. So, point I is correct. Preference shares, also commonly known as preferred stock, are a special type of share where dividends are paid to shareholders prior to the issuance of common stock dividends. They are not included in Debt Mutual Funds. So, point II is not correct. Government Securities (G-Secs) are long-term loans given to the government. They pay regular interest and are very safe. Debt mutual funds invest in them to earn steady income. So, point III is correct. Bonds are fixed-income investments given to companies or the government. They pay interest regularly and are used by Debt Mutual Funds to generate returns. So, point IV is correct. So, only three of the above investment instruments are generally considered components of a Debt Mutual Fund. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, since the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) initiated the rate-easing cycle, debt mutual funds have been generating higher returns in the economy.”

Question 7

7,”Consider the following pairs: Island Located in I. Falkland South Atlantic Ocean II. Chios North Sea III. Kariyachalli South China Sea How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None”

Answer 7

7,a,”Falkland Islands is an internally self-governing overseas territory of the United Kingdom in the South Atlantic Ocean. It lies about 480 km northeast of the southern tip of South America and similar distance east of the Strait of Magellan. It consists of two main islands, East Falkland and West Falkland, together with 776 smaller islands. Researchers have recently discovered a fossilized forest beneath the surface of the Falkland Islands, revealing evidence of ancient vegetation that thrived on the archipelago long before the arrival of humans or domesticated animals. So, pair I is correctly matched. Chios Island is a Greek island situated in the Aegean Sea. It is the fifth-largest island in Greece. The principal town of the island and seat of the municipality is Chios town. It is notable for its exports of mastic gum and the island is also known as "the Mastic Island". Recently, a massive wildfire broke out near the principal town of Chios island in the eastern Aegean Sea, prompting the deployment of over 100 firefighters, supported by water-dropping aircraft and helicopters, to contain the blaze. So, pair II is not correctly matched. Kariyachalli Island is located in the Gulf of Mannar and forms part of one of India’s most ecologically sensitive marine ecosystems. It is one of the 21 islands within the Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park, situated between Rameshwaram and Thoothukudi along the southeastern coast of India. The island features diverse coastal landforms such as beaches, sand dunes, spits, and sandy plains. However, Kariyachalli remains uninhabited and has witnessed significant submergence in recent decades due to a combination of coastal erosion, sea level rise, and the degradation of adjacent coral reefs and seagrass meadows, indicating the fragile state of marine biodiversity in the region. So, pair III is not correctly matched. So, only one of the pairs given above is correctly matched. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, a massive wildfire broke out near the principal town of Chios island in the eastern Aegean Sea.”

Question 8

8,”The Nuvvuagittuq Greenstone Belt, believed to contain some of the Earth’s oldest rocks, is located in: (a) Alaska, USA (b) Quebec, Canada (c) Siberia, Russia (d) Western Australia”

Answer 8

8,b,”The Nuvvuagittuq Greenstone Belt in Quebec, Canada, is known for containing some of Earth’s oldest rocks. New research suggests that the geological site harbors the oldest known surviving fragments of Earth’s crust, dating back to 4.16 billion years ago. It’s the only rock determined to be from the first of four geological eons in our planet’s history: the Hadean, which began 4.6 billion years ago when the world was hot, turbulent and hell-like. The Nuvvuagittuq Greenstone Belt has been dated by multiple research teams, yielding widely varying results. While most studies agree that the rocks are at least 3.75 billion years old, this does not make them the oldest on Earth. That distinction is more reliably attributed to the Acasta Gneiss Complex in northwestern Canada, located about 300 kilometers north of Yellowknife. These rocks have been unambiguously dated to approximately 4.03 billion years, making them the oldest known geological formation on Earth. This age marks the transition from the Hadean Eon to the Archean Eon. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, scientists have identified what could be the oldest rocks on Earth from a rock formation in Canada.”

Question 9

9,”Consider the following statements with respect to Cardamom production in India: I. It is native to the forests of the Western Ghats. II. Black cardamom is dried with the help of a fire pit, while green cardamom is harvested before it reaches maturity. III. Kerala contributes more than half of India’s cardamom production. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None”

Answer 9

9,c,”Cardamom, often referred to as the "Queen of Spices," is native to the evergreen, rainy forests of the Western Ghats in South India. These forests provide the ideal environmental conditions-humid climate, loamy acidic soil and shade-which support the natural growth and commercial cultivation of cardamom. So, statement I is correct. The crop is predominantly grown in the Southern states of Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, which together account for the entire production area in India. Specifically, Kerala alone contributes about 70%, followed by Karnataka with 20% and Tamil Nadu with 10%. So, statement III is correct. Green cardamom is a spice that’s used to flavor many dishes. It’s used in savory dishes, such as curries, stews and meat dishes. Black cardamom is an aromatic spice that comes from the seeds of the cardamom plant. Black cardamom is usually dried with the help of a fire pit, while green cardamom is usually harvested before it reaches maturity. So, statement II is correct. Thick shady areas with loamy soil are ideal for cultivating cardamom. This crop can be grown at an elevation from 600 to 1500 m. Areas exposed to heavy winds are unsuitable. Adequate drainage must be provided. It is grown in forest loamy soils, which are usually acidic with a pH range of 5.0 - 6.5. So, all three of the above statements are correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: An investigation into cardamom cultivation in Kerala exposes how India is failing abjectly to regulate pesticide overuse and contamination in its spice production and trade.”

Question 10

10,”The Black Mass Recovery Technology, sometimes seen in the news, is primarily used for: (a) capturing carbon emissions from thermal power plants (b) extracting rare earth metals from deep-sea mining (c) recovering valuable metals from end-of-life lithium-ion batteries (d) processing industrial slag to extract residual metals”

Answer 10

10,c,”The Department of Science & Technology (DST), Government of India, is engaged in commercialising an indigenous, sustainable battery recycling technology (Black Mass Recovery Technology). The project aims to recover battery-grade lithium, cobalt, nickel and manganese from end-of-life lithium-ion batteries using a patented low-temperature, low-pressure hydrometallurgical process. This technology, which is effective across battery chemistries and achieves up to 97-99% recovery, reduces dependence on imported equipment and critical mineral imports by promoting domestic recycling. The end-to-end process, including collection, shredding, metal leaching and downstream purification, is indigenously developed and patented, significantly reducing reliance on imported recycling equipment. Also, this seeks to minimize the import of critical minerals by recycling already available ones within the country. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: The Department of Science & Technology (DST) is funding a project to commercialise a sustainable battery recycling process that extracts lithium, cobalt, nickel, and manganese from used lithium-ion batteries.”

Question 11

11,”Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary, recently declared as India’s first Butterfly Sanctuary, is located in which of the following states? (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Kerala (c) Karnataka (d) Goa”

Answer 11

11,b,”Aralam Butterfly Sanctuary (formerly Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary) is located in Kerala. It was recently declared India’s first butterfly sanctuary. It is located on the western slopes of the Western Ghats and is known for its rich floral and faunal biodiversity. It spans across 55 square kilometres of tropical and semi-evergreen forests and hosts over 266 butterfly species, accounting for more than 80% of Kerala’s butterfly diversity. Some species are endangered or endemic. Between December and February, the sanctuary witnesses a seasonal butterfly migration, featuring species like the Common Albatross and Danaine butterflies. This phenomenon attracts naturalists and enthusiasts nationwide, making it a unique biodiversity hotspot and justifying its designation as India’s first Butterfly Sanctuary. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: The Kerala State Wildlife Board officially renamed the Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary in Kannur as the Aralam Butterfly Sanctuary.”

Question 12

12,”A unique narrative sculpture depicting Lord Shiva’s Pralaya Tandava, along with Khadga Ravana seated on Goddess Mari, was recently found at which of the following heritage sites? (a) Halebidu (b) Hampi (c) Perdoor (d) Pattadakal”

Answer 12

12,c,”Recently, a unique 15th-century narrative lamp sculpture was discovered at a temple in Karnataka, shedding new light on rare iconography and syncretic worship practices. The sculpture was discovered at the Anantapadmanabha Temple at Perdoor, located in the Udupi district of Karnataka. At this place, a 15th-century bronze lamp was found with rare Shaiva and Vaishnava sculptures. One side depicts Lord Shiva’s Pralaya Tandava, with accompanying figures such as Parvati, Ganapati, Bringi and notably Khadga Ravana seated on Goddess Mari. The other side shows Anantapadmanabha (Vishnu) being approached by various gods during Shiva’s destructive dance, a symbolic narrative of cosmic balance. The depiction illustrates the fear among gods due to Shiva’s fury and the eventual calming of Shiva by Lord Vishnu, emphasizing the Vaishnava-Shaiva syncretism. The lamp’s epigraphy confirms its donation in 1456 CE, providing historical authenticity. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, an antique lamp, believed to be from the 15th century, with very rare Shaiva and Vaishnavaite sculptures was found.”

Question 13

13,”With reference to the Registration of Births and Deaths in India, consider the following statements: I. All birth and death registrations shall be done only through a centralised portal maintained by the Union Government. II. The digital birth certificate serves as the sole valid document for establishing the date of birth for admission to educational institutions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II”

Answer 13

13,c,”Recently, the Registrar General of India (RGI) has asked all States to ensure that birth certificates are issued to mothers of newborn children before they are discharged from hospitals, particularly government-run hospitals, which account for more than 50% of institutional births in the country. A birth certificate is issued by the registrar under the Registration of Births and Deaths (RBD) Act, 1969. The RBD Act, 1969, which was amended in 2023, mandates registration of all births and deaths on the Centre’s portal from October 1, 2023. Earlier, States maintained their own database and shared statistics with the RGI office under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). So, statement I is correct. From October 1, 2023, the digital birth certificate is the single document to prove the date of birth for various services such as admission to educational institutions, government jobs, marriage registration, among others. So, statement II is correct. The centralised database will be used to update the National Population Register (NPR), ration cards, property registration and electoral rolls. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: The Registrar General of India has directed all States to ensure birth certificates are issued within 7 days of registration.”

Question 14

14,”Consider the following: I. Ammonium sulphate II. Ozone III. Carbon monoxide IV. Lead How many of the above are secondary pollutants? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All the four”

Answer 14

14,b,”Air pollutants are generally classified as primary or secondary. While primary pollutants are directly emitted from sources such as vehicles, power plants and industrial units, secondary pollutants are formed in the atmosphere through chemical reactions involving primary pollutants and atmospheric elements such as moisture, sunlight and oxygen. According to the Centre for Research on Energy and Clean Air (CREA), secondary pollutants, particularly ammonium sulphate, result from the reaction between sulphur dioxide (SO2) and ammonia (NH3). So, point I is correct. Other examples of pollutants that are formed in the lower atmosphere by chemical reactions are ozone and secondary organic aerosol (haze). So, point II is correct. Secondary pollutants are harder to control because they have different ways of synthesizing and their formation is not well understood. They form naturally in the environment and cause problems like photochemical smog. Carbon monoxide (CO) is a primary pollutant and is directly emitted from combustion processes like vehicle exhaust. So, point III is not correct. Lead is emitted directly from sources like leaded petrol, smelting and industrial processes. So, point IV is not correct. So, only two of the above are secondary pollutants. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box: The recent CREA study (2024) found that secondary pollutants contribute approximately one-third (around 34%) of India’s total PM2.5 concentration, highlighting their critical role in India’s air pollution burden. The nationwide average concentration of ammonium sulphate was measured at 11.9 µg/m³, with higher values near thermal power plants (15 µg/m³) and even in distant cities due to atmospheric transport. In 114 out of 130 NCAP (National Clean Air Programme) cities, ammonium sulphate alone accounts for over 30% of total PM2.5 levels. Relevance: Secondary pollutants are responsible for nearly one-third of India’s fine particulate matter (PM2.5) pollution.”

Question 15

15,”Recently, Bacillus ayatagriensis bacterium was isolated from the rhizosphere of mulberry plants. In context to this, consider the following statements: I. It possesses antimicrobial activity and promotes seed germination. II. It is widely adopted in organic farming to replace chemical fertilizers and pesticides. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II”

Answer 15

15,a,”Recently, researchers at Raiganj University in Bengal have discovered a new species of soil bacteria that exhibits strong antimicrobial properties and significantly enhances seed germination, indicating its immense potential in promoting plant health and productivity. Bacillus ayatagriensis bacterium was isolated from the rhizosphere of mulberry plants, a key component of the sericulture and farming systems. The rhizosphere is the soil region influenced by plant roots and is known to host diverse microorganisms that can influence plant growth and soil health. It exhibits strong antimicrobial properties, meaning it can inhibit or destroy harmful microbes in the soil, thereby protecting plant roots from pathogens. Additionally, it was found to significantly enhance seed germination, indicating its role as a plant growth-promoting microorganism (PGPM). These qualities make it an effective agent for improving plant health and productivity. So, statement I is correct. While Bacillus ayatagriensis has shown great promise as a bioactive agent and is positioned as a potential tool for eco-friendly or green agriculture, there is no evidence yet of its widespread adoption in organic farming systems. The current research lays the groundwork for future applications, but practical field-level deployment and regulatory approvals are still pending. So, statement II is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, researchers at Bengal’s Raiganj University have discovered a soil bacterium called Bacillus ayatagriensis.”

Question 16

16,”The UN80 Initiative, launched in 2024, primarily aims to: (a) expand UN peacekeeping operations in conflict zones (b) reorganise the UN Security Council’s membership (c) streamline UN operations and enhance its relevance in a changing world (d) improve coordination among UN agencies for delivering humanitarian aid”

Answer 16

16,c,”In a world grappling with growing crises, deepening inequalities and eroding trust in global institutions, the United Nations has launched an ambitious effort to strengthen how it serves people everywhere. The UN80 Initiative is a system-wide push to streamline operations, sharpen impact and reaffirm the UN’s relevance for a rapidly changing world. The UN80 Initiative is a reform effort launched in preparation for the 80th anniversary of the United Nations in 2025. Its main goal is not just to make the UN work more efficiently, but also to restore global trust in multilateral cooperation, which has weakened in recent years. This initiative aims to strengthen the UN’s ability to respond to modern global challenges such as armed conflicts, forced displacement, rising inequality, climate-related disasters and technological disruptions. At the same time, it also seeks to address internal and external pressures like reduced funding and political disagreements among member states that are making it harder for the UN to act collectively and decisively. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: The UN Secretary-General recently unveiled the UN80 Initiative.”

Question 17

17,”With reference to satellite-based navigation systems, consider the following statements: I. GPS jamming involves a device transmitting signals on the same frequencies used by GPS satellites. II. GPS spoofing refers to the deliberate emission of strong radio signals to disrupt the reception of satellite signals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II”

Answer 17

17,d,”GPS interference refers to spoofing or jamming, two types of deliberate cyber-attacks on Global Positioning System (GPS) signals, which disrupt or deceive vehicles’ navigation systems. While both are often used synonymously with each other, spoofing and jamming refer to slightly different kinds of interference. GPS jamming, also known as GPS intervention, involves a device (jammer) emitting strong radio signals on GPS frequencies in order to overpower weaker signals. This disrupts the functioning of GPS systems by rendering receivers unable to determine location or time. So, statement I is not correct. GPS spoofing involves a device transmitting signals on the same frequencies used by GPS satellites, overwhelming or blocking the GPS receivers from acquiring or maintaining the right satellite signals. Unlike jamming, which disrupts signals entirely, spoofing deceives the receiver into trusting false data. So, statement II is not correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, Global Positioning System (GPS) interference, including spoofing and jamming, critically threatened global air and maritime navigation.”

Question 18

18,”The drug ‘Lenacapavir’, recently seen in the news, is used for the prevention of: (a) Tuberculosis (b) Hepatitis B (c) Malaria (d) Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)”

Answer 18

18,d,”Lenacapavir is an antiretroviral drug recently approved by the United States FDA for use as a Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis (PrEP) to prevent Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) infection. PrEP is a preventive treatment for individuals who are HIV-negative but at high risk of exposure to the virus. Lenacapavir is unique because it is administered as an injectable drug only twice a year, offering long-acting protection. Clinical studies have shown it to be highly effective, preventing 99.9% of HIV transmission. This makes it a major advancement in global HIV prevention efforts. In India, the National AIDS Control Organisation (NACO) introduced PrEP on a pilot basis in 2021 for select high-risk groups. There is now a growing focus on expanding awareness, increasing accessibility, and incorporating long-acting PrEP options, such as injectable drugs like Lenacapavir, into public health programs to enhance HIV prevention efforts. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box: Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis (PrEP) is a preventive strategy that involves taking antiretroviral medication before potential exposure to HIV to reduce the risk of infection. It is intended for HIV-negative individuals who are at high risk of contracting the virus, such as sex workers, men who have sex with men (MSM) and serodiscordant couples (where one partner is HIV-positive and the other is not). PrEP works by inhibiting HIV from establishing infection in the body, typically by blocking the action of the reverse transcriptase enzyme (as seen in oral PrEP drugs like TDF/FTC). Relevance: Recently, the United States Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved Lenacapavir (LEN), the most promising HIV prevention medicine to be made so far.”

Question 19

19,”Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to the Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV): I. It uses a liquid propulsion-based Velocity Trimming Module (VTM) for all three stages. II. It is capable of launching a satellite of less than 500 kg in a Low Earth Orbit (LEO). Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II”

Answer 19

19,b,”In a significant step towards boosting private participation in India’s expanding space sector, Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) has won the bid to commercialise ISRO’s Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) - the space agency’s smallest rocket. Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) is a three-stage Launch Vehicle configured with three Solid Propulsion Stages and a liquid propulsion-based Velocity Trimming Module (VTM) as a terminal stage. So, statement I is not correct. SSLV is 2m in diameter and 34m in length with a lift-off weight of ~120 tonnes. SSLV is capable of launching~500kg satellites in a 500 km Low Earth Orbit (LEO) from Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) and Sriharikota Range (SHAR). The key features of SSLV are Low cost, with low turnaround time, flexibility in accommodating multiple satellites, Launch on demand feasibility, minimal launch infrastructure requirements, etc. So, statement II is correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) has won a contract to manufacture SSLVs and take over the technology from ISRO.”

Question 20

20,”Consider the following statements with regard to the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT): I. It is the only legally binding multilateral agreement that is committed to the goal of nuclear disarmament. II. It recognises only five countries as nuclear-weapon States. III. It establishes a safeguards system under the responsibility of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I, II and III (b) III only (c) I and II only (d) II and III only”

Answer 20

20,a,”The Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) is a landmark international agreement aimed at preventing the spread of nuclear weapons and related technologies, while promoting peaceful uses of nuclear energy and furthering the goal of nuclear disarmament. So, statement I is correct. The Treaty represents the only binding commitment in a multilateral treaty to the goal of disarmament by the nuclear-weapon States. Opened for signature in 1968, the Treaty entered into force in 1970. On 11 May 1995, the Treaty was extended indefinitely. A total of 191 States have joined the Treaty, including the five nuclear-weapon States (i.e., the US, UK, France, China and Russia). More countries have ratified the NPT than any other arms limitation and disarmament agreement, a testament to the Treaty’s significance. So, statement II is correct. Both India and Pakistan have refused to sign the NPT because it recognises only the five countries that tested nuclear weapons before 1967 (the U.S., Russia, China, France, and the U.K.) as nuclear-weapon States, thereby creating a discriminatory framework. India and Pakistan, which conducted nuclear tests in 1974 and 1998, respectively, object to this unequal structure and demand equal recognition as nuclear-armed nations. To further the goal of non-proliferation and as a confidence-building measure between States parties, the Treaty establishes a safeguards system under the responsibility of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). Safeguards are used to verify compliance with the Treaty through inspections conducted by the IAEA. So, statement III is correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: In the wake of rising military tensions, Iran’s Parliament is drafting a Bill to withdraw from the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT).”

Question 21

21,”When the Reserve Bank of India adopts an accommodative monetary policy stance, it primarily aims to: (a) increase interest rates to control inflation (b) tighten monetary conditions to curb excess demand (c) promote credit growth and support economic expansion (d) encourage capital inflows to stabilize the rupee”

Answer 21

21,c,”According to the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), given the prevailing uncertainties and after having already reduced the policy rates by 100 basis points in quick succession since February, the scope for further monetary easing to support growth remains limited in the current growth-inflation context. In light of this, the Committee deemed it appropriate to shift the policy stance from ‘accommodative’ to ‘neutral’. An accommodative monetary policy stance indicates that the central bank is prepared to expand the money supply to support economic growth. During such a phase, the central bank is generally inclined to lower interest rates, while a rate hike is effectively ruled out. This stance is typically adopted when the economy requires a growth stimulus and inflation is not an immediate threat. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box: A ‘neutral stance’ suggests that the central bank can either cut the rate or increase the rate. This stance is typically adopted when the policy priority is equal on both inflation and growth. A hawkish stance indicates that the central bank’s top priority is to keep inflation low. During such a phase, the central bank is willing to hike interest rates to curb the money supply and thus reduce the demand. A hawkish policy also indicates a tight monetary policy. Calibrated tightening means that during the current rate cycle, a cut in the repo rate is off the table. But the rate hike will happen in a calibrated manner. This means the central bank may not go for a rate increase in every policy meeting, but the overall policy stance is tilted towards a rate hike.”

Question 22

22,”Which of the following are the features of the "NAKSHATRA" facility developed in India? I. Optimise the data pipeline for genomic research II. Strengthening viral genomic surveillance III. Enabling faster analysis of genomic data for the early detection of disease threats IV. Supporting AI-driven efforts in vaccine and drug development Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) I and II only (b) III and IV only (c) I, II, III and IV (d) I, II and III only”

Answer 22

22,c,”The NAKSHATRA facility is a high-performance computing cluster set up by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) at the National Institute of Virology (NIV), Pune, as part of efforts under the Pradhan Mantri Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PMABHIM). It is designed to address the technological limitations experienced during the COVID-19 pandemic by significantly enhancing the storage and processing capacity for genomic research. Key features of NAKSHATRA include: Advanced data storage and an optimised genomic data pipeline, facilitating large-scale genome sequencing and analysis. Strengthening viral genomic surveillance, thereby boosting India’s preparedness for future pandemics through timely monitoring and detection of new virus variants. Faster and more efficient analysis of complex genomic data, enabling early detection of disease threats and swift public health responses. Supporting AI-driven innovation in the development of vaccines and drugs, accelerating biomedical research outcomes. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) has set up its first high-performance computing facility, NAKSHATRA, at its National Institute of Virology (NIV) facility in Pune.”

Question 23

23,”In the context of the Indian banking system, a "mule account" refers to a: (a) dormant account with no recent transactions (b) bank account used for agricultural subsidies (c) fraudulent account created using fake documents (d) legitimate account used by criminals to launder illicit money”

Answer 23

23,d,”Mule accounts are bank accounts that facilitate illegal transactions by receiving and transferring funds from unlawful activities. In India, these accounts are often opened by individuals who offer their bank accounts for a fee, making detection difficult during the onboarding process. However, with effective controls and continuous monitoring of account behaviour, banks can identify and shut down these accounts. There are five types of money mule accounts, categorised by the level of involvement and awareness of the individuals using them: Victim Mule: Unwittingly uses their own account, often after a data breach, completely unaware it’s being exploited. Misled Mule: Recruited through fake job ads (e.g., "payment processing agent"). They receive illicit funds, believing it’s legitimate work. Deceiver Mule: Opens new accounts using stolen, fraudulent, or synthetic identities to facilitate money laundering. Peddler Mule: Sells access to their genuine bank account to fraudsters in exchange for a fee, knowingly enabling illicit transactions. Accomplice Mule: Fully aware of the crime, they actively open or use existing accounts to receive and transfer dirty money under criminal direction. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box: A money mule is someone who transfers or moves illegally acquired money on behalf of someone else. Criminals recruit money mules to help launder proceeds derived from online scams and frauds or crimes like human trafficking and drug trafficking. Relevance: Recently, the Enforcement Directorate (ED) revealed that it has seized 322 bank passbooks, allegedly tied to mule accounts opened in the names of labourers.”

Question 24

24,”The Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan (DAJGUA) has been launched to implement the provisions of which of the following Acts? (a) Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (b) Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 (c) Forest Rights Act, 2006 (d) Tribal Sub-Plan (TSP) Guidelines, 2014”

Answer 24

24,c,”In a first since the Forest Rights Act (FRA) came into being in 2006, the Union Government has started funding structural mechanisms to "facilitate" the implementation of the law meant to give forest rights to Scheduled Tribes and forest-dwelling communities. Implementation of the FRA, for the last 19 years, has been the domain of State and Union Territory Governments. Under the Dharti Aba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyaan (DAJGUA), a Central scheme, the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs has so far sanctioned the setting up of 324 district-level FRA cells across 18 States and Union Territories implementing the forest rights law. The FRA cells are being centrally funded through Grants-in-aid by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs. The Union government has earmarked a budget of ₹8.67 lakh for each district-level FRA cell and 25.85 lakh for each state-level FRA cell. The operational framework for these FRA cells is derived from the DAJGUA scheme guidelines and not the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs has sanctioned the setting up of Forest Rights Act (FRA) cells under Dharti Aba Janjati Gram Utkarsh Abhiyaan (DAJGUA).”

Question 25

25,"The locations Fordow, Isfahan and Natanz, recently seen in the news, are known for: (a) strategic oil reserves in Saudi Arabia (b) nuclear facilities in Iran (c) major ports of Ukraine (d) US military bases in the Middle East"

Answer 25

25,b,"Recently, the United States of America launched airstrikes on three major nuclear facilities in Iran-Fordow, Isfahan and Natanz, with the President of the United States of America declaring that all three had been \"completely and totally obliterated.\" These strikes followed a series of Israeli missile attacks the previous week, which had also targeted Iranian nuclear infrastructure, including the Natanz facility. The targeted sites, Fordow, Isfahan and Natanz, are critical uranium enrichment centers central to Iran's nuclear program. These installations contain the technology and machinery necessary to convert natural uranium into Highly Enriched Uranium (HEU), a key component in the development of nuclear weapons. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box: Uranium enrichment is the process of increasing the proportion of the fissile isotope Uranium-235 (U-235) within natural uranium, which is composed predominantly (over 99%) of Uranium-238 (U-238). Only U-235 is fissile-capable of undergoing fission to release energy and sustain a nuclear chain reaction. While enrichment levels of 3-5% U-235 are sufficient for civilian nuclear power generation, weapons-grade uranium requires enrichment levels of 90% or more."

Question 26

26,"Consider the following statements regarding India Post Payments Banks (IPPBs): I. They are a 100% Government of India equity-owned entity. II. They cannot accept term deposits and any non-resident Indian deposits. III. They cannot set up subsidiaries to undertake non-banking financial services activities. IV. They are subject to both the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) and Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR). Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) I and IV only (b) I, II and III only (c) II and IV only (d) I, II, III and IV"

Answer 26

26,d,"India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) has been established under the Department of Posts, Ministry of Communications with 100% equity owned by the Government of India. IPPB was launched on September 1, 2018. The bank has been set up with the vision to build the most accessible, affordable and trusted bank for the common man in India. IPPB offers a range of products such as savings and current accounts, remittances and money transfer, direct benefit transfers, bill and utility payments, enterprise and merchant payments. So, statement I is correct. Payment banks are not allowed to undertake lending activities directly. They can accept demand deposits and are restricted to holding a maximum balance of Rs. 2 lakh per individual customer at the end of the day. Payment banks cannot accept Non-Resident Indian (NRI) deposits, Fixed Deposits (FDs), term deposits and recurring deposits (RDs). So, statement II is correct. Payment Banks cannot set up subsidiaries to undertake non-banking financial services activities. So, statement III is correct. Payment Banks are required to comply with specific reserve and investment norms laid down by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to ensure financial stability and prudence. As per the guidelines: They must maintain the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) with the RBI, which is a percentage of their outside demand and time liabilities, just like other scheduled banks. In addition, they are mandated to invest at least 75% of their demand deposit balances in Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)-eligible instruments, such as Government securities and Treasury bills, with maturities of up to one year. So, statement IV is correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Relevance: India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) has been conferred the prestigious Digital Payments Award 2024-25 by the Department of Financial Services (DFS), Ministry of Finance."

Question 27

27,"The \"Ottawa Convention\", recently seen in the news, aims to: (a) regulate cross-border digital taxation among OECD nations (b) ban the use of anti-personnel landmines (c) protect the intellectual property rights of indigenous communities (d) prohibit the use of cluster munitions in armed conflict"

Answer 27

27,b,"The Convention on the Prohibition of the Use, Stockpiling, Production, and Transfer of Anti-Personnel Mines and Their Destruction, typically referred to as the \"Ottawa Convention\" or \"Mine Ban Treaty,\" seeks to end the use of anti-personnel landmines (APLs) worldwide. It was adopted at the Diplomatic Conference on an International Total Ban on Anti-Personnel Landmines held in Oslo on 18th September 1997 and it entered into force on 1st March 1999. The treaty prohibits the use, stockpiling, production, and transfer of anti-personnel landmines, but does not extend to anti-vehicle (anti-tank) mines. Initially signed by 133 countries, the convention has since grown to include 164 States Parties. However, India, the United States and Russia have not joined the treaty. Ukraine is a signatory but has not ratified. Recently, the Parliament of Finland voted in favour of withdrawing the country from the Ottawa Convention that bans the use of anti-personnel landmines amid concerns over a military threat posed by neighbouring Russia. Finland joins other European Union and NATO members bordering Russia - Lithuania, Latvia, Estonia and Poland - in exiting or planning to exit the treaty. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, Finland's parliament voted in favour of withdrawing the country from the Ottawa Convention that bans the use of anti-personnel landmines."

Question 28

28,"Consider the following pairs: Strait Connects I. Hormuz Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman II. Bab-el-Mandeb Red Sea and Gulf of Aden III. Gibraltar Black Sea and Sea of Marmara How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None"

Answer 28

28,b,"The Strait of Hormuz is one of the world's most important shipping routes and its most vital oil transit chokepoint. It is bounded to the north by Iran and to the south by Oman and the United Arab Emirates (UAE), the corridor - which is only about 50km (31 miles) wide at its entrance and exit and about 33km wide at its narrowest point - connects the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman in Arabian Sea. So, pair I is correctly matched. Bab-el-Mandeb Strait is a strait of great strategic and economic importance, connecting the Red Sea in the northwest to the Gulf of Aden and the Indian Ocean in the southeast. It also separates Arabia, in the northeast, from the African continent, in the southwest. It further acts as a link between the Indian Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea via the Red Sea and the Suez Canal. So, pair II is correctly matched. Strait of Gibraltar is the body of water separating Europe from Africa and connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Atlantic Ocean. The Strait is bordered by Spain and the British Overseas Territory of Gibraltar in the north and by the African country of Morocco and the Spanish enclave of Ceuta in the south. So, pair III is not correctly matched. The Bosphorus Strait connects the Black Sea and the Sea of Marmara. It also acts as a boundary between two continents, Europe and Asia, and divides Turkey into two parts. So, only two of the pairs given above are correctly matched. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: Iran's Parliament has approved a proposal to close the Strait of Hormuz following US strikes on Iranian military sites."

Question 29

29,"Recently, India's first off-grid 5 MW green hydrogen pilot plant was inaugurated at which of the following locations? (a) Kutch, Gujarat (b) Bellary, Karnataka (c) Jaisalmer, Rajasthan (d) Rewa, Madhya Pradesh"

Answer 29

29,a,"An off-grid green hydrogen plant is a facility that produces hydrogen using electrolysis powered by renewable energy sources, such as solar or wind and is not connected to the main electrical grid. This means the plant relies entirely on its own renewable energy generation for the hydrogen production process. India's first off-grid 5 megawatt (MW) green hydrogen pilot plant was recently launched in Kutch, Gujarat. It is a 5 MW green hydrogen plant developed by Adani New Industries Limited (ANIL), the clean energy arm of Adani Enterprises Ltd. It features a fully automated and controlled electrolyser system, which is designed to respond to real-time renewable energy inputs. This provision, also known as a closed-loop system, aids in the flexibility of operations, particularly in addressing the shifting nature of solar power, while ensuring efficiency, safety and performance. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: Adani Group recently commissioned India's first off-grid 5-megawatt green hydrogen pilot plant in Kutch, Gujarat."

Question 30

30,"In many Low and Middle-Income Countries (LMICs), substances like chloramphenicol, tylosin and TCN (a mix of oxytetracycline, chloramphenicol and neomycin) continue to be used despite being banned in several developed nations. These substances are used as: (a) agents for artificial fruit ripening (b) antibiotics in livestock and poultry feed (c) preservatives in ready-to-eat food products (d) growth enhancers in genetically modified crops"

Answer 30

30,b,"India is encouraging the use of insect-based livestock feed as a sustainable, climate-resilient alternative to conventional animal feed. This initiative aims to reduce the environmental impact of animal farming and address the growing concern of Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR). Spearheaded by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) in collaboration with institutions such as the Central Institute of Brackishwater Aquaculture (CIBA) and the Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI), this approach leverages nutrient-rich insect protein as an eco-friendly feed source for poultry, aquaculture, and other livestock sectors. The increasing demand for proteins of animal origin has increased the costs of production and has encouraged farming practices to intensify. Ultimately, farmers are forced to use non-essential antibiotics to boost growth. The use of such antibiotics remains mostly unregulated in many countries, especially in Low- and Middle-Income Countries (LMICs). The type and frequency of antibiotic-based animal feed consumption differ across continents and depend highly on socioeconomic conditions, regional demand and production, farming systems and the national legislative framework. Some common antibiotics in use as feedstock in LMICs are chloramphenicol, tylosin and TCN (a powdered mixture of oxytetracycline, chloramphenicol and neomycin); developed countries have banned their use. In humans, overexposure to these drugs can eventually increase the risk of kidney disease, cancers and aplastic anaemia. In response to rising concerns over Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR), researchers are increasingly exploring insect-based feed as a sustainable alternative to conventional livestock feed. Globally, around 40 countries have already approved and regulated the use of insects in animal nutrition. Commonly used insect species include the black soldier fly, house fly (Musca domestica), compost worm (Perionyx excavatus), grasshoppers (locusts), small mealworms (Alphitobius) and various types of crickets such as the house cricket (Acheta domesticus), tropical cricket (Gryllodes sigillatus), and Jamaican field cricket (Gryllus assimilis). Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer."

Question 31

31,"Which of the following constitutes the \"trifecta\" of international science-policy bodies addressing the triple planetary crisis of climate change, biodiversity loss and pollution? I. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) II. Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) III. Science-Policy Panel on Chemicals, Waste and Pollution IV. Global Environment Facility (GEF) Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) I, II and III only (b) II, III and IV only (c) I, III and IV only (d) I, II and IV only"

Answer 31

31,a,"Recently, global delegates gathered in Punta del Este, Uruguay, to initiate the creation of a new science-policy panel dedicated to addressing chemical pollution and waste management. This initiative follows a resolution adopted during the 2022 United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA-5), which called for the establishment of a science-policy panel on chemicals, waste and pollution to strengthen evidence-based decision-making worldwide. So, point III is correct. The new body joins the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) and the Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES), completing a \"trifecta\" of international science-policy bodies aimed at addressing the triple planetary crisis of climate change, biodiversity loss and pollution. So, point I and II are correct. The Global Environment Facility (GEF) is a multilateral financial mechanism that provides grants to developing countries for projects aimed at protecting the global environment and promoting sustainable livelihoods. It was established in 1991 and serves as a financial mechanism for several major international environmental conventions. So, point IV is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer."

Question 32

32,"What is the primary purpose of Enhanced Rock Weathering (ERW) in climate mitigation strategies? (a) Increase soil fertility using synthetic fertilizers (b) Artificially enhance rainfall in arid regions (c) Accelerate the natural process of carbon dioxide capture and storage (d) Reduce ozone depletion by neutralizing CFCs"

Answer 32

32,c,"From the sugar plantations of Brazil to the tea estates of India, farmers worldwide are implementing Enhanced Rock Weathering (ERW), a state-of-the-art method to combat climate change. By distributing finely crushed rock across huge tracts of cropland, this method speeds up the atmosphere's natural carbon dioxide (CO2) removal process. Weathering is an ancient geological process at the core of ERW. When CO2 in the air or soil dissolves in water to generate carbonic acid, which then reacts with rocks, weathering naturally takes place. This process essentially locks away atmospheric CO2 by slowly breaking down the rocks and trapping carbon in the form of bicarbonates, which are then carried to the oceans and preserved as limestone. ERW speeds the process up by using quick-weathering rocks like basalt that are ground finely to increase their surface area. The added rock increases soil alkalinity, which can boost crop growth, soil nutrients and soil formation. Basalt is both naturally abundant and often available as a byproduct of quarrying, lowering the costs of the process. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer."

Question 33

33,"Candida tropicalis, recently seen in the news, is best described as: (a) a bacterial pathogen causing respiratory infections (b) a fungal pathogen associated with high mortality and resistance to azole drugs (c) a protozoan parasite responsible for malaria resurgence in tropical regions (d) a virus known for causing hemorrhagic fever outbreaks"

Answer 33

33,b,"Candida tropicalis is a significant fungal pathogen prevalent in India and several other regions globally, with infections linked to a high mortality rate of 55-60%. Azole-class antifungal drugs, including fluconazole and voriconazole, are commonly used for treatment. However, growing resistance to these drugs has become a major concern in medical communities, as an increasing number of C. tropicalis strains are showing reduced susceptibility, making infections more difficult to manage effectively. It has also been found that tebuconazole-resistant strains exhibited aneuploidy, meaning their chromosome number showed differences from the normal chromosome count for the organism. Such deviation from the normal chromosome complement is known as ploidy plasticity. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: 'Candida tropicalis' has been found to use chromosome alterations to resist common antifungal drugs such as fluconazole and voriconazole."

Question 34

34,"Consider the following statements with reference to the State of World Population (SOWP) Report, 2025: I. It is published by UNESCO. II. More than 60% percent of India's population in the 15-64 age group. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II"

Answer 34

34,b,"The 2025 State of World Population (SOWP) Report is titled ""The Real Fertility Crisis: The Pursuit of Reproductive Agency in a Changing World."" It is published by the United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA). So, statement I is not correct. According to the Report, India's population in 2025 has reached 1.46 billion, with 68 percent of the population in the 15-64 age group. So, statement II is correct. Other findings of the Report: In the context of India, financial constraints have emerged as a major obstacle to achieving reproductive autonomy. Nearly 40% of respondents identified financial limitations as a key deterrent to having the families they desire. Additional concerns include job insecurity (21%), housing inadequacy (22%), and the absence of dependable childcare (18%), all of which contribute to a perception that parenthood is increasingly unattainable. The report reiterates that replacement-level fertility (2.1 births per woman) is the rate at which a population sustains its size from one generation to the next. Fertility rates have declined below the replacement threshold in 31 states and Union Territories. However, higher fertility persists in Bihar (3.0), Meghalaya (2.9), and Uttar Pradesh (2.7). Notable urban-rural disparities continue, with seven states yet to attain replacement-level fertility in rural areas. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: India recently became the most populous country in the world, with a population of approximately 1.46 billion people."

Question 35

35,"Which of the following countries have recently launched the 'Blue Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC)' challenge\"? (a) United States of America and Canada (b) Brazil and France (c) India and Australia (d) Indonesia and Sri Lanka"

Answer 35

35,b,"At the UN Ocean Conference (UNOC), 2025, Brazil and France introduced the Blue NDC Challenge, a major global effort to strengthen ocean-based climate action. The initiative urges all countries to integrate the ocean into their national climate plans (NDCs) before COP30. NDCs are the core of each nation's strategy to cut emissions, limit global warming to 1.5°C, and enhance climate resilience, reflecting their strongest commitment under the UN Climate Change Framework (UNFCCC). The Blue NDC Challenge highlights the ocean's critical role in fighting climate change as a natural climate solution. It is backed by Ocean Conservancy, the Ocean & Climate Platform, and the World Resources Institute under the Ocean Resilience and Climate Alliance (ORCA), with support from WWF-Brazil. This initiative marks a significant step in recognising the ocean's power in global climate efforts. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: On the first day of the third UN Ocean Conference (UNOC3), France and Brazil have launched landmark international initiative, the Blue NDC Challenge."

Question 36

36,"Consider the following statements: Statement I: Ocean acidification is posing grave threats to marine ecosystems and global climate stability. Statement II: Ocean acidification has breached its planetary boundary. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct"

Answer 36

36,a,"Ocean acidification refers to the reduction in the pH of the Earth's oceans caused primarily by the uptake of carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere. When CO2 dissolves in seawater, it forms carbonic acid, which lowers the water's pH and makes it more acidic. This process adversely affects marine life, particularly organisms with calcium carbonate shells or skeletons such as corals, molluscs, and some plankton species. As these species form the base of the marine food chain, their decline has cascading effects on biodiversity, food security, and marine ecosystem services. So, statement I is correct. Until now, ocean acidification had not been deemed to have crossed its ""planetary boundary"". The planetary boundaries are the natural limits of key global systems - such as climate, water and wildlife diversity - beyond which their ability to maintain a healthy planet is in danger of failing. Six of the nine had been crossed already, scientists said last year. However, a new study by the UK's Plymouth Marine Laboratory (PML), found that ocean acidification's ""boundary"" was also breached about five years ago. So, statement II is correct. It found that by 2020 the average ocean condition worldwide was already very close to - and in some regions beyond - the planetary boundary for ocean acidification. At 200 metres below the surface, 60% of global waters had breached the ""safe"" limit for acidification. The primary driver of increasing atmospheric CO2 levels is the burning of fossil fuels, along with deforestation and other land-use changes. CO2 concentrations have risen from pre-industrial levels to over 420 ppm, with clear attribution to human activity. This rising CO2 is the direct cause of both climate change and ocean acidification. So, both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recent Studies found that the global ocean acidification has passed the safe planetary boundary threshold."

Question 37

37,"Two Indian astronauts participated in international space missions (1980s and 2020s). In the above context, which of the following statements are correct with regard to the distinguishing features of the latter mission compared to the former? I. The recent mission was part of a commercially operated US-based program, while the earlier was a bilateral diplomatic initiative with the USSR. II. The earlier mission included a longer duration of stay in space, while the recent mission included more experiments and deeper Indian scientific involvement. III. The recent mission marked India's first entry into the ISS, while the earlier one involved a stay aboard a Soviet-era space station. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III"

Answer 37

37,d,"Axiom-4 (Ax-4) mission aims to advance scientific research in space through many planned experiments, while also paving the way for more inclusive space exploration in the future. The mission emphasises human research, the use of artificial intelligence in space, biological and materials science, and understanding human capabilities in space. How was Rakesh Sharma's mission different from Shubhanshu Shukla's mission? The space missions of Rakesh Sharma (1984) and Shubhanshu Shukla (2025) are landmark events in India's space history, but they differ significantly in context, objectives, technology and their implications for India's space programme. Sharma's mission was a pioneering, Soviet-led diplomatic gesture with limited immediate technological impact for India, while Shukla's mission was a commercially arranged effort. So, statement I is correct. Sharma's mission was a product of the Indo-Soviet partnership. He flew as part of the Soviet Interkosmos program, which was designed to foster goodwill and scientific exchange between the USSR and allied nations. The mission showcased India's entry into the exclusive club of spacefaring nations. Sharma spent about eight days aboard the Soviet space station Salyut 7, conducting 43 experimental sessions, mainly in biomedicine and remote sensing. So, statement III is correct. Shukla's mission is not a government-to-government arrangement, but a seat secured by India on a private, US-operated mission (Axiom-4) to the International Space Station (ISS). The mission is managed by Axiom Space, a commercial entity. Shukla spent two weeks on the ISS, conducting around 60 experiments, with at least seven designed by ISRO. So, statement II is correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Relevance: Axiom-4 mission was postponed due to LOx leak, delaying Indian scientist Shubhanshu Shukla's team again."

Question 38

38,"Consider the following statements: 1. He emphasised personal devotion to God over ritualistic religious practices. II. He was associated with key works like Bijak, Sakhi Granth and Anurag Sagar. III. His verses are included in the Guru Granth Sahib. Who is this personality? (a) Guru Nanak (b) Sant Ravidas (c) Sant Kabir Das (d) Sant Namdev"

Answer 38

38,c,"Sant Kabir Das was a renowned 15th-century Indian mystic poet, saint, and social reformer, widely respected for his spiritual insight and his ability to question established religious practices. He emphasised critical thinking and personal devotion, rather than ritualistic worship, in the pursuit of spiritual truth. Kabir's poetic works, composed in the form of Bhajans and Dohas, strongly advocated for social equality, religious harmony, and inner spirituality. His teachings played a significant role in shaping the Bhakti movement in India, which focused on devotion and love for the divine. Among his major works are Bijak, Sakhi Granth, Kabir Granthavali, and Anurag Sagar. Some accounts suggest that while Kabir was born to a Brahmin mother, he was raised by a Muslim weaver. This unique background symbolised the blending of Hindu and Islamic influences. His two-line couplets, known as Kabir Ke Dohe, remain widely popular. A significant portion of Kabir's writings was compiled by the fifth Sikh Guru, Guru Arjan Dev, and included in the Sikh holy scripture, the Guru Granth Sahib. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box: Bhakti Saints of India: Guru Nanak: He was the founder of the Sikh religion and a disciple of Kabir. He was born in Talwandi near Lahore. He denounced caste distinctions and rituals like bathing in holy rivers. His conception of religion was highly practical and sternly ethical. He exhorted people to give up selfishness, falsehood and hypocrisy and to lead a life of truth, honesty and kindness. 'Abide pure amidst the impurities of the world' was one of his famous sayings. Sant Ravidas: He was a mystic and poet who was one of the most renowned of the saints of the North Indian bhakti movement. While objecting to the notion that caste plays a fundamental role in an individual's relationship to God, Ravidas contrasted his own lowliness to the exalted place of the divine: God, he said, was finer than he, as silk was to a worm, and more fragrant than he, as sandalwood was to the stinking castor oil plant. Guru Namdev: He was a poet-saint of the medieval period, who wrote in the Marathi language. Following a vision of the god Vishnu, Namdev turned to a life of devotion and became the foremost exponent of the Varkari Panth (""Pilgrims' Path""). The school is known for its expression of bhakti (devotion) and for its freedom from caste restrictions in a religious setting. Relevance: Sant Kabirdas' 648th birth anniversary was celebrated recently."

Question 39

39,"With reference to the 'CROPIC Initiative', consider the following statements: I. It is launched by the Ministry of Science and Technology. II. It is a part of the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana. III. It will help in crop damage assessment in case of localized calamities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) III only (b) II and III only (c) I and II only (d) I, II and III"

Answer 39

39,b,"The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare launched CROPIC, a study aimed at collecting crop-related data using field photographs and artificial intelligence-based models. So, statement I is not correct. It has been launched for the purpose of crop health monitoring on the ground under Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana. So, statement II is correct. The application aims at collection of geotagged crowdsourced photographs from farmers and field coordinators through smartphones. The purpose of time-series geotagged photographs is crop validation against insured crops and crop damage assessment in case of localized calamities. So, statement III is correct. This CROPIC mobile app, created by the Union Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare, will facilitate real-time data collection directly from the field, aiding in more accurate assessments and decision-making. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare plans to launch a new initiative named CROPIC."

Question 40

40,"With reference to Eurasian otter, consider the following statements: I. It is usually nocturnal and found in freshwater environments. II. It is a herbivorous animal that feeds on aquatic grass. III. It is found only in Kashmir Himalayas in India. Which of the statements given above are not correct? (a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III"

Answer 40

40,b,"The Eurasian otter is an elusive, solitary otter that has one of the widest distributions of all palearctic mammals, from Ireland to China and down to Southeast Asia. Notwithstanding its large range, its population is declining in many countries in which it is not protected and in others its status is unknown. It is usually nocturnal and can be found in many freshwater environments. In some environments, however, such as the Scottish Isles, it has diurnal habits and forages in the sea, later looking for freshwater pools to wash the salt out of its pelt. The Eurasian otter is solitary, but sometimes it is seen in family groups, composed of a mother and her offspring. So, statement I is correct. The otter has been classified as 'near threatened' globally by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). It has a varied diet which includes fish, crustaceans, amphibians and sometimes reptiles, birds, eggs, insects and worms. So, statement II is not correct. It is found in Northern, North Eastern and Southern parts of India. The Eurasian otter once played a vital role in Kashmir's aquatic ecosystem and was commonly found in its water bodies. Recently, it was cited in the Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary, Kerala. So, statement III is not correct. Therefore, option (b) is the answer. Relevance: The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) globally classified as 'near threatened as the Eurasian Otter, which was thought to be extinct, as recently spotted in Kashmir."

Question 41

41,"Consider the following: I. Religious symbols II. A vibrant, sophisticated urban society III. Port shreds with Tamil Brahmi inscriptions IV. Graffiti of the sun and moon V. An ivory dice How many of the above have been found at Keeladi? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All the five"

Answer 41

41,c,"Keeladi is a tiny hamlet in the Sivaganga district in south Tamil Nadu. It is located around 12 km south-east of Madurai. What made Keeladi's findings significant? Archaeologists were stunned by a few findings. Most importantly, there was no evidence of religious symbols at the excavation site which hinted at the secular nature of the civilization. So, point I is not correct. The finds also showed: the presence of a vibrant, sophisticated urban society in Keeladi. So, point II is correct. the strong structures oriented in cardinal direction suggesting systematic urban planning; port shreds with Tamil Brahmi inscriptions indicating a highly literate society. So, point III is correct. the graffiti of the sun and moon demonstrated the astronomical sense of the people. So, point IV is correct. an ivory dice pointing to the presence of an elite society. So, point V is correct. The excavations in Keeladi prove that an urban civilisation existed in this region in the Sangam period just on the banks of the Vaigai river. A recent ASI report by K. Amarnath Ramakrishna who discovered Keeladi site, has pushed the Sangam age to 800 BCE based on these archaeological findings. Discoveries include brick structures, artefacts indicating a literate society and evidence of trade routes. The finding points to an urban and industrial settlement that flourished for 800 years between 6th century BCE and second century CE. The urbanization described in Sangam literature can be observed by the observation of the remains of the large brick structures. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: Excavations at Keeladi site in Tamil Nadu have revealed an urban settlement dating back to 6th century BC."

Question 42

42,"Consider the following statements with reference to the Emperor Penguins: I. They are only aquatic mammals in Antarctica. II. They are the tallest and heaviest species of penguins. III. They exhibit huddling behaviour to protect from cold. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I, II and III (b) II and III only (c) III only (d) I and II only"

Answer 42

42,b,"Penguins are flightless aquatic birds found almost exclusively in the Southern Hemisphere, ranging from the icy coasts of Antarctica (like the Emperor Penguin) to the warmer Galapagos Islands (Galapagos Penguin) and the coasts of South America, Africa, Australia, and New Zealand. They are characterized by their distinctive black and white ""tuxedo"" plumage, streamlined bodies, and powerful flippers, which make them exceptional swimmers and divers, essentially ""flying"" through the water. So, statement I is not correct. Emperor penguins are found only in Antarctica. They breed on the sea ice surrounding the continent and spend their entire lives in the Antarctic region, rarely venturing into warmer waters. Thus, naturally they are found only in Antarctica. Emperor penguins are a highly successful species. They're the tallest and heaviest penguin alive today. They evolved about one million years ago and are highly adapted to life in one of Earth's harshest environments. As of 2009, the emperor penguin population was estimated at just shy of 600,000 birds. So, statement II is correct. Most remarkably, colonies of adults and chicks of the penguins work together to huddle for warmth. 5,000 or more tightly packed adults and chicks shuffle around, so each takes a turn - but not too long - on the outside of the huddle where it's cold. This is in complete contrast to their quarrelsome and territorial neighbours, the Adélie penguins. So, statement III is correct. Emperor penguins have a unique breeding cycle that takes place during the coldest (winter) and darkest time of the year in Antarctica. When summer arrives in December, the young chicks lose their soft down feathers and grow a dense, waterproof plumage - like a feathery armour against the intensely cold seas off the icy continent. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box: Do you know what Fast Ice is? Wild Emperor penguins breed and raise their young mostly on 'fast ice', a floating platform of frozen ocean which is connected to the land or to ice shelves. Fast ice, also known as landfast ice or shore-fast ice, is a type of sea ice or lake ice that is ""fastened"" or fixed in place. Unlike pack ice (or drift ice), which floats freely with currents and winds, fast ice remains immobile."

Question 43

43,"Which of the following are the most likely impacts of ocean darkening? I. Increased competition for aquatic food and space II. Disruption in migration and reproduction patterns of aquatic fauna III. Disruption of aquatic food web IV. Increase in oxygen production Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) I, II, III and IV (b) I, II and III only (c) I, III and IV only (d) II and IV only"

Answer 43

43,b,"Ocean darkening, scientifically known as ocean de-oxygenation or reduced light penetration, refers to the phenomenon where less sunlight penetrates the ocean's surface. This directly impacts the photic zone, which is the sunlit upper layer where photosynthesis occurs. The sunlit zone is home to the majority of oceanic life, from microscopic plankton to fish and larger predators. Darkening waters push light-dependent species closer to the surface, leading to: Increased competition for food and space. So, point I is correct. Disruption in feeding, migration, and reproduction patterns. So, point II is correct. Stress on plankton communities, which are the base of the marine food chain. This not only affects biodiversity but could destabilise entire ecosystems. This is not just a marine crisis, as humans are deeply connected to ocean health. The shrinking photic zone affects: Oxygen production decreases as marine phytoplankton, as it produces over 50% of Earth's oxygen. So, point IV is not correct. Food security: a disrupted ocean food web threatens global fisheries. So, point III is correct. Climate regulation: oceans absorb carbon dioxide and heat, and changes in biological activity may reduce this capacity. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer."

Question 44

44,"The 'Gyan Post' initiative recently seen in the news, aims to: (a) promote door-to-door digital literacy through postal workers (b) facilitate affordable delivery of non-commercial educational books (c) offer free online courses for vocational training (d) create a national registry of book publishers"

Answer 44

44,b,"The Department of Posts has introduced 'Gyan Post', a dedicated postal service for affordable delivery of educational, cultural, social and religious books. This initiative aligns with the New Education Policy (NEP) objectives. It aims to bridge the educational divide by making printed educational material more accessible and affordable across India, including remote and rural areas. Under 'Gyan Post', books related to Educational boards, Universities, Autonomous and Statutory bodies recognized by Government, textbooks used by candidates of various competitive examinations and literature related to social, cultural and religious nature issued or published as per the relevant law of the country can be sent by Post. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer."

Question 45

45,"Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to the Aircraft Accident Investigation Bureau (AAIB)? I. It is an attached office under the Ministry of Home Affairs. II. It was set up to fulfil the obligations under the Convention on International Civil Aviation, 1944. III. It has unrestricted access to all relevant evidence from any agency without seeking prior consent from any government authorities. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) I only (b) II and III only (c) I and II only (d) I, II and III"

Answer 45

45,b,"The Aircraft Act 1934 empowers the Government of India to make rules for investigation of accidents arising out of or during the navigation in or over India of any aircraft, or anywhere of aircraft registered in India. The Aircraft (Investigation of Accidents and Incidents) Rules 2012 provide for the establishment of the Aircraft Accident Investigation Bureau (AAIB). It is designated as an attached office of the Ministry of Civil Aviation. Presently, Investigation work is being carried out as per amended Aircraft (Investigation of Accidents and Incidents) Rules 2017 read with the Aircraft (Investigation of Accidents and Incidents) Amendment Rules, 2021. So, statement I is not correct. AAIB has the responsibility to fulfil the obligations of the State under Annex 13 to the Convention on International Civil Aviation signed at Chicago on the 7 December 1944 as amended from time to time. So, statement II is correct. The Aircraft (Investigation of Accidents and Incidents) Rules, 2012 were formulated and notified, providing for the setting up of an Aircraft Accident Investigation Bureau. AAIB has been mandated for immediate and unrestricted access to all relevant evidence from any agency / organisation without seeking prior consent from judicial bodies or other Government authorities. This is crucial for its independence and efficiency in investigations, aligning with ICAO standards. So, statement III is correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer."

Question 46

46,"Consider the following pairs: Protected Area Known For I. Surinsar-Mansar Wildlife Sanctuary Hosts Dal lake II. Kali Tiger Reserve Part of Dandeli Wildlife Sanctuary III. Idukki Wildlife Sanctuary Located on banks of Periyar river IV. Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve Largest Tiger reserve in India How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All the four"

Answer 46

46,b,"The Surinsar-Mansar wildlife sanctuary is located in Jammu and Kashmir. The sanctuary also includes two lakes. The twin Surinsar & Mansar Lake is already included in the list of Ramsar sites under the International Convention of Wetlands in 2005. So, pair I is not correctly matched. The Dal lake is located in Srinagar. Kali Tiger Reserve, earlier known as Dandeli-Anshi Tiger Reserve, is in the central portion of the Uttara Kannada (North Canara) district of Karnataka state. The Tiger Reserve comprises two important protected areas of the region viz., Dandeli Wildlife Sanctuary and Anshi National Park. So, pair II is correctly matched. Idukki Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Kerala. It is cradled by the Cheruthoni and Periyar Rivers. So, pair III is correctly matched. Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve became the seventh tiger reserve of Madhya Pradesh in 2024. So, pair IV is not correctly matched. Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve, located in Andhra Pradesh is the largest tiger reserve in India. So, only two of the pairs given above are correctly matched. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer."

Question 47

47,"With reference to zero-coupon bonds, consider the following statements: I. They pay periodic interest. II. They are redeemed at full face value upon maturity. III. They are purchased at a discounted price. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I only (d) I, II and III"

Answer 47

47,b,"A bond is a tool for a company or a government to borrow money. Investors who purchase bonds are effectively acting as lenders to the issuing entity. The investors earn a return in the form of coupon payments that are made semi-annually or annually throughout the life of the bond. A zero-coupon bond, also called a discount bond, is purchased at a discounted price. It is a type of debt instrument that does not pay periodic interest. The maturity dates on zero coupon bonds are usually long-term-many don't mature for ten, fifteen, or more years. These long-term maturity dates allow an investor to plan for a long-range goal. Because zero coupon bonds pay no interest until maturity, their prices fluctuate more than other types of bonds in the secondary market. So, statement I is not correct and statement III is correct. The investors buy it at a price significantly below its face value (a ""deep discount""). At maturity, the bondholder receives the full-face value of the bond, and the difference between the purchase price and the face value represents the interest earned over the bond's life. Thus, it is issued at a deep discount and redeemed at its full-face value upon maturity, with the profit being the difference between the purchase price and the maturity value. So, statement II is correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer."

Question 48

48,"Consider the following pairs with reference to the colour-coded alerts issued by International Criminal Police Organization (INTERPOL): Notice Purpose I. Silver Notice Identification and tracing of criminal assets II. Yellow Notice Locate missing person III. Black Notice Warn about a person who is considered a possible threat to public safety How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None"

Answer 48

48,b,"INTERPOL (International Criminal Police Organization) uses a system of color-coded Notices and Diffusions to alert police in its member countries about criminals, threats, and missing persons, and to request cooperation. These are not international arrest warrants in themselves, but rather requests for cooperation or information sharing, which member countries then act upon according to their own national laws. A Silver notice is issued for the identification and tracing of the criminal assets. Recently, the CBI's International Operations Division, working with the Interpol wing of the agency, secured India's first-ever Silver Notice from Interpol to help trace and identify assets acquired overseas through the alleged proceeds of crime. So, pair I is correctly matched. A Red Notice is issued to seek the location and arrest of a person wanted for prosecution or to serve a sentence. A Yellow Notice is issued to help locate missing persons, especially minors, or to identify persons who are unable to identify themselves. So, pair II is correctly matched. A Black Notice is used to seek information on unidentified bodies. So, pair III is not correct. A Blue Notice is issued to collect additional information about a person's identity, location or activities in relation to a criminal investigation. A Green Notice is used to warn about a person's criminal activities if they are considered a possible threat to public safety. So, only two of the pairs given above are correctly matched. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box: How are the INTERPOL Notices issued? Notices are issued by the General Secretariat at the request of a member country's INTERPOL National Central Bureau and are made available for all the member countries to consult in Notices database. Notices can also be issued at the request of International Criminal Tribunals and the International Criminal Court to seek persons wanted for committing crimes within their jurisdiction, notably genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity. They can also be issued at the request of the United Nations in relation to the implementation of sanctions imposed by the Security Council."

Question 49

49,"With reference to UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN), which one of the following is an odd one out? (a) Jaipur: Creative City of Crafs and FolkArts (b) Gwalior: Creative City of Music (c) Srinagar : Creative City of Gastronomy (d) Kozhikode : Creative City of Literature"

Answer 49

49,c,"The UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN) fosters collaboration among cities that recognize creativity as a strategic factor for sustainable urban development. Launched in 2004, the network includes cities from around the globe, working across seven creative fields: Crafts and Folk Arts, Design, Film, Gastronomy, Literature, Media Arts, and Music. Jaipur was designated a UNESCO Creative City of Crafts and Folk Arts in 2015, recognized for its rich heritage in various traditional crafts like blue pottery, textiles, jewellery, and more. Varanasi was designated a UNESCO Creative City of Music in 2015, renowned for its deep historical connection to Hindustani classical music and its vibrant musical traditions. Chennai (2017), Gwalior (2023) alongwith Varanasi hold this designation. Srinagar was designated a UNESCO Creative City of Crafts and Folk Arts in 2021, celebrated for its unique handicrafts and handloom products like Pashmina shawls, carpets, and wood carving. Hyderabad is a city designated in the Gastronomy category. Kozhikode was designated a UNESCO Creative City of Literature in 2023, recognized for its robust literary foundation, numerous publishing houses, and a strong culture of reading and writing. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, Lucknow has been officially nominated for inclusion in the UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN) as a ""City of Gastronomy"" a title currently held by only one other Indian city, Hyderabad."

Question 50

50,"The Global Education Monitoring (GEM) Report 2024 is published by which one of the following organizations? (a) UNESCO (b) OECD (c) World Bank (d) UNICEF"

Answer 50

50,a,"The Global Education Monitoring (GEM) Report is an annual, independent report published by UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization). It is the authoritative reference for monitoring progress towards the education targets within the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), specifically SDG 4: ""Ensure inclusive and equitable quality education and promote lifelong learning opportunities for all"". The GEM Report is an independent annual report published by UNESCO's Global Education Monitoring Team. The annual theme for the 2024 GEM Report is ""Leadership in Education"". According to the latest report around 11% of primary school-age children (78 million), 15% of lower secondary school-age adolescents (64 million) and 31% of upper secondary school-age youths (130 million) are out of school. The global out-of-school population is now estimated to be 272 million, over 21 million more than the last estimate, according to UNESCO's Global Education Monitoring Team (GEM). Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer."

Question 51

51,"With reference to SCORES Portal, consider the following statements: I. It is launched by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). II. It aims to address investor grievances against market infrastructure institutions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II"

Answer 51

51,c,"Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) Complaint Redressal System (SCORES) is a centralized web-based complaint redressal facilitation platform launched in 2011. It aims to provide a facilitative platform for the benefit of the aggrieved investors, whose grievances against listed company, registered intermediary or market infrastructure institutions remain unresolved. So, statement II is correct. It is an online platform launched by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) to help investors lodge complaints against market intermediaries and companies and to facilitate the redressal of these grievances. So, statement II is correct. SEBI launched SCORES 2.0 on April 1, 2024, as an upgraded version of the original SCORES platform. A key feature of SCORES 2.0 is the reduction in the maximum time period for resolution of investor complaints from 30 days to 21 calendar days. Complaints are automatically routed to the relevant regulated entity for their response and resolution. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer."

Question 52

52,"Recently, the Centre issued 'Model Rules for Felling of Trees in Agricultural Lands'. In this context, which of the following are the likely objectives behind promoting agroforestry in India? I. Enhancing tree cover outside traditional forest areas II. Reducing dependence on timber imports III. Supporting India's Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) under the Paris Agreement Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III"

Answer 52

52,d,"The Centre has issued model rules for the felling of trees on agricultural land in a bid to promote agroforestry with the aim of doubling farmers' incomes, increasing tree cover outside forests and mitigating climate change. The objective of 'Model Rules for Felling of Trees in Agricultural Lands' is to enhance the ease of doing business in agroforestry and incentivise farmers to integrate trees into their farming systems without facing undue procedural hurdles. The government has been promoting agroforestry to double farmers' income, enhance tree cover outside forests, mitigate climate change, reduce timber imports and ensure sustainable land use. It also supports India's climate goals under the Paris Agreement. So, points I, II and III are correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box: How will the model rules govern the felling of trees? According to the model rules, the State Level Committee (SLC) already formed under the Wood-Based Industries (Establishment and Regulation) Guidelines, 2016 will also serve as the committee for these rules. It will now also include officials from revenue and agriculture departments. The committee will advise the State government on how to promote agroforestry and increase timber production from agricultural lands by simplifying rules for felling and transit of trees, especially species with commercial value. Applicants must register their plantation land on the National Timber Management System (NTMS) portal. They have to enter land ownership details and the location of their agricultural land. They must give basic plantation details, including the number of saplings by species, planting date (month and year) and the average height of seedlings. Applicants will also have to update this information as required by the SLC. Each tree must be photographed with geotagged images in KML file format. These details will be monitored by field functionaries from the forest, agriculture and panchayati raj departments. For lands with more than 10 trees, the applicant must apply online through the NTMS, giving detailed information about the trees to be felled. The verifying agency will do a field visit and prepare a report with details about the land, trees and the estimated quantity of timber. Based on this, a felling permit will be generated. For application for felling of up to 10 trees, applicants need to upload trees' photos to the NTMS. The system will estimate the tree size (girth, height), yield and species. Applicants also need to inform the planned felling date. After felling, they must upload stump photos. The department concerned may also send an officer to verify. In this case, the no objection certificate for felling will be issued automatically through the portal. Divisional forest officers will monitor how verifying agencies are functioning. They will submit a report every quarter to the SLC on the performance of these agencies."

Question 53

53,"The recently launched Samarth Incubation Program primarily aims to: (a) promote rural entrepreneurship through promoting traditional crafts (b) support startups in the next generation telecom and IT sectors (c) enhance agricultural productivity through AI-based solutions (d) provide vocational training to underprivileged youth in rural areas"

Answer 53

53,b,"Samarth Incubation Program is designed to provide comprehensive support for startups and innovators engaged in creating next-generation technologies in the fields of Telecom Software Applications, Cyber Security, 5G/6G Technologies, AI, IoT Applications & Quantum Technologies. The program aims to encourage the development of sustainable and scalable business models, offer access to cutting-edge resources, and help Startups bridge the gap from ideation to commercialization. Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DoT) has selected Software Technology Parks of India (STPI) as the Implementation Partner to drive the vision of nurturing high-impact, innovative solutions and start-ups in the tech ecosystem. 'Samarth' represents a dynamic and supportive environment for startups looking to make their mark in the fast-evolving telecom and IT landscape. The program has a maximum cohort size of 18 startups per program, with a total of 36 startups across two cohorts of six months each. The program will be delivered in a hybrid mode. Through world-class infrastructure, expert mentorship, and access to a network of investors and industry leaders, the program is set to empower the next generation of innovators. The applications under 'Samarth' are open to DPIIT (Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade) recognized startups. Selected startups will get an opportunity to grant up to 5 lakh INR each, access to well-furnished office space for a period of 6 months at C-DOT Campus, access to C-DOT Lab facilities, mentorship from C-DOT technical leaders & industry experts. Based on progress the startup will get an opportunity for future collaboration under C-DOT Collaborative Research Program. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box: What is Software Technology Parks of India (STPI)? Software Technology Parks of India (STPI) is a premier S&T organization under Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) engaged in promoting IT/ITES Industry, innovation, R&D, start-ups, product/IP creation in the field of emerging technologies like IoT, Blockchain, Artificial Intelligence (AI), Machine Learning (ML), Computer Vision, Robotics etc. Relevance: The Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DoT) recently launched first cohort of Incubation Program named as ""Samarth""."

Question 54

54,"Consider the following statements with reference to Valley fever: I. It is a fungal infection that affects lungs. II. It is classified as Neglected Tropical Disease (NTD). III. It is most common in the winter season. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None"

Answer 54

54,a,"Valley fever (coccidioidomycosis) is a lung infection caused by Coccidioides, a fungus that lives in the soil. So, statement I is correct. It is not classified as Neglected Tropical Disease (NTD). The fungus is found in the Pacific Northwest and southwestern United States, and parts of Mexico, Central America, and South America. So, statement II is not correct. The disease is spread when someone breathes in the spores, although many don't get infected. While the disease isn't contagious, there are outbreaks when there's a lot of dirt and dust. The infection is most common in late summer and fall, and the peak is seen usually in the months of September and November. Pets can also become infected. Valley fever does not spread from person to person or between people and animals. So, statement III is not correct. So, only one of the above statements is correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box: How does the Valley fever transmit? People can get Valley fever by breathing in the spores from Coccidioides. Some people breathe in the spores and never get sick. Valley fever causes typical lung infection symptoms like cough and fever. Fatigue, cough, fever, headache, shortness of breath, night sweats, muscle aches, joint pain and a red rash on the upper body or legs are some of the symptoms. Early treatment with antifungal medications can save lives. Because Valley fever has the same symptoms as pneumonias caused by bacteria or viruses, it is often misdiagnosed or undiagnosed. Relevance: According to news reports, Valley Fever cases have been increasing in California in the recent months."

Question 55

55,"'Portulaca Bharat', recently discovered in the Aravalli Hills, is a new species of which of the following? (a) Medicinal fungus (b) Flowering plant (c) Freshwater algae (d) Desert shrub"

Answer 55

55,b,"A new flowering plant species with unusual morphological characteristics has been discovered in the rocky and semi-arid landscape of Aravali hills near Jaipur, shedding light on the region's hidden biodiversity. Classified as Portulaca bharat, the plant adds to the list of Indian endemics. With no other populations currently known, Portulaca bharat has been provisionally assessed as ""data deficient"" under the International Union for Conservation of Nature Red List guidelines. The plant's narrow endemism and specific habitat requirements make it highly vulnerable to habitat degradation and climate change. The genus Portulaca currently comprises about 153 species worldwide, primarily found in tropical and subtropical regions. These succulent plants are known for their toughness, water-storing tissues, and adaptation to extreme environments. In India, II species are currently known, including four endemics, mostly distributed in dry and semi-arid habitats. Portulaca bharat has opposite and slightly concavel leaves and pale-yellow flowers becoming creamish-white towards apex, with the presence of glandular hairs on stamen filaments and thick roots. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: New plant species Portulaca bharat was recently discovered in Aravali hills near Jaipur."

Question 56

56,"The 'Order of Makarios III Grand Cross' was recently awarded to the Prime Minister of India by which one of the following countries? (a) Mauritius (b) Kuwait (c) Cyprus (d) Barbados"

Answer 56

56,c,"The Grand Cross of the Order of Makarios III is a prestigious honour in Cyprus, named after the country's first president, Archbishop Makarios III. It recognises outstanding contributions and achievements. The Order of Makarios III, established in 1991, acknowledges exceptional service and contributions to Cyprus or the international community. It also symbolises Cyprus's appreciation for exceptional service, leadership, or contributions that have positively impacted the country or the world. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: In Cyprus, the Prime Minister of India recently received the Grand Cross of the Order of Makarios III, marking the first visit by an Indian PM in over 20 years."

Question 57

57,"Consider the following statements with reference to India's Extended Trajectory-Long Duration Hypersonic Cruise Missile (ET-LDHCM): I. It is completely indigenous defence technology. II. It is capable of achieving maximum speeds up to Mach 8. III. It can be launched from land, air and naval platforms. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None"

Answer 57

57,c,"Extended Trajectory-Long Duration Hypersonic Cruise Missile (ET-LDHCM): It is developed entirely using domestic (indigenous) technology by India under the Defence Research and Development Organisation's (DRDO) classified initiative Project Vishnu. The missile is being touted as a potential game-changer in the Asian military balance. So, statement I is correct. The ET-LDHCM, which boasts a top speed of Mach 8 (approximately 11,000 km/h), can deliver swift and devastating strikes deep into enemy territory, including targets in China and Pakistan. So, statement II is correct. With this capability, India joins an elite group of countries, including the United States, China, and Russia, that have achieved operational success in hypersonic weapons technology. What sets the ET-LDHCM apart is its flexibility. It can be launched from land-based launchers, aircraft, or naval platforms, vastly expanding India's tactical and strategic strike options. Its pinpoint accuracy and ability to evade interception make it suitable for targeting enemy command centres, radar installations, naval assets, and fortified bunkers. So, statement III is correct. So, all three of the above statements are correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box: Other features of the Extended Trajectory-Long Duration Hypersonic Cruise Missile (ET-LDHCM): Designed for both conventional and nuclear missions, the missile can carry warheads weighing between 1,000 and 2,000 kg over a range of approximately 1,500 km. Contrary to traditional ballistic missiles, the ET-LDHCM flies at low altitudes, is capable of mid-course corrections. It can have broader applications in satellite launches, aerospace development, and disaster response. The project has also opened avenues for private sector collaboration, with several Indian MSMEs and defence firms contributing to the effort, boosting local innovation and job creation. Relevance: India is poised to make a major advancement in its strategic defence arsenal with the upcoming test of its most sophisticated Extended Trajectory-Long Duration Hypersonic Cruise Missile (ET-LDHCM)."

Question 58

58,"Consider the following statements: I. Lac insects secrete laccaic acid, which is utilized in the production of natural lac dye. II. Palash tree serves as a primary host tree for lac insects. III. India is currently the world's leading producer of lac. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None"

Answer 58

58,c,"The lac insect grows on certain trees (like the flame of the forest), drinks its sugary sap, and secretes a sticky resin called shellac. It also makes a bright red compound called laccaic acid, which is used to make the pigment. The lac pigment is a prized commodity used in food colouring, textiles, dyes, handicrafts, and folk art. So, statement I is correct. Researchers have recently found that the colourful pigment extracted from the lac insect may be produced by a symbiotic yeast-like organism living inside the insect. One of the key ingredients required for laccaic acid synthesis is an amino acid called tyrosine, which the insect cannot make on its own or source from the tree sap. Such missing ingredients are usually supplied by symbiotic bacteria or fungi that live inside insect bodies and secrete these molecules in exchange for housing. The Palash tree (Butea monosperma) is one of the most common host plants for lac insects. These insects attach themselves to its tender branches, feed on the tree's sap using their piercing-sucking mouthparts, and in the process, secrete a resinous substance known as lac. So, statement II is correct. India is the top global producer and exporter of lac. Lac insects thrive in states like Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh, secreting resin used in dyes, varnishes, and food coatings. So, statement III is correct. So, all three of the above statements are correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: Researchers have recently found that the colourful pigment extracted from the lac insect may be produced by a symbiotic yeast-like organism living inside the insect."

Question 59

59,"Consider the following pairs: Volcano Country I. Mount Lewotobi Laki-laki Indonesia II. Mount Merapi Japan III. Mount Sinabung United States of America How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None"

Answer 59

59,a,"Mount Lewotobi Laki-laki is a twin volcano located in Indonesia's East Nusa Tenggara province on Flores Island. It is situated along the famous 'Ring of Fire' in the Pacific region. So, pair I is correctly matched. It is one of the most frequently active volcanoes in the region. It has two peaks arranged on a NW-SE line separated by 2 km and a 1232 m high saddle. This gave the twin volcano name, Lewotobi, ""husband and wife"". Mount Merapi (meaning Mountain of Fire) is an active stratovolcano (or composite volcano) located in south-east Asia, on the island of Java, Indonesia, a lower middle income country (LMIC). It is the most active volcano in Indonesia, having erupted regularly since 1548. So, pair II is not correctly matched. Mount Sinabung is one of the active volcanoes in Karo North Sumatra Indonesia. Before 2010, Sinabung was categorized as a dormant volcano. After the eruption that happened on August 29, 2010, Sinabung increased its level as an active volcano. The eruption of Sinabung occurred again in September 2013 until now that has not stopped its activity. So, pair III is not correctly matched. So, only one of the pairs given above is correctly matched. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box: The Ring of Fire is a string of volcanoes and sites of seismic activity, earthquakes, around the edges of the Pacific Ocean. Roughly 90 percent of all earthquakes occur along the Ring of Fire, and the ring is dotted with 75 percent of all active volcanoes on Earth. Mount Tambora is a volcano located on Sumbawa, an island of Indonesia. The April 1815 eruption of Mount Tambora was one of the most powerful eruptions of the past 10,000 years. Relevance: Several flights to the Indonesian resort island of Bali were recently cancelled and the airport in Maumere in East Nusa Tenggara province was closed due to the eruption of Mount Lewotobi Laki-laki."

Question 60

60,"\"Two individuals, often referred to as Alice and Bob, are exchanging secure information using particles whose physical states collapse if observed. When a third party tries to intercept the exchange, the system detects the intrusion instantly due to the disturbance in particle states\". The above method of communication is best described as: (a) Blockchain Technology (b) Intrusion-Sensitive Communication Protocol (c) Optical Fiber Multiplexing (d) Quantum Key Distribution"

Answer 60

60,d,"Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) leverages the principles of quantum entanglement to ensure unbreakable communication security. Imagine sending messages so secure that any attempt to hack them triggers an automatic alarm-like a cosmic tripwire. This is the promise of QKD. When two particles, such as photons, are entangled, their states remain linked regardless of distance. It's akin to rolling one magical die on Earth and seeing the same result on another at the edge of the galaxy. In a quantum setting, two users, commonly called Alice and Bob, exchange encryption keys using quantum particles. If a third party, Eve, tries to intercept the key, the quantum state is disturbed, immediately alerting the users to the breach. Whether transmitted through air, fiber optics, or satellites, quantum-secure communication ensures that any eavesdropping attempt is not just detectable - but automatically shuts down the process. With this technology, India is paving the way for a future where data is truly unhackable. India is making significant strides in this domain. ISRO recently demonstrated entanglement-based quantum-secure communication over a 300-meter distance, where encrypted video was successfully decrypted using secure quantum keys transmitted via photons and lasers. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, DRDO and IIT Delhi demonstrated quantum entanglement-based free-space quantum secure communication over a distance of more than 1 km."

Question 61

61,"Consider the following pairs: Operation Objective I. Sindhu Rescue Indian nationals stranded in conflict-hit Iran II. Kaveri Repatriate Indian citizens were stranded in Sudan III. Ganga Rescue Indian citizens stranded in Ukraine How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None"

Answer 61

61,c,"Operation Sindhu is a humanitarian evacuation mission launched by India's Ministry of External Affairs to rescue Indian nationals, especially students, stranded in conflict-hit Iran amid the Israel-Iran War. The first flight, carrying 110 Indian students, departed from Yerevan, Armenia, and arrived in Delhi on June 19. So, pair I is correctly matched. The operation launched by India to rescue and repatriate Indian citizens who were stranded in Sudan due to armed conflict was named Operation Kaveri. It was conducted in April-May 2023 and involved both Indian Air Force aircraft and Indian Navy ships to evacuate thousands of Indians from the conflict-hit nation. So, pair II is correctly matched. The operation launched by the Government of India to rescue and repatriate Indian citizens, primarily students, who were stranded in Ukraine amidst the war with Russia in February-March 2022 was named Operation Ganga. So, pair III is correctly matched. India launched Operation Brahma to provide necessary support, including Search and Rescue (SAR), humanitarian aid, disaster relief and medical assistance, following the devastating earthquake that struck Myanmar on 28th March 2025. Being the First Responder in times of crisis in the Neighbourhood, Operation Brahma is a whole-of-government endeavour by India to respond to widespread destruction in Myanmar. So, three of the pairs given above are correctly matched. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer."

Question 62

62,"Consider the following pairs: Report Published by I. World Investment Report World Bank II. Global Drought Outlook Report Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development III. Global Economic Prospects Report International Monetary Fund IV. Tracking SDG 7: The Energy Progress Report International Solar Alliance How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All the four"

Answer 62

62,a,"The World Investment Report 2025 was by the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development, shows that the total stock of foreign investment accumulated in India over the years stood at 14% of the country's gross domestic product (GDP) in 2024, down from 17.9% in 2020. So, pair I is not correctly matched. The Global Drought Outlook report is released by the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD). It assesses how countries can strengthen drought management to adapt to a changing climate. It provides new insights into the rising human, environmental, and economic impacts of droughts and offers practical policy solutions to minimise losses, build long-term resilience, and support adaptation to a drier future. So, pair II is correctly matched. The World Bank publishes the Global Economic Prospects report. The January 2025 edition of the World Bank's Global Economic Prospects (GEP) report projects India's economy to grow at a steady rate of 6.7% in both FY26 and FY27, significantly outpacing global and regional peers. At a time when global growth is expected to remain at 2.7 per cent in 2025-26, this remarkable performance underscores India's resilience and its growing significance in shaping the world's economic trajectory. So, pair III is not correctly matched. The Tracking SDG 7: The Energy Progress Report is a joint report produced by five custodian agencies: the International Energy Agency (IEA), the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), the UN Statistics Division (UNSD), the World Bank, and the World Health Organization (WHO). While the International Solar Alliance (ISA) is an important body for promoting solar energy. So, pair IV is not correctly matched. So, only one of the pairs given above is correctly matched. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer."

Question 63

63,"With reference to the PM-Wi-Fi Access Network Interface (WANI) Scheme, consider the following statements: I. It allows local businesses like kirana stores and tea stalls to set up Wi-Fi hotspots without requiring any license. II. There is no cap on tariffs charged to Public Data Offices (PDOs). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II"

Answer 63

63,a,"The PM-WANI (Prime Minister's Wi-Fi Access Network Interface) Scheme, launched by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) in December 2020. It is envisaged that last mile broadband connectivity, where the consumer accesses broadband services, will be through a network of public Wi-Fi access points. The backhaul requirement for these Wi-Fi access points will be met by procuring internet bandwidth from the telecom service providers/internet service providers. Local businesses (like kirana stores, tea stalls, small shops) can become Public Data Offices (PDOs) and set up Wi-Fi hotspots without requiring any license, registration, or fees from the DoT. PDOs procure internet bandwidth from existing Telecom Service Providers (TSPs) or Internet Service Providers (ISPs). This significantly lowers the barrier to entry and encourages widespread participation. So, statement I is correct. Public Data Office Aggregator (PDOA) will be an aggregator of PDOs and perform the functions relating to Authorization and Accounting. It helps PDOs manage their operations and billing. The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) has prescribed a cap on tariffs charged to Public Data Offices (PDOs) under the PM-WANI scheme, in order to keep public Wi-Fi affordable, while also providing reasonable compensation for the broadband connection to service providers. So, statement II is not correct. As per the latest circular (71st Amendment) Order; ""Every service provider providing retail Fiber-to-the-Home (FTTH) broadband services shall offer all of its retail FTTH broadband plans up to 200 mbps to the PDOs under the PM-WANI scheme, at tariff not exceeding twice the tariff applicable to the retail subscribers for the corresponding FTTH broadband plan of the bandwidth (capacity) offered,"" TRAI said in its order. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer."

Question 64

64,"Consider the following statements with reference to the FASTag: I. It uses Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology for automatic toll collection at plazas. II. It is solely managed by the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II"

Answer 64

64,a,"FASTag is an electronic toll collection system managed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) and the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI). A FASTag sticker is usually pasted on the windscreen of a car. It was launched in 2014 as a pilot project and made mandatory at every toll plaza in the country in 2021. So, statement II is not correct. It uses Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology to communicate with scanners installed at toll plazas. So, statement I is correct. FASTag pass: It will allow commuters to travel toll-free for 200 trips or one year from the date on which the pass is activated, whichever comes first. In addition, the annual FASTag pass will only work at toll plazas that are operated by the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI). This means holders of the annual pass will still need to pay toll on state highways, private-run toll roads, and state-run expressways. The Annual Pass is applicable only for private non-commercial cars, jeeps and vans. According to the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH), use of annual pass in any commercial vehicle will result in immediate deactivation without notice. However, the Annual Pass is not mandatory. The existing FASTag ecosystem will continue to operate as it is. Users who do not opt for the Annual Pass can continue to use their FASTag for regular transactions as per applicable user fee rates at fee plazas. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer."

Question 65

65,"With reference to United Nations Human Settlements Programme (UN-Habitat), consider the following statements: I. It is mandated under the Istanbul Declaration on Human Settlements. II. It was formed under the resolution 25/206 of the UN. III. The UN-Habitat Assembly convenes every four years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only (b) I and II only (c) III only (d) I, II and III"

Answer 65

65,d,"The United Nations Human Settlements Programme (UN-Habitat) is mandated by the UN General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities. UN-Habitat is the focal point for all urbanization and human settlement matters within the UN system. UN-Habitat, the United Nations Human Settlements Programme, is mandated by the UN General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities. It is the focal point for all urbanization and human settlement matters within the UN system. The main documents outlining UN-Habitat's mandate are the Vancouver Declaration on Human Settlements (Habitat I), the Istanbul Declaration on Human Settlements (Habitat II and the Habitat Agenda), the Declaration on Cities and Other Human Settlements in the New Millennium, and Resolution 56/206. UN-Habitat's current mandate is also shaped by the United Nations General Assembly resolution 3327 (XXIX), which, in 1975, established the United Nations Habitat and Human Settlements Foundation (UNHHSF). So, statement I is correct. In 2002, the UN General Assembly adopted resolution 25/206, strengthening the mandate and status of the Commission on Human Settlements and the status, role, and functions of the United Nations Centre for Human Settlements (Habitat). Effective from 1 January 2002, the resolution transformed the United Nations Centre for Human Settlements into a direct subsidiary organ of the UN General Assembly, the United Nations Human Settlements Programme, to be known as UN-Habitat. So, statement II is correct. Historically, UN-Habitat had a Governing Council (GC). However, in 2018, the UN General Assembly decided to dissolve the Governing Council and replace it with a new governance structure, including the UN-Habitat Assembly (a universal body of all 193 UN member states meeting every four years) and an Executive Board (36 member states elected by the Assembly). So, statement III is correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer."

Question 66

66,"Consider the following Union Territories (UTs) of India: I. Delhi II. Ladakh III. Jammu and Kashmir IV. Lakshadweep V. Puducherry The President can make regulations for peace, progress and good governance for how many of the above UTs? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All the five"

Answer 66

66,b,"Article 240 under Part VIII of the Constitution of India empowers the President of India to make regulations for certain Union Territories (UTs) for the peace, progress and good Government of the same. The Union Territories mentioned explicitly in the Article for this purpose are: Andaman and Nicobar Islands; Lakshadweep. So, point IV is correct. Dadra and Nagar Haveli; Daman and Diu; Puducherry. So, point V is correct. [For Puducherry these regulations can only be invoked when its legislature remains suspended (Article 239A)]. Under the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act of 2019 the Parliament provided that 'the President may make regulations for the peace, progress and good government of the Union territory of Ladakh under Article 240 of the Constitution of India'. Thus extending the scope of Article 240 to the UT of Ladakh. So, point II is correct. Delhi is a Union Territory with special status under Article 239AA, which provides it with a Legislative Assembly. The governance of Delhi is not covered under Article 240, as its legislative powers and administration are separately defined. So, point I is not correct. The UT of Jammu and Kashmir has provisions for a Legislative Assembly and is not governed under Article 240. So, point III is not correct. So, the President can make regulations for peace, progress and good governance for only three of the above UTs. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: The Central Government has recently made provisions for benefits for locals of the UT of Ladakh under Article 240."

Question 67

67,"Consider the following statements with regard to Census exercise in India: I. The administrative boundaries of districts, tehsils, villages and towns are frozen before every Census. II. The census data must be released within one year of its conclusion. III. The Registrar General of India, the nodal agency for conducting the census, functions under the Prime Minister's Office. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I and III only (b) III only (c) I only (d) I, II and III"

Answer 67

67,c,"Census is conducted in India under the provisions of the Census Act, 1948, under which the Union Government had sole responsibility of conducting a census exercise, appointing a census commissioner and setting a date for the decennial census. During the census operation - both the house listing phase and population enumeration - the States and the Union Territories are not supposed to change the boundaries Districts, Towns, Villages and Tehsils. According to the rules under the Census Act, 1948, the census exercise can begin only three months after freezing of administrative boundaries. So, statement I is correct. There is no constitutional or statutory mandate requiring the government to publish the census data within a specified period or date. For instance, the 2011 Census data was released in 2013, and data releases often happen in phases. The 1948 Act does not bind the Union Government to conduct the census on a particular date or to release its data in a notified period. So, statement II is not correct. The office of the Registrar General of India under the Ministry of Home Affairs is the official nodal agency for conducting the decennial census. This role has been institutionalized since the Census Act of 1948. So, statement III is not correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: The Government of India on June 4, 2025 declared that the process of data collection for the Census, along with caste enumeration, would commence early next year."

Question 68

68,"Consider the following statements: Statement I: India is the world's largest emitter of sulfur oxides. Statement II: More than 40% of India's electricity is produced from coal based thermal plants. Statement III: The calorific value of Indian coal is lower than that of the imported coal used in the Thermal Power Plants. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct"

Answer 68

68,a,"Sulphur Dioxide (SO2) is a precursor to fine Particulate Matter (PM2.5), a significant pollutant that worsens respiratory and cardiovascular diseases. It also leads to acid rain, causing widespread ecological harm. In 2022, India was the world's top emitter of SO2, contributing to over 20 percent of global human-caused emissions, primarily because of its dependence on coal for power production. India's sulphur emissions nearly two to three times as much as China. So, statement I is correct. The coal based thermal power plant contributes to 240 GW or 50.52% of installed capacity. So, statement II is correct. Indian coal has a sulphur content ranging from 0.35 to 0.4 percent, which is relatively low compared to Chinese or Indonesian coal. However, the calorific value (CV) of Indian coal is about half that of imported coal, leading to double the consumption for each unit generated, thus contributing to higher sulphur emissions despite being lower in sulphur content. During combustion, the sulphur in coal combines with oxygen, forming SO2, which is released into the environment unless effective capture mechanisms are in place. So, statement III is correct. So, Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: A committee of experts, chaired by Principal Scientific Advisor (PSA), has recommended that India do away with a decade-long policy of mandating Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) units in all coal-fired thermal power plants (TPPs)."

Question 69

69,"Consider the following statements with regard to the 'Greater Flamingos': I. They fly along the Central Asian Flyway (CAF). II. They act as ecosystem engineers for wetlands by improving the productivity and nutrient flow. III. They are categorized as 'Endangered' on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) I and II only (b) I and III only (c) II and III only (d) I, II and III"

Answer 69

69,a,"Greater Flamingo is a large wading bird known for its distinctive pink feathers and unique feeding habits. It is the largest and most widespread flamingo species. It has been recognized as the State bird of Gujarat. It is known for its large migration journeys across the Central Asian Flyway. Migration is an adaptation that helps it surpass hindrances such as extreme weather and shortage of food in colder regions. It migrates to India during the winter. So, statement I is correct. The Central Asian Flyway (CAF) covers a large continental area of Eurasia between the Arctic and Indian Oceans. It is usually found in shallow, saline, alkaline wetlands, such as salt lakes, coastal lagoons, intertidal mudflats and saltworks during the breeding season. It is a specialized filterer that uses a variety of different feeding methods. It is considered to be a keystone wetland species, acting as ecosystem engineer helping to maintain the delicate balance of its habitats. Its bioturbation method of foraging, referred to as pit-foraging, creates donut-shaped depressions which improve the productivity and nutrient flow in wetlands, along with enhancing biofilm production. So, statement II is correct. It is a protected species under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act (1972). In the IUCN Red List, it is categorized as Least Concern. So, statement III is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, Tamil Nadu has notified Greater Flamingo Sanctuary at Dhanushkodi."

Question 70

70,"Fusarium graminearum, a pathogen that was recently seen in the news, is a: (a) virus (b) fungus (c) bacteria (d) protozoan"

Answer 70

70,b,"Fusarium graminearum is a harmful fungus that infects cereal crops like wheat, barley, oats and corn. It thrives in warm, humid conditions and can cause widespread crop damage, leading to major yield losses and reduced quality. It also produces toxins that can trigger vomiting, liver damage and reproductive issues in both humans and livestock. This fungus can cause head blight disease in cereals and stalk rot in maize, particularly in regions like Canada, the US, China and parts of Europe. It infects plants by entering through natural openings like stomata. After breaching the cuticle, the fungus spreads throughout the plant systemically. This fungus produces toxins such as deoxynivalenol and zearalenone, which harms both animals and plants. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: Two Chinese nationals have been charged by the US Department of Justice for allegedly smuggling a dangerous biological pathogen, Fusarium graminearum, into the United States for research at a University of Michigan lab."

Question 71

71,"Consider the following statements with regard to offshore mining in India: I. Royalties from mining offshore mineral resources are entirely assigned to the Central Government. II. Private sector mining of any mineral in the offshore regions is prohibited. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II"

Answer 71

71,a,"In India, offshore mining is done under the provisions of the Offshore Areas Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 2002. It provides for development and regulation of mineral resources in the territorial waters, continental shelf, Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) and other maritime zones of India. Article 297 of the Indian Constitution says that: All lands, minerals and other things of value underlying the ocean within the territorial waters, or the continental shelf, or the exclusive economic zone, of India shall vest in the Union and be held for the purposes of the Union. All other resources of the exclusive economic zone of India shall also vest in the Union and be held for the purposes of the Union. Hence, the royalties from mining offshore mineral resources are entirely assigned to the Central Government. So, statement I is correct. The 2023 amendment to the Offshore Minerals Act has permitted private sector involvement in the offshore mining industry. The amended Act allows private companies to participate in off-shore mining activities. So, statement II is not correct. India's territorial waters extend up to 12 nautical miles from the coast and the exclusive economic zone beyond hat distance up to 200 nautical miles. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: Kerala's coastal regions are protesting against the Union Government's decision to conduct offshore sand mining with private sector collaboration."

Question 72

72,"Which of the following countries are members of the Eurasian Economic Union (EEU)? I. Kyrgyzstan II. Kazakhstan III. Turkmenistan IV. Uzbekistan Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) I and III only (b) III and IV only (c) I and II only (d) II and IV only"

Answer 72

72,c,"The Eurasian Economic Union (EEU) was formally established in 2015, evolving from the earlier 2010 Customs Union. The Eurasian Economic Union (EEU) consists of five member states: Russia, Belarus, Kyrgyzstan. So, point I is correct. Kazakhstan. So, point II is correct. Armenia. It is aimed at economic integration in the former Soviet region by facilitating the free movement of goods, services, labor and capital among its members. Its formal objectives are to create a common market much like the European Union (EU). Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan are not members of the EEU. So, points III and IV are not correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: India and EEU are entering into negotiations for a Free Trade Agreement (FTA)."

Question 73

73,"What are quasi satellites? (a) Satellites placed in the orbit of other planets, but maintain communication with the Earth (b) Objects revolving around the moon (c) Asteroids which have the propensity to fall into the Earth's atmosphere in the near future (d) A satellite that orbits the Sun while remaining under the gravitational influence of a planet"

Answer 73

73,d,"A quasi-satellite is a celestial object typically an asteroid that orbits the sun but is at not long enough distance from the Earth (or any other planet of the solar system) to still experience the influence of the planet's gravitational field. Viewed from the planet, the object appears to orbit the planet, although the apparent orbit is usually shaped more like a ""peanut"" or rectangle. On the contrary, a true satellite (e.g., the Moon) orbits within a planet's gravitational sphere, where the planet's gravity dominates over external forces like the Sun's. The prefix ""quasi"" means ""resembling but not quite the same"". So, a quasi-satellite looks like a satellite but doesn't grind around the planet in the usual way. These objects orbit the Sun (mainly controlled by the Sun's gravity), although the planet still influences its path, sometimes offering scientific insights into planetary formation and small-body composition. Their paths and the relative motion make them appear as if they're looping around the planet. As their orbits are not bound to the planet's gravity, they can eventually drift away as their paths evolve. Quasi-satellites help astronomers understand orbital dynamics and the influence of multiple gravitational forces. Examples Around Earth: Asteroid Cardea: This small quasi-satellite (under 300 m diameter) will likely leave its current path within ~600 years. Asteroid Kamoʻoalewa: Believed to be a fragment from the Moon. China is launching Tianwen-2, its first-ever spacecraft designed to visit and sample a near-Earth asteroid, making it part of a select group of spacefaring nations-including the U.S. and Japan-to achieve asteroid sample-return missions. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Relevance: China has launched its Tianwen-2 mission to a quasi-asteroid Kamo'oalewa."

Question 74

74,"Consider the following statements with reference to First Person View (FPV) Drones: Statement I: FPV drones are often preceded by reconnaissance drones to first identify and locate targets. Statement II: FPV drones have short range and also lack autonomous navigation systems. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct"

Answer 74

74,a,"The First Person View (FPV) drones enable pilots to fly using a live video feed from an onboard camera, rather than visual Line-Of-Sight (LOS) piloting. They can fly undetected into enemy territory, striking high-value targets beyond the front lines with stealth and precision. FPVs are equipped with a camera that transmits live video to the pilot enabling real-time navigation and targeting. The feed is transmitted wirelessly through radio signals. This live visual connection allows the pilot to fly the drone with remarkable precision, even through narrow spaces, at high speeds, or beyond the normal line of sight and minimize latency, ensuring there's almost no delay between the drone's movement and what the pilot sees. In contrast, conventional drones primarily use their cameras for capturing footage, whether for photography, videography or surveying. The pilot views the scene from a distance, relying on a third-person, external viewpoint. However, these FPV drones have short range and also lack autonomous navigation systems. Therefore, they're often preceded by longer-range reconnaissance drones to first identify and locate targets after which the FPV drone is deployed for attack. So, both the statement I and statement II are correct. Example: In Ukraine's use of FPV drones, reconnaissance drones help identify targets before FPV drones are launched. So, both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: During the ongoing conflict, Ukraine armed forces conducted a Trojan like attack using the FPV drones on Russian territory."

Question 75

75,"This macaque is known for unique human-like hairstyles, where its tuft of hair forms a cap-like shape with a defined partition. It also eats soils from termite nests to counter digestive issues. This is the most likely description of: (a) Lion tailed macaque (b) Bonnet macaques (c) Rhesus macaque (d) Stump tailed macaque"

Answer 75

75,b,"Bonnet macaque (Macaca radiata) is a macaque species endemic to peninsular (southern) India, bounded by coasts and rivers like the Godavari and Tapti. Its distribution is largely confined to the southern states, making it an important species in India's regional biodiversity. The species is easily identifiable by its unique hair pattern-a central whirl or ""bonnet"" with a distinct partition running from the middle of the head to the sides. This gives the species its name and distinguishes it from other macaques, especially the rhesus macaque. These macaques are diurnal in nature, active during the day, and display both arboreal and terrestrial tendencies. They are often seen deftly navigating treetops, rooftops, or even swimming across water bodies-an uncommon skill among many primates. They have a special trick to help counter digestive issues: they have been observed eating soils from termite nests, known as termitaria, which are rich in kaolin and smectite! These ingredients are also used in certain African stomach ailment remedies and Western anti-diarrheal practices. It is currently classified as Vulnerable by the IUCN due to a combination of ecological and anthropogenic threats. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: The Kerala Government has sought permission from the Centre to initiate the sterilization programme for the Bonnet Macaques."

Question 76

76,"Which of the following countries share land borders with Paraguay? I. Argentina II. Uruguay III. Brazil IV. Bolivia V. Chile Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) I, II, III and IV only (b) I, III and IV only (c) II, III, IV and V only (d) I and II only"

Answer 76

76,b,"Paraguay is a landlocked country located in South America. The name of the country is said to derive from the Guaraní word meaning ""river that gives birth to the sea"". The Paraguay River, which runs from north to south, divides Paraguay into two distinct geographic regions-the Región Oriental (Eastern Region) and the Región Occidental (Western Region). Argentina lies to the south and southwest of Paraguay. The Parana and Pilcomayo rivers form natural boundaries between the two countries. Both countries are part of Mercosur, promoting economic integration. So, point I is correct. Uruguay lies southeast of Paraguay, separated by parts of Argentina and the Uruguay River. So, point II is not correct. Brazil is located to the east and northeast of Paraguay. The Paraná River and Apa River mark much of the border. So, point III is correct. Bolivia borders Paraguay to the north and northwest. The boundary runs through the sparsely populated Gran Chaco region. So, point IV is correct. Chile does not share a border with Paraguay. So, point V is not correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: The Paraguayan President recently visited India, the first head of the state to visit the country post Operation Sindoor."

Question 77

77,"Which one of the following is called \"A gift from Lord Buddha to the people of Sravasti\"? (a) Bodhi leaf tea (b) Bora sual rice (c) Amrapali mango (d) Kalanamak rice"

Answer 77

77,d,"Kalanamak rice is grown in Terai region of Uttar Pradesh. It is a traditional variety of paddy with a black husk, known for its extraordinary fragrance and health benefits. It is often referred to as ""Buddha rice"", and is traditionally believed to be a gift from Lord Buddha to the people of Sravasti in Uttar Pradesh. According to legend, after attaining enlightenment, Lord Buddha visited Sravasti and gifted this special variety of rice to the local people called Mathla (now Mudila village, Siddharth Nagar) after receiving it in alms and instructed them to sow it. It is now grown mainly in Siddharthnagar, Sravasti, Basti, and adjoining districts of eastern Uttar Pradesh in the Terai region. It is also grown in southern Nepal, especially around ancient Kapilavastu. Known for its aromatic fragrance, black husk, and nutritional qualities, it has been given a Geographical Indication (GI) tag and sometimes referred to as the ""Black Pearl of Uttar Pradesh"". It is naturally resilient to common rice diseases, bacterial blight, and drought conditions. Its water usage is significantly lower than that of basmati and the total cost of cultivation-including seeds, fertilizers, and irrigation-is just half of what is required for basmati farming. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Relevance: Government of India has decided to push for exports of Kalanamak rice to Buddhist countries, where it wants to capitalize on the cultural linkages."

Question 78

78,"Consider the following pairs: Protected Area State I. Tral Wildlife Sanctuary Himachal Pradesh II. Amrabad Tiger Reserve Andhra Pradesh III. Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary Odisha IV. Indravati National Park Chhattisgarh How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All the four"

Answer 78

78,a,"Tral Wildlife Sanctuary: It is located in the Pulwama district of Jammu & Kashmir and lies within the Pir Panjal range of the Western Himalayas. The sanctuary serves as a crucial habitat for endangered species like the Hangul (Kashmir stag), Himalayan black bear, musk deer and brown bear. So, pair I is not correctly matched. Amrabad Tiger Reserve: It is situated in the Nagarkurnool and Nalgonda districts of Telangana, nestled in the Nallamala Hills, part of the Eastern Ghats. It is one of India's largest tiger reserves, with a vast undisturbed landscape of dry deciduous forests and rocky terrain. So, pair II is not correctly matched. Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary: It is located in East Godavari district near Kakinada, Andhra Pradesh along the estuarine region of the Godavari River delta. It contains India's second-largest mangrove forest after Sundarbans, comprising salt-tolerant trees, mudflats, and tidal waterways. So, pair III is not correctly matched. Indravati National Park: It is located in Bijapur district of southern Chhattisgarh and forms part of the Dandakaranya forest region. It lies within the Godavari River basin and comprises sal, teak, and bamboo forests. It is located in a Naxalite-affected area, which poses challenges for management and tourism but also results in minimal human intrusion, aiding in species conservation. So, pair IV is correctly matched. So, only one of the pairs given above is correctly matched. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer."

Question 79

79,"The acronym MPOWER which is often discussed in the news relates to which of the following: (a) monitoring pollution levels (b) controlling tobacco consumption (c) strengthening cybersecurity cooperation (d) promoting renewable energy development"

Answer 79

79,b,"The MPOWER package is a toolkit consisting of a set of evidence-based measures introduced by the World Health Organization (WHO) in 2008 to assist countries in effectively implementing the tobacco control strategies outlined in the WHO Framework Convention on Tobacco Control (WHO FCTC). It is a package of six high-impact, cost-effective measures aimed at reducing tobacco demand at the country level. The acronym of MPOWER stands for: Monitor or track tobacco use trends and assess effectiveness of policies, Protect people from tobacco smoke, Offer help to quit tobacco use, Warn about the dangers of tobacco, Enforce bans on tobacco advertising, promotion, and sponsorship, and Raise taxes on tobacco. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box: Other toolkits by WHO: SHAKE: It is a technical toolkit aimed at reducing salt intake at the population level. It targets salt reduction, a key modifiable factor in hypertension and cardiovascular disease. It stands for Surveillance, Harness industry, Adopting standards, Knowledge, and Environment-each of which targets dietary salt reduction. REPLACE: This toolkit provides for a roadmap to eliminate industrially produced trans fats from the food supply. It focuses on six strategies: Review, Promote, Legislate, Assess, Create awareness, and Enforce. SAFE: It is WHO's strategy for eliminating trachoma, the leading infectious cause of blindness. It supports trachoma elimination in endemic countries with support for facial cleanliness and environmental hygiene. It includes Surgery, Antibiotics, and Environmental improvements. GLASS (Global Antimicrobial Resistance Surveillance System): It is actually focused on antimicrobial resistance (AMR). Its purpose is to standardize global data on AMR and support global surveillance of antibiotic resistance trends. It collects and analyzes AMR data from over 100 countries to help combat rising antibiotic resistance. Relevance: The World Health Organisation celebrates 'World No Tobacco Day' every year on 31st May. This year's theme was 'Unmasking the Appeal: Exposing Industry Tactics on Tobacco and Nicotine Products'."

Question 80

80,"Consider the following statements with reference to the Mount Etna: I. It is located in the Mediterranean Sea. II. It has been recognised as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II"

Answer 80

80,c,"Mount Etna, situated in Italy, is the largest and most active volcano in Europe. Its frequent eruptions and immense geological significance have made it a key subject of scientific study and heritage recognition. It is located on the eastern coast of Sicily, which is the largest island in the Mediterranean Sea, just off the southern tip of Italy. So, statement I is correct. It was designated a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2013. The recognition was based on its remarkable volcanic activity and its contribution to geological research over centuries. Its 500,000-year-old eruptive history and continuous evolution make it globally significant. So, statement II is correct. It is renowned for being one of the most active volcanoes in the world, with both summit eruptions and flank eruptions. The volcano has shown activity for thousands of years, with documented records of eruptions spanning over 2,700 years. The recent eruption in 2025 has renewed the interest of the scientific community towards Mt. Etna, while some experts termed the expulsion as a Strombolian eruption, others argued it resembled a Plinian eruption, given the vertical expulsion of ash and gas into the stratosphere. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: Mt. Etna recently erupted in 2025, the sheer nature of the expulsion has generated curiosity about the type of eruption."

Question 81

81,"In which one of the following groups of countries are all members of the G7 grouping? (a) France, Germany, India and Canada (b) Japan, United States, Australia and Italy (c) United Kingdom, Canada, South Korea and Germany (d) France, Germany, Japan and United Kingdom"

Answer 81

81,d,"The G7 (Group of Seven) is a political and economic forum of seven advanced democracies, originally formed in 1975-76. It is an informal grouping of advanced democracies that meets annually to coordinate global economic policy and address other transnational issues. The current G7 member countries are: United States, Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, United Kingdom. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, the Prime Minister of India attended the G7 meeting in Canada as an observer."

Question 82

82,"Consider the following statements with regard to NAKSHA: I. It aims at achieving land records modernisation for the rural areas. II. It includes both aerial and field mapping for the surveying. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II"

Answer 82

82,b,"National geospatial Knowledge-based land Survey of urban Habitations (NAKSHA) is a pilot programme launched by the Department of Land Resources (DoLR), Ministry of Rural Development and Agriculture under the Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme (DILRMP). Its aim is to modernize urban land records using advanced geospatial and aerial mapping technologies. NAKSHA is specifically designed for urban habitations. It is being implemented in 157 Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) across 27 States and 3 UTs. So, statement I is not correct. Rural land modernization is separately addressed under programmes like SVAMITVA. NAKSHA uses aerial techniques such as 2D Nadir Camera, Oblique Angle Camera, and LiDAR sensors, along with field surveys, to build a GIS-integrated and legally certified database of urban land parcels. These methodologies allow comprehensive 3D mapping and verification. So, statement II is correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box: Survey of Villages and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas (SVAMITVA): Launched in April 2020, SVAMITVA provides legal ownership of rural residential land using drone-based surveys. SVAMITVA was implemented by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj with support from Survey of India and National Informatics Centre Services Inc. (NICSI). It aims to empower rural citizens with property cards, enabling access to credit, dispute resolution, and better planning."

Question 83

83,"Out of the 28 States of the Union of India, how many share an international border with Bangladesh? (a) Three (b) Four (c) Five (d) Six"

Answer 83

83,c,"India shares its longest international land border with Bangladesh, spanning over 4,000 kilometres. This boundary stretches across five Indian States in the eastern and north-eastern regions which includes, West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. The border holds strategic, cultural, and economic significance for both nations. West Bengal: It shares the longest border with Bangladesh amongst all the Indian States, covering approximately 2,217 km. The border is crucial for cross-border trade, cultural ties, and migration control. Assam: It shares about 263 km of its border with Bangladesh, primarily in the western region. The region is sensitive due to issues like illegal immigration and smuggling. Meghalaya: It shares a border of approximately 443 km with Bangladesh over its southern edge. Tripura: It shares a highly dense border of about 856 km with Bangladesh. Almost 85% of Tripura's boundary is shared with Bangladesh, surrounding the state on three sides. Mizoram: It shares a 318 km long border with Bangladesh, mostly through hilly and forested regions. It is less densely populated and is home to several tribal communities. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: Post the terrorist attack on Pahalgam, the Government of India has cracked the whip on foreigners staying in the country without proper documentation. In this backdrop there has been congestion on the India-Bangladesh border."

Question 84

84,"With reference to Shangri La Dialogue, consider the following statements: I. It is an annual Heads of the States summit for deliberation of security issues in the Indo-Pacific. II. It is organized by the World Economic Forum (WEF). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II"

Answer 84

84,d,"Shangri La Dialogue was established in 2002. It is Asia's premier defence & security summit, that brings stakeholders and strategic experts from across the globe to discuss security and defence issues. It aims to maintain Asia-Pacific peace & stability, foster defence diplomacy, and help delegates forge bilateral or multilateral ties. It covers both traditional security (e.g., territorial disputes, military cooperation) and non-traditional threats (terrorism, cybersecurity, climate change). It is not a formal dialogue or international summit, but rather a symposium for key security issues. The dialogue doesn't have a charter or any formal diplomatic requirement. Heads of State may or may not attend the meet. So, statement I is not correct. The forum's name is derived from the Shangri-La Hotel in Singapore, where it has been held since 2002. It is organized jointly by the International Institute for Strategic Studies (IISS, London) and Singapore's Ministry of Defence. So, statement II is not correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Relevance: The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) of India made statements regarding Operation Sindoor at the 2025 edition of the Shangri La dialogue that concluded recently."

Question 85

85,"The 'Zangezur Corridor', often mentioned in news, aims to connect which one of the following? (a) Azerbaijan's mainland to its Nakhchivan exclave through Armenian territory (b) Russia to Iran via the Caspian Sea (c) Turkey to Central Asia bypassing Iran (d) Georgia to Azerbaijan via the Black Sea maritime route"

Answer 85

85,a,"Zangezur Corridor: It is a proposed transport route designed to connect Azerbaijan's mainland with its exclave, the Nakhchivan Autonomous Republic, bypassing Armenia's Syunik Province. Zangezur, which is currently part of southern Armenia, has been a disputed territory since World War I. On Azerbaijan's side, the corridor would be integrated into the Horadiz-Agbend transport highway and railway network. On Turkey's side, it would link into the Nakhchivan-lgdir-Kars railway and highway, providing a direct land route to Anatolia and beyond. It carries significant economic and strategic weight for the South Caucasus and beyond. The project aims to enhance Azerbaijan's trade with Turkey and Europe by improving logistics infrastructure, reducing transportation costs, and significantly cutting travel time between Azerbaijan and Nakhchivan. The Zangezur Corridor plays a crucial role in increasing regional connectivity - not only throughout Caucasia, but also across greater Eurasia, joining Turkish, Russian, Central Asian, Iranian and Armenian territories and linking Europe to Asia. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: Zangezur Corridor is a proposed route linking Azerbaijan to its Nakhchivan exclave, bypassing Armenia's Syunik Province."

Question 86

86,"Which one of the following statements best describes the atmospheric phenomenon of 'omega block' which was recently seen in the news? (a) Intensive rainfall over a region within a short span of time (b) Circulatory movement of winds around a low pressure area giving rise to thunderstorms in the region (c) Precipitation caused by the advective evapotranspiration over land (d) A high pressure area surrounded by low pressure areas at the same latitude"

Answer 86

86,d,"An omega block is an atmospheric phenomenon in which a blob of high-pressure air remains trapped between two blobs of low-pressure air for a prolonged period. This sandwich configuration forces weather fronts that usually bring rain from west to east to move up and around the high-pressure area, forming an upside-down U shape that resembles the Greek letter omega. Because weather fronts beneath the two low-pressure areas bring moisture, the ground receives abundant rainfall, but the ground beneath the high pressure remains dry. The blocks can remain in position for several days, which will cause areas under them to have similar weather for a prolonged period of time. This can lead to persistent heatwaves in some regions and prolonged periods of heavy rainfall and thunderstorms in others. Omega blocks can also influence wildfire risk, as prolonged dry conditions can increase the likelihood of wildfires, particularly in areas already prone to fire. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer."

Question 87

87,"Consider the following statements with regard to Great Indian Bustard: I. It is the heaviest of all the known flying birds. II. It is a slow breeder and typically lays only one egg per breeding season. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II"

Answer 87

87,c,"The Great Indian Bustard (Ardeotis nigriceps) is one of the most endangered bird species in the world. It is considered the heaviest of all the known flying birds. It is listed under the Critically Endangered category by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). So, statement I is correct. It prefers open, arid landscapes such as dry grasslands and scrublands, where it forages and nests. These habitats are increasingly threatened by agriculture, development, and infrastructure projects - Loss of grasslands is one of the main reasons for their decline. They are opportunistic eaters. Their diet ranges widely depending on the seasonal availability of food. They feed on grass, seeds, insects like grasshoppers and beetles, and sometimes even small rodents and reptiles. These birds are slow breeders and typically lay only one egg per breeding season. The low reproductive rate is a major factor in the species' population decline. So, statement II is correct. In the breeding season (summers and monsoons) they congregate in traditional undisturbed grassland patches characterized by a mosaic of scantily grazed tall grass. Males have a gular pouch, which helps produce a resonant booming mating call to attract females. Males play no role in the incubation and care of the young, which remain with the mother till the next breeding season. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: During the recent border skirmishes between India and Pakistan the Great Indian Bustard which resides in the region oversaw migration, raising concerns for their conservation."

Question 88

88,"It is an aromatic plant that grows well in rainfed regions of the temperate zone. In India, Jammu and Kashmir is the largest cultivator of this plant. It is included in the Purple Revolution, which is aimed at increasing the income of farmers through aromatic crops. The plant is: (a) Rosemary (b) Jasmine (c) Lavender (d) Lemongrass"

Answer 88

88,c,"Lavender is a well known aromatic crop. It is a crop native to Europe but was introduced in the temperate regions of Jammu and Kashmir. It is a hard and temperate plant that can tolerate drought and frost conditions. Jammu and Kashmir's climatic conditions are conducive to lavender cultivation. The CSIR-IIIM has developed a variety of Lavender, elite variety (RRL-12), adapted for peculiar climatic conditions of India. The Purple Revolution or Lavender Revolution, launched by the Ministry of Science & Technology in the year 2016, aims to promote the indigenous aromatic crop-based agro economy through the 'aroma mission' of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR). The mission aims to increase the income of the farmers and promote lavender cultivation on a commercial scale. In 2016, the central government launched the 'Aroma Mission' to boost cultivation of plants like lavender that have aromatic medicinal properties. The CSIR-Aroma Mission is a flagship project of CSIR under which Lavender cultivation is being promoted in the temperate regions of Jammu and Kashmir. The aim of the project is to increase the income of small and marginal farmers and develop agriculture-based startups. As a result, many small and marginal maize farmers in the temperate regions of the Jammu division have successfully adopted Lavender. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box: Rosemary is an aromatic plant. It is perennial in nature, highly remunerative and can withstand drought conditions. Jasmine is a tropical and subtropical crop. Jasmine prefers a mild and tropical climate. A well-distributed annual rainfall of 800 to 1000 mm is optimum for growth and development. In India, jasmines are cultivated throughout the country but the leading states in jasmine cultivation are Karnataka and Tamilnadu. Lemongrass is an aromatic plant that grows well under tropical and subtropical conditions. Mostly, it is grown in Western Ghats including Kerala, Maharashtra, and in UP, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Odisha and in several North-Eastern states. Lemongrass oil is popularly known as Cochin oil in world trade as 90% of it is coming from Cochin port. Relevance: Recently, a two-day lavender festival was held in Jammu, organized by the Council for Scientific and Industrial Research."

Question 89

89,"Consider the following pairs: Ramsar Site State I. Khichan Wetland Gujarat II. Menar Wetland Complex Rajasthan III. Wadhvana Wetland Maharashtra IV. Sultanpur National Park Haryana Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? (a) I only (b) II and IV only (c) I and III only (d) I and II only"

Answer 89

89,b,"The Ramsar Convention is an intergovernmental treaty signed in 1971 in Ramsar, Iran. It encourages the protection and conservation of wetlands worldwide by designating them as such. Ramsar sites are also known as wetlands of international importance. Currently, there are nine criteria for identifying Wetlands of International Importance, which includes sites containing representative, rare or unique wetland types; sites of international importance for conserving biological diversity; specific criteria based on waterbirds, fish, etc. Khichan Wetland: It is located at Phalodi, Rajasthan in the northern Thar Desert. It comprises two water bodies, Ratri nadi (river) and Vijaysagar talab (pond), riparian habitat and scrub land. The site is especially recognised for hosting large wintering flocks of migratory Demoiselle Cranes. So, pair I is not correctly matched. Menar Wetland Complex: It is located in Udaipur, Rajasthan. It is a freshwater monsoon wetland complex formed by three ponds, Braham talab, Dhand talab and Kheroda talab, and agricultural land that connects the latter two. Among the notable bird species at the site are the critically endangered white-rumped vulture and long-billed vulture. So, pair II is correctly matched. Wadhvana Wetland: It is situated in Gujarat. It is located in a semi-arid agricultural landscape and is surrounded by wheat and paddy fields and villages. The wetland is internationally important for its birdlife as it provides wintering ground to migratory water birds. So, pair III is not correctly matched. Sultanpur National Park: It is a wetland site in Haryana. The park supports more than 220 species of resident, winter migratory and local migratory water birds at critical stages of their life cycles. The site supports more than 10 globally threatened species, including the endangered Egyptian vulture, steppe Eagle, Pallas's fish eagle, and black-bellied tern. So, pair IV is correctly matched. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: Khichan in Phalodi and Menar in Udaipur have been recently designated as Ramsar sites."

Question 90

90,"Which one of the following best describes the practice of 'Aid washing'? (a) Providing financial assistance to a country while ignoring the consequences of that aid (b) Providing funds to international agencies in order to avoid the levy of sanctions by them (c) Providing military assistance to the warring countries to provide impetus to domestic defense manufacturing industries (d) Providing humanitarian aid so as to avoid any responsibility for the underlying causes of the recipient's sufferings"

Answer 90

90,d,"'Aid washing' involves the portrayal of political issues as primarily a humanitarian crisis. Under Aid washing, humanitarian aid is provided in order to avoid facing the political and legal responsibility towards the suffering of receiving civilians. Under this, leaders tend to avoid the underlying political drivers of the crisis. The current situation in Gaza is considered an example of Aidwashing. By framing Gaza's situation primarily through the lens of humanitarian need, world leaders are avoiding to face the political and legal responsibility towards the suffering of civilians and perpetuating a cycle of aid dependency by Gazans. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer."

Question 91

91,"With reference to the cultivation of onion in India, consider the following statements: I. It is grown in the kharif season only. II. Loamy alluvial soil is the most preferred soil for the growth of this crop. III. Maharashtra is ranked first in terms of onion production. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only (b) II and III only (c) II only (d) I, II and III"

Answer 91

91,b,"India is the second largest onion-growing country in the world, after China. India is also the largest consumer of the crop. The onion is a hardy cool-season biennial but usually grown as an annual crop in India. Onion is a temperate crop but can be grown under a wide range of climatic conditions such as temperate, tropical and subtropical climate. It can be cultivated in all types of soils ranging from sandy loam, clay loam, silt loam to heavy soils. However, the best soil for successful onion cultivation is deep, friable loam and alluvial soils with good drainage. In India onion is cultivated in two crop cycles, first harvesting which starts from November to January and the second harvesting from January to May. Onions are grown in both Kharif and Rabi seasons, with around 70% of production occurring during the Rabi season. So, statement I is not correct. Onion can be grown in all types of soils such as sandy loam, clay loam, silt loam and heavy soils. However, the best soil for successful onion cultivation is deep, friable loam and alluvial soils with good drainage, moisture holding capacity and sufficient organic matter. So, statement II is correct. Maharashtra ranks first in onion production with a share of about 40% followed by Madhya Pradesh with a share of 17%. So, statement III is correct. Lasalgaon, Asia's largest wholesale market for onion, is also in Maharashtra. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: Due to unusual rains in the month of May, the Onion Cultivators have called for compensation."

Question 92

92,"Which one of the following was India's first research station in the Arctic Region? (a) Dakshin Gangotri (b) Bharati (c) Maitri (d) Himadri"

Answer 92

92,d,"Himadri, meaning ""the abode of snow"" is India's first Arctic research station, located at NyÅlesund, Svalbard, about 1,200 km from the North Pole. It was inaugurated on July 1, 2008 to support growing Indian scientific interest in the Arctic. This station provides necessary field and lab facilities, managed by the National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCAOR). The Arctic region lies at the northernmost part of the Earth, centered around the North Pole. It encompasses the Arctic Ocean and spans across portions of countries such as Canada, Russia, the United States, Norway, and Greenland. The Arctic region holds immense strategic value, being rich in resources such as coal, gypsum, diamonds, and an estimated 30% of the world's undiscovered natural gas, along with significant reserves of rare earth elements and other minerals. These resources are crucial for meeting India's growing energy demands and strategic interests. Beyond its resource wealth, the Arctic plays a vital role in regulating the Earth's climate. It influences global ocean currents and acts as a giant reflector of solar radiation. Alteration in its ice cover has far-reaching effects, including impacts on Himalayan glaciers and shifts in the Indian monsoon patterns. Knowledge Box: Other Significant Observatories of India in Arctic: IndARC Observatory: It is India's first underwater moored observatory (about 192 m depth) in the Arctic, deployed on July 23, 2014, in Kongsfjorden, Svalbard. It is equipped with multi-depth sensors collecting real-time data on temperature, salinity, currents, oxygen, nutrients, photosynthetically active radiation, etc. It aims to monitor marine parameters year-round, aiding in understanding Arctic climate variability and its influence on the Indian monsoon. Atmospheric Laboratory at Gruvebadet: It was established in 2016 at Gruvebadet, near Ny-Alesund (Svalbard). It is India's first high-latitude atmospheric research facility through Indo-Norwegian collaboration. It conducts long-term monitoring of atmospheric composition, aerosols, radiation, and greenhouse gases, supporting studies on Arctic climate change, pollution transport, and weather patterns. Polar Research Vessel (PRV): In 2025, Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE) signed a memorandum of understanding in Oslo with Norway's Kongsberg to co-design and build India's first indigenous Polar Research Vessel (PRV). The PRV will serve as a research platform in polar and southern ocean regions, equipped with advanced scientific instrumentation for deep-sea exploration and marine ecosystem studies. The PRV aligns with India's 'Make in India' push and strengthens maritime research infrastructure. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Relevance: An Indian PSU has recently signed a pact with Norwegian firm to develop India's first Polar Research Vessel."

Question 93

93,"With reference to the Kulsi river, consider the following statements: I. It is a tributary of Brahmaputra. II. It originates from the Khasi hills of Meghalaya. III. It is a natural habitat of the Gangetic Dolphin. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) III only (b) I and II only (c) II and III only (d) I, II and III only"

Answer 93

93,d,"Kulsi River is a south-bank tributary of the Brahmaputra River with a length of about 220 km, meets the main stem of the river in the Kamrup district of Assam. So, statement I is correct. The Kulsi River is formed by the confluence of three rivers—Khri, Krishniya, and Umsiri, all of which originate from the West Khasi Hills of Meghalaya at elevations exceeding. So, statement II is correct. Kulsi River is known for being a habitat of South Asian River Dolphin (Gangetic Dolphin). So, statement III is correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Relevance: The Assam and Meghalaya governments have decided to jointly set up a 55MW hydro power project on the Kulsi river."

Question 94

94,"'Bow Echo' phenomenon, recently seen in the news, relates to which one of the following? (a) Weather prediction (b) Air-defence systems (c) Marine oil spills (d) Seismic waves"

Answer 94

94,a,"A Bow Echo is a specific radar pattern representing a curved line of thunderstorms, resembling the shape of an archer's bow or a crescent. Bow echoes typically span 20 to 100 km in length. They can persist for 3 to 6 hours, depending on atmospheric conditions. It is formed when rain-cooled air from thunderstorms sinks to the ground and spreads horizontally. This outflow forms a boundary between colder air and the warm, moist surface air resulting in the development of front. The front lifts warm air upward, leading to the development of new thunderstorms along the leading edge. As each new storm produces rain, more cool air is generated, reinforcing the front and perpetuating the system. Eventually, inflow from the rear side combines with the leading-edge winds to bend the line into a bow shape. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: The intense storm that hit Delhi in May appeared in the form of bow echoes on radar imagery."

Question 95

95,"Consider the following statements with regard to Personality Rights in India: I. These have been explicitly recognized under the Right to Privacy as defined by the Supreme Court. II. These include the Right to Publicity, preventing the use of the person's attributes to be commercially used by any other entity. III. These can be protected and recognized via the Copyrights Act, 1951 as well as the Indian Patents Act, 1970. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only (b) I and III only (c) II only (d) I and II only"

Answer 95

95,c,"The name, voice, signature, images or any other feature easily identified by the public are markers of a celebrity's personality and are referred loosely as ""personality rights."" These could include a pose, a mannerism or any aspect of their personality. Personality rights aims to protect an individual's personal identity and reputation. These rights grant individuals authority over the commercial use of their name, image, and other personal attributes including use in endorsement and advertisements, while also providing safeguard against defamation. Personality rights or their protection are not expressly mentioned in any statute in India but are traced to fall loosely under the right to privacy and the right to property. The apex court whilst recognizing the Right to Privacy as a Fundamental Right in the landmark KS Puttaswamy judgement fell short of recognizing Personality rights as a part of Right to Privacy. So, statement I is not correct. In legal terms Personality rights are broadly taken to be consisting of first, the Right of Publicity, which protects individuals from having their likeness or image used for commercial purposes without their consent or financial compensation, in other words The right to publicity is the ability to limit how one's identification is used for commercial purposes. Second, the right to privacy, which protects individuals from having their identities disclosed to the public without their consent. So, statement II is correct. In India no law including the Copyright Act, 1957 Trademarks Act, 1999 or Patents Act, 1970 recognizes the personality rights per se. As per the Copyrights Act only creators and performers, including actors, singers, musicians and dancers, have moral rights. The provisions of the Act provide that the author or performer has the right to receive recognition or claim copyright for his work and the right to prevent others from causing any damage to his work. The Indian Patents Act explicitly excludes any aspect of Human life to be recognized, registered or granted protection under the Act. So, statement III is not correct. The Indian Trademark Act also does not provide for the exclusive protection of personal or image rights. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer."

Question 96

96,"Tardigrades, also known as water bears, are mostly known for: (a) being vectors for the strain of corona virus responsible for recent surge (b) their large scale applicability in genetic research (c) being indicator organisms for water pollution (d) their ability to survive in extreme environments"

Answer 96

96,d,"Tardigrades, commonly known as water bears or moss piglets, are microscopic invertebrates (0.1-0.5 mm), found in nearly all environments, from ocean depths and mountain tops to mosses and leaf litter like glaciers, deserts, ocean trenches, and high Himalayan mosses. They are known for surviving in extreme temperatures ranging from near absolute zero (-272°C) to over 150°C, high pressure (up to 1.14 GPa). They can withstand intense radiation, exposure to toxic chemicals, dehydration, and even the vacuum of space essentially making them one of the most resilient life forms on Earth. Adaptations seen in tardigrades: To defend against harmful ultraviolet radiation, tardigrades are believed to produce a fluorescent protective layer, acting as a natural shield. Tardigrades are resilient enough to withstand extreme cosmic events such as asteroid collisions and even the radiation from supernova explosions. They have endured all five mass extinction events on Earth since their emergence nearly 500 million years ago. They can enter a cryptobiotic ""tun"" state, suspending nearly all metabolism and dehydrating their bodies in extreme conditions. This property of theirs to withstand extremes of environment, have made them suitable for conducting life sciences experiments on space missions. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box: Tardigrades applications in Space Science: Understanding tardigrade resilience helps in assessing the limits of life in extreme environments and astrobiology and hence find application in developing space-safe biotechnology like radiation protection, cryopreservation, and biomedical applications. This can be used in developing informed strategies to protect astronauts from radiation and microgravity effects. Earlier, in 2007, over 2,000 tardigrades were sent into space aboard ESA's FOTON-M3 mission, where they spent 10 days exposed to the vacuum of space. Remarkably, many survived and resumed normal activity, including reproduction, once rehydrated upon return to Earth. Tardigrades are about to get rehydrated aboard the International Space Station (ISS) as part of a scientific experiment to observe their revival, reproduction, and egg-laying under microgravity conditions. Researchers also aim to study changes in gene expression and DNA repair mechanisms by comparing space-grown tardigrades with Earth-based controls. Relevance: Among the scientific experiments astronaut Shubhanshu Shukla will undertake during his two week stay at the International Space Station (ISS) is one that will examine the revival, survival, and reproduction of tardigrades in space."

Question 97

97,"Consider the following statements regarding G57 Maximum Ordinance Penetrator (MOP) weapon: I. It is a specialized weapon to attack deeply buried enemy facilities. II. The warhead in this weapon system is encased in a hardened stainless steel case. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II"

Answer 97

97,c,"The G57 Massive Ordnance Penetrator (MOP) is a GPS-guided, earth-penetrating strike weapon for use against hard and deeply buried targets. It is also known as the bunker buster for its capability of attacking earth deep placed enemy facilities. So, statement I is correct. The warhead is encased in a special high-performance steel alloy, which is meant to enable it to carry a large explosive payload while maintaining the penetrator case's integrity during impact. So, statement II is correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: Israel used the US made G57 MOP to target underground nuclear facilities in Iran."

Question 98

98,"'Stratospheric Aerosol Injection (SAI)', a geoengineering technique proposed to limit the warming of Earth, is aimed at mimicking or simulating which one of the following natural phenomena? (a) Auroras caused by powerful solar flares (b) Mineralization of carbon dioxide by the carbon cycle (c) Filtration of solar radiations by the Ozone layer (d) Volcanic eruptions releasing certain particles into the atmosphere"

Answer 98

98,d,"Geoengineering refers to any large-scale attempt to alter the Earth's natural climate system to counter the adverse impacts of global warming. Geoengineering strategies can be classified as either Solar Radiation Management (SRM) or Carbon Dioxide Removal (CDR). Geoengineering has encompassed two very different things: sucking carbon dioxide out of the sky so the atmosphere will trap less heat, and reflecting more sunlight away from the planet so less heat is absorbed in the first place. Stratospheric Aerosol Injection (SAI) has been proposed as a climate intervention that could help to rapidly mitigate some of the most harmful effects of climate change. Stratospheric aerosol injection is a technique that involves releasing tiny reflective particles into the stratosphere that aims at increasing the scattering of solar radiation directly back into space. This technique has been developed from observations of the cooling effect of explosive volcanic eruptions. Volcanic aerosols effectively scatter shortwave solar radiations back to space. The addition of sulphate particles into the stratosphere after a volcanic eruption provides a natural analogue for Solar Radiation Modification. SAI would act to mimic the mechanism behind volcanism-induced cooling by continuously injecting sulphur dioxide in the lower stratosphere. These form sunlight-reflecting sulfate aerosols. Solar Radiation Management (SRM) is one of the geoengineering options being explored. Under this, materials are proposed to be deployed in Space to reflect incoming solar rays and prevent them from reaching Earth. Currently, the two commonly proposed methods of solar geoengineering are Stratospheric Aerosol Injection (SAI), and Marine Cloud Brightening. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer."

Question 99

99,"Consider the following statements with regard to Counter Terrorism Committee: I. It was established under the UNSC 1267 resolution. II. It consists of both permanent and non-permanent members of the United Nations Security Council. III. It can impose sanctions on any individual or group suspected of committing terrorist activities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I and III only (b) III only (c) II only (d) I and II only"

Answer 99

99,c,"The Counter-Terrorism Committee (CTC) is a subsidiary body of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC), created to ensure that all member states implement effective counter-terrorism measures under international law. The CTC was established under UNSC Resolution 1373, adopted on 28 September 2001, following the 9/11 attacks and is responsible for ensuring that all States follow the resolution. The Committee also works to increase the capacity of States to fight terrorism. So, statement I is not correct. The CTC is composed of all 15 members of the UNSC - the five permanent members (P5) and the ten rotating non-permanent members. This includes both elected and permanent members, making it a universal UNSC body. So, statement II is correct. The CTC does not have the mandate to impose sanctions or designate individuals or entities. That authority lies with committees like the 1267 Sanctions Committee. The CTC's role is technical and compliance-based, focusing on helping states implement counter-terrorism obligations. So, statement III is not correct. The committee works with the Counter-Terrorism Executive Directorate (CTED) to provide technical assistance, best practices, and capacity building. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: Pakistan has attained the Vice Chair of the CTC, as a consequence of being the non-permanent member of the UNSC, this has drawn flak from India."

Question 100

100,"Which of the following are the benefits associated with use of Nano Urea in agriculture? I. It is produced through an energy-efficient and environmentally friendly process with reduced carbon emissions. II. It leads to higher nutrient use efficiency due to better crop absorption. III. It enhances crop productivity while enhancing soil and water quality. IV. It completely eliminates the need for conventional urea application. Select the correct answer from the code given below: (a) I, II and III only (b) I, II and IV only (c) II, III and IV only (d) I, III and IV only"

Answer 100

100,a,"Nano Urea is a nanotechnology based revolutionary Agri-input which provides nitrogen to plants. When compared to conventional urea prill, it has a desirable particle size of about 20-50 nm and more surface area (10,000 times over 1 mm urea prill) and number of particles (55,000 nitrogen particles over 1 mm urea prill). Benefits: IFFCO Nano Urea (liquid) is the world's first Nanofertilizers which has been notified by Fertilizer Control Order (FCO, 1985), Government of India. Nano Urea contains 4.0% total nitrogen (w/v). Nano Urea is produced by an energy efficient environment friendly production process with less carbon footprints. So, point I is correct. Increased availability to crop by more than 80% resulting in higher nutrient use efficiency. So, point II is correct. Its application to crops as foliar fertilization enhances crop productivity to the tune of 8% with commensurate benefits in terms of better soil, air and water, and farmers profitability. So, point III is correct. Nano Urea complements, but does not entirely replace conventional urea in all cases. So, point IV is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: Indian Farmers Fertilizer Cooperative Limited (IFFCO) will set up its first overseas nano fertiliser plant in Brazil."