1,”‘Project Suncatcher’, a term that frequently appears in the news, is best described as: (a) a global initiative to deploy solar sails for deep-space exploration of the outer solar system (b) a research project aimed at establishing a constellation of solar-powered data centers in outer space (c) a collaboration between tropical nations to develop large-scale floating solar farms in international waters (d) a NASA mission designed to study the impact of solar flares on terrestrial telecommunication grids”
1,b,”Google has launched Project Suncatcher, a long-term research initiative to deploy solar-powered data centres in space starting in 2027. This project aims to deploy solar-powered satellite constellations equipped with Tensor Processing Units (TPUs) to perform large-scale machine learning computations in space. The system will use laser-based optical links to connect satellites, enabling data centre-level computational coordination. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box ● Solar Sails ○ A solar sail, simply put, is a spacecraft propelled by sunlight. Whereas conventional rockets are propelled by the combustion of rocket fuel, a solar sail is pushed forward by light from the Sun. Learn more about the basics of flight by light here. Relevance: Recently, Google announced that it plans to launch two prototype satellites by early 2027 as a precursor mission to the Project Suncatcher.”
2,”Consider the following statements with regard to Jordan, Ethiopia, Oman: I. All the three countries are located in the western Asia. II. Only one of them is a landlocked country. III. None of them shares its border with the Arabian Sea. Which of the following statements given above is/are correct? (a) II only (b) I and II only (c) II and III only (d) III only”
2,a,”Jordan and Oman are both located in Western Asia. The Ethiopia is located in the north-eastern part of Africa. So, statement I is not correct. ● Jordan: The country is located between Levantine and the Arabian region of the Middle East, and it is bounded to the by Syria to the north, Iraq to the east, Saudi Arabia to the south and southeast, and Israel and Palestine to the west. To the South of Jordan is the Red Sea which is also the only outlet to sea at the Gulf of Aqaba. ● Ethiopia: It is a landlocked country on the Horn of Africa. The country lies completely within the tropical latitudes and is relatively compact, with similar north-south and east-west dimensions. So, statement II is correct. ○ It is bounded by Eritrea to the north, Djibouti to the northeast, Somalia to the east, Kenya to the south, and South Sudan and Sudan to the west. ● Oman: Occupying the southeastern coast of the Arabian Peninsula at the confluence of the Persian Gulf and Arabian Sea. It is bounded to the southwest by Yemen, to the south and east by the Arabian Sea, to the north by the Gulf of Oman, to the northwest by the United Arab Emirates, and to the west by Saudi Arabia. So, statement III is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, Prime Minister of India undertook a strategic three-nation tour to Jordan, Ethiopia, and Oman, strengthening ties in West Asia and Africa.”
3,”Consider the following statements: Statement I: Air pollution contributes to the increased prevalence of antibiotic-resistant bacteria. Statement II: Particulate matter in polluted air acts as a carrier for bacteria. Statement III: Exposure to air pollutants can induce stress responses in bacteria. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct”
3,a,”A study by Jawaharlal Nehru University finds that Delhi’s polluted winter air carries high levels of antibiotic-resistant bacteria or superbugs far above safe limits, posing public health risks, especially for vulnerable groups and those with chronic illnesses. ● Researchers identified methicillin-resistant staphylococci (MRS), many of which showed multidrug resistance (MDR) to several frontline antibiotic classes such as macrolides, beta-lactams and gentamicin. Across all seasons, researchers detected staphylococcal bacteria concentrations far above the WHO safety threshold of 1,000 colony-forming units (CFU) per cubic metre, in winter rising to over 16,000 CFU/m3. So, statement I is correct. ● The study noted that drug-resistant bacteria levels peaked in winter, correlating with the season’s notorious smog episodes. Several environmental factors likely contribute: ○ Poor dispersion of air during winter traps pollutants and microbes near the ground. High particulate matter levels provide surfaces that bacteria can adhere to, aiding their survival and transport. Lower humidity and cooler temperatures help some microbes persist longer in airborne form. So, statement II is correct. ○ Exposure to air pollutants such as PM2.5 induces oxidative stress and SOS (Save Our Soul) responses in bacteria. These stress responses increase mutation rates and promote horizontal gene transfer, facilitating the acquisition and spread of antibiotic resistance genes. Additionally, heavy metals and microplastics present in particulate matter exert selective pressure that co-selects for antibiotic resistance. Hence, air pollution directly contributes to the emergence and amplification of antibiotic-resistant bacteria. So, statement III is correct. ● In contrast, monsoon rains appeared to wash away outdoor bacterial contamination, reducing airborne loads significantly during the wet season. So, both Statement–II and Statement–III are correct and both of them explain Statement–I. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: Researchers at JNU have warned that Delhi’s winter smog could be harbouring drug-resistant bacteria, compounding health risks already posed by some of the world’s worst air pollution.”
4,”Consider the following statements with regard to the UNESCO Intergovernmental Committee for Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage: I. It was constituted under an international convention adopted by UNESCO in 2003. II. It follows the principles of equitable geographical representation and rotation. III. India recently hosted the 20th Session of the Inter Governmental Committee. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None”
4,c,”The Convention for the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage was adopted in 2003 by the General Conference of UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization) at its 32nd session in Paris. ● Article 5 of the Convention establishes an Intergovernmental Committee for the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage within UNESCO. It is the main executive body responsible for overseeing the implementation of the Convention. So, statement I is correct. ● The Members of the Intergovernmental Committee are elected by the States Parties meeting in the General Assembly according to the principles of equitable geographical representation and rotation. Based on the principle of equitable geographical representation foreseen by the Convention, the General Assembly decided in June 2006 that the seats in the Committee would be distributed among the six UNESCO electoral groups in proportion to the number of States Parties from each group, it being understood that in a Committee of 24 members, each group will occupy at least three seats. So, statement II is correct. ○ States Members to the Committee are elected for a term of four years, and every two years, the General Assembly shall renew half of them. A State Member of the Committee may not be elected for two consecutive terms. ● The Government of India hosted the 20th session of the UNESCO Intergovernmental Committee for Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage in December 2025 at historic Red Fort complex. This was the first time India hosted the ICH Committee session. So, statement III is correct. ● The core functions of the Intergovernmental Committee for the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage are to promote the objectives of the Convention for the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage, provide guidance on best practices and make recommendations on measures for the safeguarding of the intangible cultural heritage. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box Key Facts About the UNESCO Representative List of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity ● Intangible cultural heritage, according to UNESCO, is “traditional, contemporary and living at the same time”, “inclusive”, “representative”, and “community-based”. It is “an important factor in maintaining cultural diversity in the face of growing globalisation” and “an understanding of the intangible cultural heritage of different communities helps with intercultural dialogue, and encourages mutual respect for other ways of life”. ● The functions of the Committee are to: ○ Promote the objectives of the Convention, and to encourage and monitor the implementation thereof; ○ Provide guidance on best practices and make recommendations on measures for the safeguarding of the intangible cultural heritage. So, point V is correct. ○ Prepare and submit to the General Assembly for approval a draft plan for the use of the resources of the Intangible Cultural Heritage Fund, in accordance with Article 25. ○ Seek means of increasing its resources, and to take the necessary measures to this end, in accordance with Article 25; ○ Prepare and submit to the General Assembly for approval operational directives for the implementation of this Convention. ○ Examine, in accordance with Article 29, the reports submitted by States Parties, and to summarize them for the General Assembly; ○ Examine requests submitted by States Parties, and to decide thereon, in accordance with objective selection criteria to be established by the Committee and approved by the General Assembly for: (i) inscription on the lists and proposals mentioned under Articles 16, 17 and 18. (ii) the granting of international assistance in accordance with Article 22. ● Article 11 of the Convention emphasizes the primary responsibility of States Parties in safeguarding intangible cultural heritage at the national level. Each State Party must take appropriate legislative, administrative, and policy measures to protect the intangible cultural heritage present within its territory. ○ States are required to identify and define the various elements of such heritage by ensuring the active involvement of communities, groups, and relevant non-governmental organizations. Relevance: Recently, Deepavali was inscribed on the UNESCO Representative List of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity.”
5,”Consider the following statements: I. Australia is the first country in the world to enforce a minimum age for social media use. II. India does not have a specific law to regulate the use of social media platforms by children. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II”
5,c,”India does not have a law specifically to regulate the use of social media platforms by children, but under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, tech companies are required to implement a mechanism for collecting “verifiable” parental consent before processing personal data of children, even though it does not prescribe a particular technical measure to collect such consent. So, statement II is correct. ○ As per India’s law, a child has been defined as an individual below the age of 18. The law also directs companies to not process personal data of children in cases where it could cause any detrimental effect on the well-being of a child, and not tracking or engaging in behavioural monitoring or targeted advertising directed at children. ● Australia has become the first country in the world to enforce a minimum age for social media use, requiring platforms such as Instagram, YouTube and Snap to block more than a million accounts of users below the age of 16. So, statement I is correct. ○ According to the new law, called the ‘Online Safety Amendment (Social Media Minimum Age) Act’, age-restricted platforms will be expected to take “reasonable” steps to find existing accounts held by under-16s, and deactivate or remove those accounts, prevent them from opening new accounts, including prohibiting any workarounds that may allow under-16s to bypass the restrictions. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box Key Facts About Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023: ● The law mandates firms handling digital personal data to ensure privacy protection, data security, and accountability, while allowing certain exemptions for the State and government bodies (such as in cases involving national security, public order, or research). ● It also establishes the Data Protection Board of India to inquire into complaints and impose penalties. ● The Act applies to processing of digital personal data within India and also to data processed outside India if it relates to offering goods or services in India. ● It excludes personal data used for purely personal purposes and data already made public by the data principal or under legal obligation. ● Personal data can be processed only after obtaining valid consent, though consent is not required in certain “legitimate use” cases such as government services, medical emergencies, etc. ● Children’s data requires parental/guardian consent and harmful processing or targeted ads for minors are prohibited. Relevance: Recently, Australia has become the first country in the world to enforce a minimum age for social media use.”
6,”Consider the following countries: I. Japan II. Singapore III. Netherlands IV. United Arab Emirates V. India How many of the above are part of the Pax Silica initiative? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All the five”
6,c,”‘Pax Silica’ is a United States (US)-led strategic initiative to build a secure and innovation-driven silicon supply chain - from critical minerals and energy inputs to advanced manufacturing, semiconductors, artificial intelligence (AI) infrastructure, and logistics. Silica refers to the compound that is refined into silicon, one of the chemical elements foundational to the computer chips that enables AI. ● The initiative aims to reduce coercive dependencies, protect the materials and capabilities fundamental to AI, and ensure aligned nations can develop and deploy transformative technologies. ● Countries which are part of Pax Silica are Japan, South Korea, Singapore, Netherlands, United Kingdom, Israel, United Arab Emirates and Australia. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, the United States has announced a new ‘Pax Silica’ initiative with eight nations; aimed at building a secure and innovation-driven silicon supply chain.”
7,”The ‘Shyok Tunnel’, recently seen in the news, is strategically significant for India because: (a) it is the first underwater tunnel in India providing connectivity between the North and South banks of the Indus River (b) it is the longest high-altitude road tunnel in the world connecting the Kashmir Valley with the Gurez sector (c) it will provide an all-weather connectivity to forward military areas close to the Line of Actual Control (LAC) (d) it is a strategic tunnel on the Char Dham All-Weather Road project aimed at reducing travel time to the Indo-Tibetan border”
7,c,”The Shyok Tunnel on the Durbuk-Shyok-Daulat Beg Oldie (DS-DBO) Road runs along the Line of Actual Control (LAC) in eastern Ladakh. It is a 920-metre cut-and-cover tunnel on the 255 km long DS-DBO road, which is the only operational road connecting Durbuk to the Depsang Plains and DBO in the north. The tunnel is of key strategic significance as it would provide all-weather reliable connectivity to strategic and sensitive military areas close to the LAC. ● The tunnel will significantly enhance security, mobility, and rapid deployment capabilities, especially during harsh winters, as the region is prone to heavy snowfall, avalanches, and extreme it would particularly help in the quick mobilisation and redeployment of troops when needed. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box Atal Tunnel: ● Atal Tunnel (also known as Rohtang Tunnel) is a highway tunnel built under the Rohtang Pass in the eastern Pir Panjal range of the Himalayas on the Leh-Manali Highway in Himachal Pradesh, India. At a length of 9.02 km, it is the longest highway single-tube tunnel above 10,000 feet (3,048 m) in the world when completed and is named after former Prime Minister of India, Atal Bihari Vajpayee. Relevance: Recently, the Defence Minister of India inaugurated Shyok Tunnel in eastern Ladakh.”
8,”Consider the following States: I. Chhattisgarh II. Himachal Pradesh III. Assam IV. Odisha V. Uttarakhand How many of the above have only one Ramsar site? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All the five”
8,b,”Ramsar Site is a wetland recognized under the Ramsar Convention (1971) for its international importance in conserving biodiversity and sustaining ecological balance. India has 96 Ramsar sites spread across 28 states and union territories. As of January 2026, Tamil Nadu leads India with 20 Ramsar sites, followed by Uttar Pradesh with 10. ● As of January 2026, ten states host exactly one Ramsar site each. These include Andhra Pradesh (Kolleru Lake), Assam (Deepor Beel), Goa (Nanda Lake), Jharkhand (Udhwa Lake), Manipur (Loktak Lake), Mizoram (Pala Wetland), Sikkim (Khecheopalri Wetland), Tripura (Rudrasagar Lake), Uttarakhand (Asan Barrage), and Chhattisgarh (Kopra Reservoir). ● Himachal Pradesh has three Ramsar sites (Pong Dam Lake, Chandertal Wetland,and Renuka wetland). Odisha has six Ramsar sites (Chilka lake, Bhitarkanika Mangroves, Satkosia gorge, Tampara lake, Hirakud Reservoir and Ansupa lake). Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box ● Siliserh lake is located in Alwar district (Aravalli region) of Rajasthan. It is a human-made lake within the buffer zone of Sariska Tiger Reserve. It was constructed by Maharaja Vinay Singh in 1845 to supply drinking water to Alwar city. ● Kopra Reservoir is located in the Baloda Bazar-Bhatapara district of Chhattisgarh. The reservoir was originally constructed for irrigation and water storage, but over time, it developed the characteristics of a natural freshwater wetland. It is the state’s first recognised Ramsar site. Relevance: With the recent addition of Rajasthan’s Siliserh Lake and Chhattisgarh’s Kopra Jalashay, India’s tally of Ramsar sites increased to 96.”
9,”Recently Thooyamalli rice, Kavindapadi naatu sakkarai, Woraiyur cotton saris and Namakkal kalchatti were granted GI Tags. They all belong to which one of the following States? (a) Kerala (b) Ar (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Andhra Pradesh”
9,c,”Thooyamalli rice, meaning “pure jasmine”, is a traditional sambha-season rice variety of Tamil Nadu cultivated over a long duration of about 135–140 days. Received the GI tag in December 2025, it is known for its cultural significance and traditional farming value, it reflects indigenous agricultural practices of the region. ● Kavindapadi naatu sakkarai from Erode district (Tamil Nadu) received the GI tag in December 2025. It is a famous traditional jaggery powder made by crushing locally grown sugarcane nourished by the Lower Bhavani Project canal and slowly evaporating the juice, giving it its natural taste and purity. ● Woraiyur cotton saris from Tiruchi district (Tamil Nadu) received the GI tag in December 2025. These are handwoven in Manamedu on the banks of the Cauvery, using cotton yarn sourced from Coimbatore and Rajapalayam and dyes from Jayamkondam, known for their fine weaving tradition. ● Namakkal kalchatti or soapstone cookware is a historic kitchen craft of Tamil Nadu that received the GI tag in December 2025. It is known for its durability, heat retention, and ancient legacy, successfully granted GI after renewed efforts by local manufacturers. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box: Key Facts About Geographical Indication (GI) Tags: ● A geographical indication (GI) is a sign used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities or a reputation that are due to that origin. In order to function as a GI, a sign must identify a product as originating in a given place. ● Geographic indicators are protected as an aspect of IPRs under Articles 1(2) and 10 of the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property. ● GIs are covered under Articles 22 to 24 of the Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement, which was included in the final accords of the Uruguay Round of GATT talks. ● The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999, protects GI products in India. ● Any association of persons, producers, organisation or authority established by or under the law can apply. The applicant must represent the interests of the producers. ● It is applicable if one wants to register a GI (Geographical Indication) an indication which identifies such goods as agricultural, natural or manufactured goods as originating or manufactured in a country or region. Relevance: Recently, five products from Tamil Nadu have secured the Geographical Indications (GI) tag.”
10,”What is the advantage of using hydrogen fuel cells over lithium-ion battery-electric propulsion in maritime vessels? (a) It offers a significantly higher gravimetric energy density, facilitating long-duration voyages. (b) It exhibits much cleaner tank to wheel emission without CO2 and NOx pollutants. (c) It eliminates the need for an onboard energy management system or secondary battery storage. (d) It utilizes a simpler electrochemical process that remains unaffected by the saline and corrosive maritime environment.”
10,a,”A hydrogen powered vehicle works by fuelling a fuel cell with high pressured hydrogen gas that will mix with oxygen. This mix starts an electrochemical reaction that produces electricity to power the electric motor. ● Modern battery energy storage systems (BESS) boast round-trip efficiencies of 85–95%. However, batteries face challenges in energy density and duration. Hydrogen stands out as the energy-dense, long-duration counterpart to conventional lithium-ion batteries which is ideal for heavy industry and maritime transport. ● Both hydrogen fuel cells and lithium-ion batteries are exceptionally clean when it comes to tank-to-wheel emissions. Neither emit CO2 or NOx, and in the case of fuel cells, the only by-products are water vapor and warm air. ● Hydrogen fuel cell vessels typically require a hybrid setup with a battery (or sometimes a supercapacitor) to handle peak power demands and for load leveling. ● Hydrogen fuel cells are subject to strong constraints, such as a marine environment, with humid and salty air, shocks, temperature variation and fine particle pollution. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, the Minister of Ports, Shipping and Waterways flagged off the commercial operation of India’s first indigenous hydrogen fuel-cell passenger vessel at Namo Ghat in Varanasi.”
11,”Consider the following statements with regard to Measles: I. It is a highly contagious bacterial disease. II. It spreads mainly through respiratory droplets and through the air. III. A person who recovers from measles usually develops lifelong immunity. IV. Measles vaccination is included under India’s Mission Indradhanush. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All the four”
11,c,”Measles is a vaccine-preventable infectious disease that remains a public health concern because it spreads very easily from person to person. Common symptoms of measles include high fever, cough, runny nose, red and watery eyes, and a red skin rash. ● Measles is not caused by bacteria. It is caused by the measles virus, which belongs to the Paramyxoviridae family. Because it is a viral disease, antibiotics are not effective, and prevention mainly depends on vaccination. So, statement I is not correct. ● Measles spreads mainly through respiratory droplets and through the air when an infected person coughs or sneezes. The virus can stay in the air for several hours in closed places, which is why measles is considered one of the most contagious diseases. So, statement II is correct. ● People who recover from measles usually develop lifelong immunity, meaning they are protected from getting the disease again. This happens because the body develops strong immune memory after infection. So, statement III is correct. ● Intensified Mission Indradhanush (IMI 5.0) campaign aims to enhance immunization coverage for all vaccines provided under the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) as per the National Immunization Schedule (NIS). Special focus is on improvement of Measles and Rubella vaccination coverage with the aim of Measles & Rubella elimination by 2023 and use of U-WIN digital platform for Routine Immunization in pilot mode across all districts in the country. So, statement IV is correct. ● There is no specific antiviral therapy for measles. In India, vaccination against measles is given free of cost. At present, it is provided as part of the Measles–Rubella (MR) vaccine, which aims to protect children from both diseases. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: According to recent reports, measles has continued to cause significant cases despite the availability of a highly effective vaccine.”
12,”Consider the following statements with regard to the India’s National Intelligence Grid (NATGRID): I. It is a statutory body created to enhance counter- terrorism capability. II. It operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs and does not have independent investigative powers. III. Its access is available only to the agencies working under the Central Government. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II, and III”
12,b,”The National Intelligence Grid (NATGRID) is a key institutional mechanism aimed at strengthening internal security and counter-terrorism efforts by improving information sharing among government agencies. ● The National Intelligence Grid is not a statutory body. It was established through an executive decision of the Government of India after the 2008 Mumbai terrorist attacks and does not have a separate Act of Parliament backing it. So, statement I is not correct. ● It functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). It is neither an intelligence agency nor a law-enforcement body and therefore does not possess independent investigative powers, such as arrest, search, or prosecution. Its role is limited to facilitating access to information. So, statement II is correct. ● It enables authorised law enforcement and intelligence agencies to access relevant data from multiple government databases for purposes such as counter-terrorism, organised crime prevention, and national security analysis. Access is regulated and request-based. ○ Access to NATGRID is now available to Superintendent of Police (SP) rank officers. Earlier, it was only meant to be accessible to ten central agencies such as the Intelligence Bureau (IB), the Research and Analysis Wing (R&AW), the National Investigation Agency (NIA), the Enforcement Directorate (ED), the Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU), the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) and the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI). So, statement III is correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recent reports show rising data requests via NATGRID, underscoring its expanding role in India’s security framework.”
13,”Consider the following statements with regard to the National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research: I. It is an autonomous Research and Development Institution of the Ministry of Earth Sciences. II. It maintains India’s permanent station in Antarctica. III. Its headquarter is located in Chennai. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) I, II and III (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I and II only”
13,d,”The National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR) was established as an autonomous Research and Development Institution of the Ministry of Earth Sciences (formerly Department of Ocean Development), Government of India on the 25th May 1998. Its headquarters are in Vasco da Gama, Goa. So, statement I is correct and III is not correct. ● It is officially the nodal organisation for the co-ordination and implementation of the Indian Antarctic Programme. Year-round maintenance of the two Indian stations (Maitri & Bharati) in Antarctica is the primary responsibility of the Centre. Maitri (1989) and Bharati (2011) were established, for carrying out research by the Indian scientists in all disciplines of polar research. So, statement II is correct. ● It is the only institution in India that follows a multi-disciplinary approach with a main focus on polar science research. It brings together different fields such as glaciology, geology, atmospheric science, oceanography, and climate studies under one organisation. ● The Centre works under the Ministry of Earth Sciences. It supports India’s scientific activities not only in Antarctica but also in the Arctic region, the Southern Ocean, and the Himalayan cryosphere, showing its wider role beyond Antarctica. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recent reports highlight NCPOR’s expanding role in India’s polar missions and climate–cryosphere research.”
14,”Which one of the following best describes GLP-1 drugs, recently in the news? (a) They are steroid-based drugs that directly increase insulin production by the pancreas. (b) They mimic a gut hormone to regulate blood sugar levels and reduce appetite. (c) They act as antibiotics that alter gut bacteria to control obesity. (d) They are appetite suppressants that act only on the central nervous system.”
14,b,”GLP-1 drugs are medicines developed based on the hormone Glucagon-Like Peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is naturally released from the gut after food intake. They are widely used in the treatment of type 2 diabetes and are increasingly prescribed for weight management. ● GLP-1 drugs copy the action of the natural GLP-1 hormone. They help the body release insulin only when blood sugar is high, reduce the release of glucagon (which raises blood sugar), slow down stomach emptying, and send signals to the brain that reduce hunger. Because of this combined action, these drugs help in better blood sugar control and gradual weight loss. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recent news reports highlight that Indian pharma firms are entering the GLP-1 segment, driven by rising demand for diabetes and obesity treatments.”
15,”Modern society relies heavily on satellites for navigation, communication, weather forecasting, and financial time-stamping. As large satellite megaconstellations expand, this dependence also increases vulnerability to cascading failures. In such a scenario, a powerful____can disrupt satellite electronics and signals, while a collision between satellites can trigger___, making entire orbital regions unusable. Further, disruption of precise satellite-based time signals can cause failures in banking and power systems due to___. Which of the following correctly fills the blanks? (a) Geomagnetic reversal, orbital decay, clock skew (b) Solar flare, space debris cascade, signal latency (c) Solar storm, Kessler syndrome, clock crash (d) Coronal mass ejection, Van Allen saturation, time dilation”
15,c,”The rapid expansion of satellite megaconstellations in low Earth orbit has significantly increased both the benefits and the systemic risks of space-based infrastructure. Recent scientific studies warn that disturbances in this crowded orbital environment could trigger cascading failures with consequences extending far beyond space, affecting critical services on Earth. ● The above scenario links three interconnected risks emerging from the rapid expansion of satellite megaconstellations. First, a powerful solar storm can severely disrupt satellite electronics, communication links, and tracking systems. Solar storms increase atmospheric drag and interfere with onboard electronics, potentially causing satellites to lose control or fail to execute collision-avoidance manoeuvres. This creates a system-wide vulnerability rather than isolated failures. ● Second, in an increasingly crowded low Earth orbit, even a single uncontrolled collision can trigger the Kessler syndrome, a cascading chain reaction where debris from one collision strikes other satellites, generating ever more fragments. Such a debris cascade can render entire orbital regions hazardous or unusable for decades, threatening future space operations. ● Third, modern infrastructure depends heavily on precise satellite-based time signals for banking transactions, power grid synchronisation, and telecommunications. Disruption of these timing signals can lead to a CRASH Clock–type failure, where the loss of precise timing causes cascading breakdowns in critical terrestrial systems. ○ The “CRASH Clock” has shrunk to less than three days, meaning humanity would have very little time to restore satellite control after a major disruption. ● Together, the solar storm, Kessler syndrome, and clock crash illustrate how tightly coupled space systems and everyday societal functions have become, amplifying the consequences of orbital failures. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: Scientists warn that Earth may have only a narrow window of less than three days to avert a cascading satellite disaster if a powerful solar storm disrupts spacecraft operations.”
16,”Consider the following statements with regard to the Caller Name Presentation (CNAP) in India: I. It will show the KYC-registered name of all incoming callers using Indian phone numbers. II. This feature will be enabled by default, and users will not have the choice to disable it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and III (d) Neither I nor II”
16,a,”The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India, commonly referred to as TRAI, recently recommended the introduction of Calling Name Presentation (CNAP) by telecom operators. CNAP is a service similar to Truecaller that will show the caller’s name. ● The European Telecommunication Standards Institute (ETSI) defines CNAP as a supplementary service that enables the called party to receive the calling name information of the calling party. ● CNAP displays the caller’s name using telecom-verified subscriber information maintained by service providers, rather than crowd-sourced or user-generated data. This improves authenticity and transparency. The Department of Telecommunications (DoT) will mandate telecom operators to show the KYC-registered name of all incoming callers using Indian phone numbers. Currently, a trial for this is ongoing in Haryana alone. So, statement I is correct. ● The feature will be enabled by default, and users might have the choice to disable seeing the KYC name of people from whom they receive calls, with the corollary — concealing one’s name from call recipients — being available only to restricted line facility users, like Ministers and top government officials. So, statement II is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, the Department of Telecom has decided to mandate display of KYC-registered names on incoming calls.”
17,”Consider the following statements: I. It is caused by an RNA virus belonging to the Filoviridae family. II. Human infection occurs mainly through direct contact with bodily fluids. III. A live recombinant vaccine using vesicular stomatitis virus has been approved for its prevention. Which is this disease? (a) Zika (b) Ebola (c) Marburg (d) Nipah”
17,b,”Ebola virus disease (EVD) is a rare but severe illness, caused by a RNA virus belonging to the genus orthoebolavirus of the Filoviridae family. It is endemic to Congo’s vast tropical forests. It is naturally found in Central and West African regions. ● Six species of orthoebolaviruses have been identified to date, with three known to cause large outbreaks: ○ Ebola virus (EBOV) causing Ebola virus disease (EVD) ○ Sudan virus (SUDV) causing Sudan virus disease (SVD) ○ Bundibugyo virus (BDBV) causing Bundibugyo virus disease (BVD) ● Ebola mainly affects the vascular system and causes viral hemorrhagic fever, characterized by internal and external bleeding, shock, and multiorgan failure. ● Ebola disease most commonly spreads from person to person via exposure to blood or other body fluids (mostly through faeces, vomit, sweat and saliva) of an infected person, alive or deceased. This occurs when the virus enters a body through broken skin or mucous membranes (such as the eyes, nose or mouth), most often while someone is caring for a patient or touching the body of someone who has died from the disease. ○ It is also spread by touching or handling objects that have been contaminated with the body fluids of a sick person or someone who has died from Ebola disease. ○ In rare instances, transmission from a male survivor to his sexual partner has been documented. This is because the virus can persist for some time in the semen of some male survivors after they recover from the disease. ● Two vaccines are approved for the disease : Ervebo (Merck & Co.) and Zabdeno and Mvabea (Janssen Pharmaceutica). ○ ERVEBO is a replication-competent, live, attenuated recombinant vesicular stomatitis virus (VSV) vaccine. It is not possible to become infected with EBOV from the vaccine. The vaccine only contains a gene from the Ebola virus, not the whole virus. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box ● Marburg virus disease (MVD) is a severe, often fatal illness caused by the Marburg virus (filovirus, like ebola). It is also spread by Human-to-Human transmission. There is currently no available treatment for MVD. This is why it is important for people showing Marburg-like symptoms to seek care early. There are no vaccines approved for MVD. However, there are some candidate vaccines currently under development. ● Zika virus disease is caused by a virus that is mostly transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes that bite during the day. Fever, rash, conjunctivitis, muscle and joint discomfort, malaise, and headache are all common symptoms. ● Nipah virus is a highly fatal zoonotic virus belonging to the Paramyxoviridae family, with fruit bats (Pteropus species) as its natural reservoir. It spreads to humans through consumption of bat-contaminated food, contact with infected animals (especially pigs), or via close person-to-person contact. There is currently no specific antiviral treatment or approved vaccine for Nipah, and management is mainly supportive. Relevance: Recently, the Ministry of Health of the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) declared the end of the Ebola virus disease outbreak which had been declared on 4 September 2025.”
18,”Which one of the following best describes ‘Operation Thunder 2025’? (a) A military operation by the United States Armed Forces in Argentina (b) A coordinated global operation to combat money laundering and terrorist financing (c) A coordinated global operation to combat the illegal trade in wildlife and plants (d) A counter-insurgency operation against Naxalites in India”
18,c,”Operation Thunder 2025 was a coordinated global operation led by INTERPOL together with the World Customs Organization (WCO) and other international partners to combat the illegal trade in wildlife, plants, and related products. ● Its aim was to intercept and seize illegally traded wildlife and forest products, disrupt global supply chains, dismantle criminal networks and identify suspects involved in environmental crime, estimated to be worth up to $20 billion annually. ● More than 30,000 live animals, along with protected plants and timber, have been seized during a global crackdown on illegal wildlife and forestry trade, according to Interpol. ● The operation uncovered thousands of protected animals and plants, tens of thousands of cubic metres of illegally logged timber and more than 30 tonnes of spices listed as endangered under the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES). Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box Operation Absolute Resolve: ● On 3 January 2026, the United States launched military strikes on Venezuela and captured President Nicolás Maduro and his wife Cilia Flores. The operation, codenamed Operation Absolute Resolve, began around 2 a.m. local time, when explosions were observed. Financial Action Task Force (FATF): ● It is an inter-governmental body that sets international standards and promotes effective implementation of legal, regulatory, and operational measures to combat money laundering (ML), terrorist financing (TF), and proliferation financing (PF). ● It involves a global network of over 200 countries and jurisdictions, working through regional bodies and international partners like the IMF, World Bank, and UN, to safeguard the financial system from illicit funds. "Operation Thunder" in India: ● It is a major and ongoing anti-drug campaign and law enforcement effort primarily by the Nagpur City Police, which combines rigorous enforcement with widespread community awareness programs to combat drug trafficking and abuse. Operation Black Forest: ● It was a counter-insurgency & counter-terrorism operation conducted by Indian security forces against Naxalite-Maoist insurgents in areas located between the states of Chhattisgarh and Telangana. ● The operation began on 21 April 2025. Relevance: More than 30,000 live animals, along with protected plants and timber, have been seized during a global crackdown, known as Operation Thunder 2025.”
19,”The UMEED Central Portal, sometimes seen in the news, is primarily: (a) a platform for providing interest-free loans and livelihood support to farmers (b) a scholarship monitoring system for minority students (c) a digital platform for geo-tagging, verification and administration of Waqf properties (d) a subsidy distribution portal for urban poor households”
19,c,”The UMEED (Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency and Development) portal was launched by the Centre on June 6 2025, under provisions of the contested Waqf (Amendment) Act, with the objective of bringing all Waqf properties under a centralised digital database, with geo tagging and documentation. ● It will ensure that properties are managed and protected more effectively and in a transparent manner. ● Developed by the Ministry of Minority Affairs, it aims to bring transparency, accountability, and people-centric governance to Waqf administration. ● The portal will create a digital inventory of Waqf assets with geo-tagging, enable transparent leasing and usage tracking, integrate GIS and e-governance tools, ensure online grievance redressal, and provide public access to verified records. ● The registration on the UMEED portal is a three-step process, with the first being undertaken by mutawallis (caretaker) of properties, while the second was undertaken by Waqf Board officials, and the final and third one being done by Waqf Board CEOs. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: Only 2.16 lakh Waqf properties out of a total of 8 lakh have been registered on the UMEED website, as per the recent data revealed as Waqf Board officials prepare to approach tribunals.”
20,”Which one of the following statements best describes the INTERPOL Red Notice? (a) It is an international arrest warrant issued that legally obliges all member countries to arrest the individual. (b) It is a request circulated to collect additional information about a person’s identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation. (c) It is a request circulated to warn member countries about a person who has committed criminal acts and is likely to repeat these crimes in other countries. (d) A request to law enforcement agencies worldwide to locate and provisionally arrest a person pending extradition.”
20,d,”A INTERPOL Red Notice is a request to law enforcement worldwide to locate and provisionally arrest a person pending extradition, surrender, or similar legal action. It is based on an arrest warrant or court order issued by the judicial authorities in the requesting country. Member countries apply their own laws in deciding whether to arrest a person. ● It contains two main types of information: ○ Information to identify the wanted person, such as their name, date of birth, nationality, hair and eye colour, photographs and fingerprints if available. ○ Information related to the crime they are wanted for, which can typically be murder, rape, child abuse or armed robbery. ● Red Notices are published by INTERPOL at the request of a member country, and must comply with INTERPOL’s Constitution and Rules. ● The Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) in India works with INTERPOL to combat organized wildlife crime, using INTERPOL Red Notices to track and arrest international traffickers. WCCB is a statutory body under India’s Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, established to fight organized wildlife crime. ● WCCB, via India’s Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) (India’s National Central Bureau for INTERPOL), requests Red Notices for major traffickers. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box Blue Notice: ● It is issued by INTERPOL to collect additional information about a person’s identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation. ● It is not an arrest request. ● It helps law enforcement agencies trace, identify, or monitor the movements of suspects, witnesses, or persons of interest whose whereabouts are unknown. Green Notice: ● It is issued to warn member countries about a person who has committed criminal acts and is likely to repeat these crimes in other countries. ● It acts as an early warning system to prevent future offences by sharing information about dangerous individuals. Relevance: Recently, the Madhya Pradesh State Tiger Strike Force (MP STSF), in a coordinated operation with the Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB), has successfully apprehended an international wildlife offender wanted under an INTERPOL Red Notice.”
21,”The Afar region, recently seen in the news, is located in: (a) Middle East Asia (b) Eastern Africa (c) South America (d) South East Asia”
21,b,”The Afar Region is part of Eastern Africa and is located in the northeastern part of Ethiopia where the Red Sea meets the Gulf of Aden. This region includes the Afar (Danakil) Depression, a hot, arid area with salty lakes, volcanic chains, and desert scrubland, while the southern part is shaped by the Awash River valley. ● Its global importance lies in its tectonic setting; it sits at a rare triple junction where the Red Sea Rift, the Gulf of Aden Rift, and the East African Rift meet. ● Due to continuous volcanic activity, deep rift valleys, and widening fissures, the Earth’s crust here is slowly pulling apart. This makes Afar a natural laboratory for scientists to study continental break-up and the early stages of ocean formation. ● Additionally, the region is famous for early human fossils, including Lucy (Australopithecus afarensis), highlighting its significance in both geology and human evolution. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: Scientists predict that Africa’s Afar region could become Earth’s next ocean basin.”
22,”Consider the following statements: Statement I: The Arabian Sea Mini Warm Pool (MWP) helps the Indian summer monsoon resist El Niño’s disruption. Statement II: MWP enhances local convection and creates low pressure that draws monsoon winds towards the Kerala coast. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct”
22,a,”The Indian Summer Monsoon is strongly influenced by large-scale ocean–atmosphere interactions, particularly those linked to El Niño. El Niño events in the Pacific Ocean often weaken and delay the monsoon by altering global circulation patterns. However, recent research highlights the important role of a regional oceanic feature — the Arabian Sea Mini Warm Pool (MWP) — in moderating this disruption. ● The Mini Warm Pool forms every year during April–May in the southeastern Arabian Sea near the Kerala coast, where sea surface temperatures frequently exceed 30°C. This localized warming enhances atmospheric convection and lowers surface pressure, helping attract southwesterly monsoon winds towards the Indian coast and supporting timely monsoon onset. So, statement I is correct. ○ The strength of the MWP is closely linked to the Indian Ocean Capacitor Effect. After an El Niño peaks in the Pacific during winter, the Indian Ocean responds with a delay of several months. Anomalous easterly winds associated with this capacitor effect weaken surface winds over the southeastern Arabian Sea, reducing evaporative cooling and allowing heat to accumulate. This intensifies the MWP just before the monsoon season. ● While El Niño tends to delay the monsoon by weakening large-scale circulation, the strengthened MWP acts as a regional balancing mechanism by enhancing local convection and partially offsetting the delay. Climate model simulations show that without this warm pool, monsoon onset over Kerala could be significantly later. Thus, the Arabian Sea Mini Warm Pool functions as a crucial stabilising element in the monsoon system, improving the resilience of the Indian monsoon to El Niño-induced disturbances. So, statement II is correct. So, both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box ● The Indian Ocean Capacitor Effect refers to the delayed response of the Indian Ocean to an El Niño event in the Pacific Ocean. When El Niño peaks during November–January, it alters global atmospheric circulation, but the Indian Ocean does not warm immediately. Instead, it stores this climatic influence and releases it several months later, typically during April–May, much like an electrical capacitor that stores and discharges energy. ● After El Niño, anomalous easterly winds develop over the equatorial Indian Ocean. These winds weaken the usual surface winds, reducing evaporation and surface cooling. As a result, sea surface temperatures across the Indian Ocean increase, particularly in regions like the southeastern Arabian Sea. This delayed warming influences atmospheric convection and regional circulation patterns just before the Indian Summer Monsoon. ● The capacitor effect is important because it helps explain how a Pacific Ocean phenomenon can shape climate conditions over the Indian Ocean months later. In the context of the Indian monsoon, this stored heat can strengthen features such as the Arabian Sea Mini Warm Pool, enhancing local convection and partially offsetting the monsoon-delaying impact of El Niño. Relevance: Recent research found that a warm pool helps the monsoon resist El Niño’s disruption.”
23,”Which of the following are the most likely impacts of reduction in Repo rate in India? I. It tends to encourage household spending and business investment. II. It may draw foreign capital thereby strengthening the rupee. III. It can potentially lead to inflationary pressures. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) I and II only (b) I, II and III (c) I and III only (d) II and III only”
23,c,”The repo rate is the interest rate at which the Reserve Bank of India lends short-term funds to commercial banks against government securities. ● When the Reserve Bank of India reduces the repo rate, banks can borrow money at a lower cost. This usually leads to lower interest rates on loans for homes, vehicles, and businesses. As borrowing becomes cheaper, households are more willing to spend, and businesses are more likely to invest in expansion and new projects. So, statement I is correct. ● When the repo rate decreases, it becomes cheaper for banks to borrow money from the central bank, leading to lower interest rates on loans for consumers and businesses. Foreign investors generally prefer higher interest rates for better returns, so a rate cut may reduce capital inflows rather than attract them. Strengthening of the rupee is more commonly associated with higher interest rates. So, statement II is not correct. ● Lower interest rates increase spending and demand in the economy. If this demand grows faster than the supply of goods and services, it can create inflationary pressures. Therefore, while repo rate cuts support growth, they must be balanced carefully to keep inflation under control. So, statement III is correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) reduced the repo rate to 5.25% while maintaining a neutral stance.”
24,”With reference to the Central Information Commission (CIC), consider the following statements: I. It is a constitutional body, responsible for implementing and enforcing the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005. II. The Chief Information Commissioner holds office for a term of five years. III. The members are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee headed by the Prime Minister. IV. The Chief Information Commissioner can be removed on the same ground and in the same manner as the judge of the Supreme Court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I, III and IV only (b) III only (c) I and II only (d) II, III and IV only”
24,b,”The Central Information Commission (CIC) is the apex body responsible for implementing and enforcing the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005. It hears appeals and complaints related to denial or misuse of information by public authorities at the central level and plays a key role in promoting transparency and accountability in governance. ● The Central Information Commission is a statutory body, not a constitutional body. It was established under the RTI Act, 2005, and its powers, functions, and structure are defined by this law, not by the Constitution of India. So, statement I is not correct. ● As per the RTI Rules, notified after the RTI (Amendment) Act, 2019, the tenure of the Chief Information Commissioner is three years or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. So, statement II is not correct. ● The Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners are appointed by the President of India based on the recommendations of a selection committee. This committee is chaired by the Prime Minister and includes the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. So, statement III is correct. ● The President has the authority to remove the Chief Information Commissioner or any Information Commissioner under specific conditions, including: ○ if the individual is declared insolvent; ○ if convicted of an offense involving moral turpitude, as deemed by the President; ○ if the individual engages in paid employment outside the duties of their office; ○ if, in the President’s opinion, they are unfit to continue due to mental or physical infirmity; ○ if they acquire a financial or other interest that negatively affects their official duties. ● Additionally, removal can occur on grounds of proven misbehavior or incapacity. In such cases, the President must refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an inquiry. If the Supreme Court, after investigation, confirms the cause of removal and advises it, the President can then remove the concerned individual. However this is not similar to removal of Supreme Court judges where the removal requires the passage of motion in the parliament by special majority. So, statement IV is not correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, former Justice Secretary Raj Kumar Goyal took oath as Chief Information Commissioner.”
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