ca 3 Flashcards

Question

25,"With reference to Polycyclic Aromatic Hydrocarbons (PAHs), consider the following statements: I. They are formed through incomplete combustion of organic materials. II. They constitute about one fifth of all carbon in interstellar space. III. They have high solubility in water. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I and II only (b) I and III only (c) III only (d) I, II and III"

Answer 1

25,a,"Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs) are flat, ring-shaped molecules composed of carbon and hydrogen atoms. Their stability and structure have led to hypotheses that meteors carrying PAHs might have delivered the essential building blocks of life to the early Earth, highlighting their importance in astrobiology. On Earth, PAHs commonly form through incomplete combustion or pyrolysis of organic materials such as fossil fuels and biomass. These hydrocarbons are chemically reactive; when they interact with other particles or absorb high-energy radiation, their internal energy can exceed the strength of their weakest chemical bonds, which can lead to their breakdown or transformation. So, statement I is correct. PAHs are estimated by astronomers to make up about one-fifth of all the carbon present in interstellar space. This significant proportion underscores their widespread presence and importance in the cosmic environment, contributing to the complex chemistry of the universe. So, statement II is correct. PAHs exhibit relatively low solubility in water due to their hydrophobic nature, but they are highly lipophilic, which means they have a strong affinity for fats and oils, and are readily soluble in most organic solvent. So, statement III is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: There is a hypothesis that meteors brought Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs) from space to young earth and created the first building blocks of life."

Answer 2

26,d,"Maratha Military Landscapes is an extraordinary network of twelve forts that demonstrates the strategic military vision and architectural ingenuity of the Maratha Empire spread across the states of Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu, the selected sites, include Salher, Shivneri, Lohgad, Khanderi, Raigad, Rajgad, Pratapgad, Suvarnadurg, Panhala, Vijaydurg, and Sindhudurg in Maharashtra. So, point I is correct. Gingee Fort is located in Tamil Nadu. So, point IV is correct. Spanning from the 17th to 19th centuries CE, this recently inscribed UNESCO World Heritage Site is located across a range of diverse terrains—from coastal outposts to hilltop strongholds. Salher, Shivneri, Lohgad, Raigad, Rajgad, and Gingee are situated in hilly terrains and are therefore known as hill forts. Pratapgad, nestled within dense woods, is classified as a hill-forest fort. Panhala, located on a plateaued hill, is a hill-plateau fort. Vijaydurg, positioned along the shoreline, is a notable coastal fort. Khanderi, Suvarnadurg, and Sindhudurg, surrounded by the sea, are recognized as island forts. The forts are however not spread across Gujarat and Karnataka. So, points II and III are not correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, ‘Maratha Military Landscapes of India’ got inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List."

Answer 3

27,b,"Patriot Air Defence Missile System: The Phased Array Tracking Radar to Intercept on Target, or Patriot (MIM-104), is a long-range, all-altitude, all-weather air defence system to counter tactical ballistic missiles, cruise missiles and advanced aircraft. It is produced by Raytheon in Massachusetts and Lockheed Martin Missiles and Fire Control in Florida, US. So, pair I is correctly matched. Javelin Missile: It is an Anti-Tank Guided Missile is an American-made, man-portable, fire-and-forget weapon system designed to destroy tanks and armored vehicles with high precision. It is developed and produced jointly by American defence majors Raytheon and Lockheed Martin. It has an effective range of 2.5 km, with newer models reportedly capable of reaching up to 4 kilometers. It uses “fire-and-forget” technology to guide itself to the target without external commands or target designation. So, pair II is not correctly matched. David’s Sling: It is an Israeli medium-range air defense system designed to defeat short-range ballistic missiles, large-caliber rockets, and cruise missiles. Co-developed with the United States, it occupies the middle part of Israel’s sophisticated and multi-layer air-defense network, between the point-defense Iron Dome and upper-tier Arrow systems. So, pair III is correctly matched. So, only two of the pairs given above are correctly matched. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: India has recently submitted a letter of request to the United States for co-production of Javelin anti-tank guided missiles (ATGMs) in the country."

Answer 4

28,c,"Arboviral disease is a general term used to describe infections caused by a group of viruses spread to people by the bite of infected arthropods (insects) such as mosquitoes and ticks. These infections usually occur during warm weather months, when mosquitoes and ticks are active. The examples of this disease include California encephalitis, Chikungunya, dengue, Eastern equine encephalitis, Powassan, St. Louis encephalitis, West Nile, Yellow Fever, and Zika. So, points I, II and IV are correct. Infected mosquitoes are the most common type of arthropods that spread diseases. Fortunately, only some types of mosquitoes are able to spread disease and only a small number of those mosquitoes will actually carry a virus at any one time. Some arboviral infections, such as Powassan encephalitis, may be spread by the bite of infected ticks. Arboviral infections may also spread by blood transfusion, organ transplantation, sexual contact, and from mother to child during birth depending on the specific virus involved. Rabies is primarily transmitted through the bite of an infected mammal. Rabies is caused by the rabies virus, a type of rhabdovirus, and is a zoonotic disease, meaning it can be transmitted from animals to humans. So, point III is not correct. So, only three of the above are Arboviral diseases. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: The World Health Organization (WHO) has recently released the Integrated Guidelines on the Clinical Management of Arboviral Diseases."

Answer 5

29,c,"Ecotourism is responsible travel to natural areas that conserves the environment and improves the well-being of local people. The National Strategy for Ecotourism aims to position India as a preferred destination for Ecotourism globally. Its mission is to develop an enabling ecosystem for the growth of Ecotourism in the Country and create synergies amongst the Central and State Governments, Local communities, conservation NGOs and the private sector for the development of Ecotourism in the country. In order to regulate and encourage planned development of areas in and around protected areas, the Ministry of Forest, Environment and Climate Change has recently notified “Ecotourism guidelines in and around Protected Areas 2021”. These guidelines are based on the key recommendations of the Tiger Task Force (2005), provisions contained in the Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972, Scheduled Tribes and Other Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act 2006. So, statement I is correct. The Ministry of Tourism will designate the National Nodal Agency to support the Ministry of Tourism in coordinating and evolving strategy and actionable plans and schemes for promotion and development of Ecotourism in the Country. So, statement II is correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: Environmentalists recently expressed serious concern over the approval of an eco-tourism resort within the Mhadei Wildlife Sanctuary."

Answer 6

30,a,"The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are home to several indigenous tribes. The tribes have unique cultural practices and have lived on the islands for thousands of years. Great Andamanese, Onge, Jarawa and Sentinelese are considered Negrito peoples. So, points I, II and III are not correct. Shompen and Nicobarese are of Mongoloid origin. So, points IV and V are correct. Shompens: They are one of the most isolated tribes on Earth. They are one of the least studied Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India. They reside in dense tropical rain forests of the Great Nicobar Island of Andaman and Nicobar group of Islands. Around 95% of the island is covered in rainforest. Nicobarese: The shimmering waters of the Nicobar archipelago is home to the vibrant Nicobarese community. These Mongoloid tribes have entrenched themselves predominantly across the Nicobar Islands, with a lifestyle deeply rooted in agri-horticulture, pig rearing, and fishing. Their lush green surroundings allow them to cultivate coconuts, pandanus, areca nut palms, and an assortment of fruits, creating a monetary lifeline. So, only two of the above indigenous tribes of Andaman and Nicobar Islands are of Mongoloid origin. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: The Government has formally announced that the 16th Census of India will take place in two phases, with the reference dates set as March 1, 2027, for most of the country and October 1, 2026."

Answer 7

31,c,"Zimislecel Therapy is a new allogeneic stem cell-derived islet cell therapy in which islet cells are infused into the liver. The pancreas contains clusters of cells that produce hormones. These clusters are known as islets. Scientists made zimislecel by growing islets from pluripotent stem cells in the lab. These are matured into functioning islets and infused into the hepatic portal vein. These islet cells are infused into the hepatic portal vein, where they can establish themselves in the liver and begin to produce insulin endogenously, thereby helping to regulate blood glucose levels more effectively. Zimislecel has the potential to restore the body’s ability to regulate glucose levels by restoring pancreatic islet cell function, including glucose-responsive insulin production. These lab-grown cells began producing insulin again, improving blood sugar control, preventing dangerous lows, and, in most cases, eliminating the need for insulin. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, a small clinical trial, published in The New England Journal of Medicine, tested a therapy called zimislecel."

Answer 8

32,b,"The European Free Trade Association (EFTA) is an intergovernmental organisation of Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway and Switzerland established in 1960 by the Stockholm Convention. Its main objective is to promote free trade and economic integration between its members within Europe and globally. So, statement II is correct. In contrast to the European Union (EU), EFTA is not a customs union. This means that the individual EFTA States are free to set their own customs tariffs and arrange other foreign trade measures vis-à-vis the non-EFTA States. So, statement I is not correct. India has officially ratified the TEPA with the EFTA recently. So, statement III is correct. The TEPA, the negotiations for which began in 2008, includes 100% market access to Indian non-agricultural products and concessions on processed agricultural products (PAP), while keeping primary agricultural products out of the ambit of the pact. EFTA will eliminate or reduce import tariffs on 99.6% of India’s exports. India will eliminate or reduce import tariffs on 95.3% of the exports from EFTA nations. However, the effective duty on gold, which forms 80% of exports from EFTA countries, remains untouched at 15%. The trade pact also has provisions for mutual recognition agreements in professional services like nursing, chartered accountants, and architects, among others. This should allow these professionals from India to have more opportunities in the four EFTA bloc countries. On intellectual property rights, the two sides agreed to follow the high standards of the Trade-Related Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) agreement. India’s interests in generic medicines and concerns related to the evergreening of patents have been fully addressed. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: The free trade agreement between India and the four-nation European bloc EFTA would be implemented from October 1, 2025."

Answer 9

33,a,"The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) is an initiative by the Indian government to assess and rank higher education institutions in the country. It was launched in 2015 by the Ministry of Education. So, statement I is correct. It outlines a methodology to rank institutions across the country on the basis of defined parameters including: Teaching, Learning and Resources; Research and Professional Practices; Graduation Outcomes; Outreach and Inclusivity; Perception. Each institute and university is evaluated and assessed every year, and the NIRF rank is updated annually. Every year the Ministry releases NIRF rankings in different categories, including- Overall Ranking, University Ranking, Engineering Ranking, College Ranking, Management Ranking, Pharmacy Ranking, Law Ranking, Agriculture and Allied Sectors, Architecture Ranking, Medical Ranking, Dental and Research Institutions. Hence, the NIRF is applicable to both medical colleges and law colleges in India. So, statement II is not correct. Accreditation is a one-time (5 year) event. Accredited Institutions can slip in their yearly performance. Stakeholders are interested in knowing whether the institution is doing better or worse at the end of each year. Ranking is an Annual Report Card to the Nation and to the stakeholders on what has been done by the institution in the last one year, on the given performance. Very few institutions have got the accreditation, whereas ranking is open to all. It is due to this reason that across the Country, there is both accreditation and ranking. The institutions can slip or do better after they get their accreditation. Ranking is a reflection of the yearly performance. So, statement III is correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: In a first, starting 2025, the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) will award negative scores to higher educational institutions."

Answer 10

34,d,"Secularism is a political idea which in a traditional sense entails the separation of religion from the political aspects of governance. In the Constitutional principles of the Republic of India, Secularism is taken in a positive aspect, incorporating the key Concept of Principled Distance. This concept entails that a secular state may keep a principled distance from religion to promote peace between communities and it may also intervene to protect rights of specific communities. The word ‘Secular’ was not originally present in the Preamble of the Constitution as adopted on 26th January 1950. It was inserted into the Preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. So, statement I is not correct. The Supreme Court, through its landmark Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) and subsequent judgments, has held secularism to be a part of the Basic Structure Doctrine, meaning it cannot be amended or abrogated by Parliament. So, statement II is correct. As per Article 51A(e) under Part IVA of the Constitution, it is a Fundamental Duty of every citizen “to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women” But the upholding of secular ideals is not mentioned explicitly in the Part IVA. So, statement III is not correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Relevance: The Vice President of India recently made a comment that the addition of the word Secular in Preamble was inappropriate and undemocratic."

Answer 11

35,c,"The Preah Vihear Temple is a Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Shiva, located atop a cliff in the Dângrêk Mountains, near the border between Thailand and Cambodia. Although geographically situated in Cambodia, the temple has long been the subject of a territorial dispute due to its proximity to the Thai border. The temple consists of five gopuras (gateways) linked by a series of stairways and corridors with several basins, and reservoirs. Shiva’s vehicle–the bull, popularly known as Nandi, is found facing the entrance of the temple. Apart from the temple complex, there are other archaeological sites that are related to the temple but are situated in Thailand. These include Sa Trao, an ancient reservoir, and a small bas-relief engraved on natural sandstone depicting a Shiva Lingam enclosed within a Yoni Base. The International Court of Justice (ICJ) ruled in 1962 that the temple lies in Cambodia, but disputes continued over the surrounding territory, resulting in military skirmishes as recently as 2008–2011. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: Constitutional Court in Thailand has suspended its PM over the controversy regarding the recent border conflict."

Answer 12

36,a,"Madden Julian Oscillation (MJO) is an eastward propagating convective system of winds that passes over the Indian and Pacific Oceans. The MJO is the eastward moving ‘pulse’ of cloud and rainfall near the equator that typically recurs every 30 to 60 days. So, statement I is correct. The MJO consists of two parts or phases: one is the enhanced rainfall (or active) phase and the other is the suppressed rainfall phase. Strong MJO activity often dissects the planet into halves: one half within the enhanced convective phase and the other half in the suppressed convective phase. These two phases produce opposite changes in clouds and rainfall and this entire dipole (i.e., having two main opposing centers of action) propagates eastward. When MJO in its active phase lies over the Indian Ocean during the Monsoon season, it brings good rainfall over the Indian subcontinent. On the other hand, when it witnesses a longer cycle and stays over the Pacific Ocean, MJO suppresses the Indian Monsoon. So, statement II is not correct. As MJO recurs every 30 to 60 days, there can be multiple MJO events within a season, and so the MJO is best described as intraseasonal tropical climate variability (i.e., varies on a week-to-week basis). During the four-month monsoon season, India typically experiences 3 to 4 MJO events, each lasting several days to a couple of weeks. So, statement III is correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: The early onset and progression of monsoon over the subcontinent this year is being attributed to the active phase of MJO."

Answer 13

37,a,"Rare-earth magnets are permanent magnets composed of alloys of rare-earth elements. A rare-earth magnet has a much higher performance than ceramic magnets and alnico magnets examples include Neodymium (NdFeB) and Samarium Cobalt (SmCo) magnets. Regular magnets are made of ceramic (or ferrite) composed mainly of iron(III) oxide. In terms of power, a rare earth magnet is about two to seven times stronger than a standard magnet. A ferrite or ceramic magnet usually creates a weak magnetic field output, while a similarly sized rare earth magnet generates a magnetic field that is much stronger in output. So, statement I is correct. Demagnetization is the process of removing or reducing the magnetic properties of a material. This can be achieved through various methods, including heating, applying a strong alternating magnetic field, or subjecting the material to physical shocks like hammering. This process is used to eliminate unwanted magnetism from objects or to reduce the strength of a magnet. Rare-earth magnets are highly resistant to demagnetization. They retain their magnetic strength for a long period, making them superior to ferrite magnets, which are relatively easier to demagnetise. So, statement II is not correct. While rare-earth magnets possess some advantages, there are a few disadvantages, including rust and/or corrosion in NdFeB. In the presence of moisture, oxidation can occur, resulting in corrosion and other types of damage. To prevent metal corrosion in rare-earth magnets, some manufacturers have begun additionally covering them with stainless steel protection. Metallic coatings do not interfere with a magnet's magnetic field, but they do help protect the magnet against corrosion. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: The QUAD has decided to establish and secure a critical minerals supply chain with special focus on Rare Earth Magnets."

Answer 14

38,b,"The olive ridley gets its name from the olive green color of its heart-shaped shell. This species is among the smallest, but the most widespread and abundant of the world’s sea turtles. Olive ridleys are omnivorous, meaning they feed on a wide variety of food items, including algae, crustaceans, tunicates, and mollusks. So, statement I is not correct. These turtles are essentially pelagic that is they prefer to live in open seas, they are one of the efficient divers of the animal kingdom, that is why despite living on the surface waters they typically feed on benthic invertebrates found on the ocean floor, making them facilitatory bottom feeders, and an instrument of nutrient cycling. Their diet includes organisms like crabs and mollusks that reside at the bottom. So, statement II is correct. Olive ridleys have two nesting strategies, solitary or mass nesting (arribada). An arribada refers to the phenomenon of synchronized mass nesting of thousands, if not tens of thousands, of olive ridleys. So, statement III is correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: The MoEFCC had deferred forest land nod for the construction of Puri airport, citing concerns for Olive Ridley turtles."

Answer 15

39,d,"Chloropicrin is a chemical compound used broadly as a fungicide, herbicide, insecticide, nematicide and antimicrobial. In appearance, it is a colorless to yellow oily liquid. It is an irritant with characteristics of a tear gas. It has an intensely irritating odor, and can be absorbed through inhalation, ingestion, and the skin. It was used in large quantities during World War I and was stockpiled during the war. The chemical is now banned and is covered under the Organization for Prevention of Chemical Weapon (OPCW) mandate. The compound was recently reported in the context of the Russia-Ukraine conflict, where its alleged use raised concerns over the violation of international chemical weapons norms. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Relevance: The US Government has accused Russia to have used chloropicrin on Ukrainian troops."

Answer 16

40,b,"Elephants are the largest land mammals, inhabiting both the woodland and grassland ecosystem. As of now there are only two substantial populations left in the world – Asian elephant and the African elephant, as the forests in Asia are more woody than the African Savannahs there are morphological differences seen in both these varieties. Elephant’s ears are used to dissipate their body heat, African elephants need bigger ears because they live in warmer climates than Asian elephants. The shape of their ears is also different. Asian elephants have small, round ears. African elephants have ears that resemble the shape of the continent of Africa. So, statement I is not correct. African elephants have rounded heads, while Asian elephants have twin-domed heads, which means there’s a divot line running up the head. African elephants have two triangular protrusions at the end of their trunks. These protrusions act as fingers, helping African elephants pinch and pick up objects. Asian elephants have just one trunk ‘finger’. This is why they tend to grasp objects with their whole trunk, rather than just the tip of their trunk. So, Statement II is correct. African elephants also have more whiskers on the tips of their trunks than Asian elephants. Scientists think that whiskers help the elephants feel objects in their environment, meaning African elephants have a more sensitive trunk than Asian elephants. The skin of African elephants is more wrinkled and loose compared to Asian elephants, which typically have smoother and tighter skin. The wrinkles help retain moisture and regulate temperature in the hot African climate. So, Statement III is not correct. Only some male Asian elephants have tusks, while both male and female African elephants grow tusks. Also, the ears of Asian elephants are smaller compared to the large fan-shaped ears of the African elephants. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change have asked the Wildlife Institute of India to redo its report over Project Elephant for technical discrepancies, foremost being the use of the image of African Elephant on the cover amongst others."

Answer 17

41,c,"The Gulf of Aden is a deep water gulf of the Indian Ocean. It is a narrow waterbody located between the Arabian Peninsula and the Horn of Africa. It is a vital maritime route connecting the Red Sea to the Arabian Sea through the Bab el-Mandeb Strait. The region holds strategic significance for international trade, especially oil shipments. Djibouti is located on the northwestern coast of the Gulf of Aden in the Horn of Africa. It lies near the Bab-el-Mandeb Strait, which connects the Gulf of Aden to the Red Sea. So, point I is correct. Yemen lies on the northern coast of the Gulf of Aden, forming a key part of the Arabian Peninsula’s interface with the Gulf. So, point III is correct. Somalia borders the southern coast of the Gulf of Aden. The country’s strategic location along this waterbody makes it important for maritime trade and security. So, point IV is correct. Ethiopia is a landlocked country and does not have a coastline bordering the Gulf of Aden, though it is located in close proximity to the region. So, point II is not correct. Saudi Arabia does not border the Gulf of Aden; it borders the Red Sea and the Persian Gulf. So, point V is not correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: UK Maritime agency have reported that a ship was attacked in the Gulf of Aden off the coast of Yemen."

Answer 18

42,a,"The Three Language Formula under the National Education Policy (NEP), 2020 recommends that students learn three languages, at least two of which must be native to India. This formula applies to both government and private schools, giving states the flexibility to choose languages without any imposition. The policy states that the three languages learned by children will be the choices of states, regions, and of course, the students themselves, so long as at least two of the three languages are native to India, the NEP 2020 explicitly states that it provides flexibility in the Three Language Formula, and that no language will be imposed on any State. So, statement I is correct. The earlier proposed Three Language Formula, such as that by the Kothari Commission (subsequently made part of NEP, 1968) propounded that the formula included three languages — mother tongue or regional language, official language (that is Hindi and a modern Indian or European language, with Hindi speaking states being mandated to opt for a South Indian language as the third language. But in the current version as given in NEP 2020, there is no mandatory requirement for Hindi-speaking states to opt for a South Indian language as the third language. So, statement II is not correct. The NEP 2020 is a policy document, not a legally binding statute, and thus implementation is not mandatory or uniform across all schools. States have the discretion to adopt or modify it. So, Statement III is not correct. So, only one of the above given statements is correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: The recent decision of the Maharashtra State Government to introduce the three language formula with Hindi as the third language has led to a massive political outburst across the country."

Answer 19

43,b,"The Nicobar megapode (Megapodius nicobariensis) is a rare ground-nesting bird with large feet (hence the name ""megapode""). This fowl-like bird has dark brown plumage, a short tail with twelve feathers, and large feet with strong claws. Its bare tarsus has flat, strip-like scales, and the hind toe aligns with the front toes, aiding in grasping. The head is grey with a rufous crest and reddish facial skin. Males are darker overall, while females have greyer underparts. Unlike most birds, Nicobar megapodes do not sit on eggs to incubate. They build large mounds of soil and vegetation to incubate their eggs, relying on the heat generated by decomposition to hatch the eggs. Hence this animal is commonly known as the “thermometer bird”. Their active nesting mounds can reach up to 10 cubic metres, an impressive size given the small stature of the birds themselves. Heat for egg incubation is generated through microbial activity within the organic material of the mound, consistently maintaining a temperature of around 33°C. The chicks hatch fully feathered and are capable of immediate flight, reducing the need for parental care. They prefer dense forest habitats that are usually found near the shoreline. This species is isolated from other megapodes found in Southeast Asia and the Pacific areas. It is India’s only megapode species and is endemic to the Nicobar Islands. The Galathea Bay wildlife sanctuary is a hotspot with seven active nesting mounds. It is Vulnerable (IUCN) under IUCN and Protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box: The Great Nicobar Island Development Project: It is a ₹72,000 crore strategic initiative covering 16,610 hectares, implemented by the Andaman and Nicobar Islands Integrated Development Corporation (ANIIDCO). Aimed at leveraging the island’s location near the Malacca Strait, the project includes the development of an International Container Transhipment Terminal (ICTT), a greenfield international airport with dual civil-military use, two greenfield townships, a coastal mass rapid transport system, and free trade zones. It also involves setting up a 450 MVA gas and solar-based power plant. The Great Nicobar project poses a significant threat to numerous endangered and endemic species on the island, including the Nicobar megapode, Nicobar crab-eating macaque, and various reptiles and amphibians. Relevance: Government has submitted a panel report for the Great Nicobar Project to NGT, which mentions specific allocation of funds for the conservation of Nicobar megapode."

Answer 20

44,d,"The Simonyi Survey Telescope is a powerful new telescope built in Chile. It’s part of the Vera C. Rubin Observatory and is designed to take huge pictures of the sky every night, like a camera that watches space. It can observe an area of space equivalent to 40 full moons arranged in one line. The Simonyi Survey Telescope uses a unique three-mirror design (Paul–Baker system), including a combined primary-tertiary mirror and a secondary mirror. This setup allows for a very wide field of view (~3.5 degrees), enabling the telescope to capture a vast area of the sky in a single exposure. So, statement I is correct. The LSST Camera has six optical filters (u, g, r, i, z, y), which cover different bands of the electromagnetic spectrum, helping it to filter lights belonging to different parts of the electromagnetic spectrum. This will help astronomers gather information about various celestial objects based on the type of light they emit. For instance, young and hot stars emit ultraviolet light, whereas faint and distant red galaxies appear in infrared light. So, statement II is correct. The telescope is designed to slew (reposition) rapidly, taking just a few seconds to move from one part of the sky to another. This rapid slew capability is crucial for monitoring transient events and conducting real-time sky surveys. So, statement III is correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer."

Answer 21

45,a,"Carrying capacity is the maximum number of people, animals, or plants that an environment can support in a healthy and sustainable way—without damaging natural resources or the environment. The carrying capacity of an ecosystem depends on several key factors. It is shaped by the availability of basic resources like food, water, shelter, and space. It also takes into account the climate and overall environmental conditions, as well as the ecosystem’s natural ability to regenerate and renew these resources over time. When the number of individuals in an area exceeds this limit, the environment starts to suffer. There may be a shortage of resources, leading to increased competition, the spread of diseases, and eventually, a decline in the population due to the unsustainable pressure on the ecosystem. Importantly, carrying capacity is not fixed. It can change over time, especially due to climate change, habitat destruction, or a reduction in the availability of natural resources. These changes can lower the ecosystem’s ability to support life, making it even more vulnerable to stress and imbalance. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: The State of Uttarakhand has decided to study the carrying capacity of its cities."

Answer 22

46,a,"The International Criminal Court is a permanent international court established to investigate, prosecute and try individuals accused of committing the most serious crimes of concern to the international community as a whole. The International Criminal Court is an independent body established by the Rome Statute adopted in 1998. It is not a part of the UN group of institutions. So, statement I is not correct. The Six Charter Organs of the United Nations (as per the UN Charter) are General Assembly, Security Council, Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC), International Court of Justice (ICJ), Secretariat, Trusteeship Council. It is the court of last resort for the prosecution of serious international crimes, including genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity. It operates as an independent institution, with the authority to prosecute individuals for crimes under its jurisdiction without requiring a special mandate from the United Nations. However, the UN Security Council can refer cases to the ICC even from non-member states or defer investigations under Article 16 of the Rome Statute. So, Statement II is correct. The ICC tries individuals and not States. It is different from the International Court of Justice, which is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations for the settlement of disputes between States. The ICC is an independent body whose mission is to try individuals for crimes within its jurisdiction without the need for a special mandate from the United Nations. So, Statement III is not correct. The headquarters of the Court is in The Hague in the Netherlands. The Rome Statute provides that the Court may sit elsewhere whenever the judges consider it desirable. So, only one of the above statements is correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: The ICC has recently issued warrants against top Taliban officials for crimes against women."

Answer 23

47,d,"The Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) is a new instrument introduced by the European Union (EU) to address carbon leakage, a situation where production of goods is shifted to non-EU countries with lower or no carbon costs, thereby undermining global climate efforts. CBAM imposes a tariff on carbon-intensive products imported into the EU. Its primary purpose is to place a fair price on the carbon emissions embedded in the production of such goods, aligning the cost of imported goods with those produced within the EU under its Emissions Trading System (ETS). So, Statement I is not correct. By ensuring that importers pay for the carbon emitted during the manufacturing of goods outside the EU, CBAM helps maintain the competitiveness of EU industries while encouraging cleaner production practices globally. It imposes a financial cost in the form of carbon certificates, which function similarly to a tariff. This mechanism ensures that the carbon price of imports is equivalent to that of domestic products, thereby safeguarding the EU’s climate goals. CBAM’s objective is not to reduce emissions within the EU alone, but to address carbon leakage, a situation where production of goods is shifted to non-EU countries with lower or no carbon costs. CBAM applies to all imports into the EU from non-EU countries, including goods purchased online or received as gifts. So, Statement II is not correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Relevance: The BRICS countries in the recent summit have jointly criticized the CBAM of the EU."

Answer 24

48,d,"A Geographical Indication (GI) is a form of intellectual property that identifies goods as originating from a specific country, region or locality, where their distinctive qualities, characteristics, or reputation are essentially linked to that ‘place of origin’. A geographical indication right enables those who have the right to use the indication to prevent its use by a third party whose product does not conform to the applicable standards. For example, in the jurisdictions in which the Darjeeling geographical indication is protected, producers of Darjeeling tea can exclude use of the term “Darjeeling” for tea not grown in their tea gardens or not produced according to the standards set out in the code of practice for the geographical indication. However, a protected geographical indication does not enable the holder to prevent someone from making a product using the same techniques as those set out in the standards for that indication. Geographical indication rights are territorial. This means that these rights are limited to the country (or region) where protection is granted. So, statement I is correct. A GI tag is granted to an association of persons or producers and is treated as public property belonging to the community of producers from that area. It cannot be assigned, licensed, or transferred to a private individual or company. So, statement II is correct. Geographical Indications are protected under the TRIPS Agreement of the World Trade Organization (WTO), which mandates member countries to provide legal means for protection. India has implemented this through the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999. So, statement III is correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Relevance: The use of a similar design for their designer sandals as the Kolhapuri Chappal, have raised controversy regarding protection by the GI tags."

Answer 25

49,c,"BRICS grouping, originally formed by five growing economies Brazil, Russia, India, China, and later joined by South Africa, has grown into a globally significant group. Its recent expansion and financial mechanisms such as the New Development Bank reflect its evolving role in international geopolitics and development cooperation. The BRICS grouping now consists of 11 members, apart from the original five members the grouping has extended its membership to 6 more countries, these include: Brazil, China, Egypt, Ethiopia, India, Indonesia, Iran. So, point I is correct. Russia, South Africa. So, point II is correct. Saudi Arabia. So, point III is correct. United Arab Emirates. So, point V is correct. Oman is not a member of BRICS grouping. So, only four of the above countries are members of the BRICS grouping. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: The recent BRICS Summit concluded at Rio de Janeiro, Brazil. The leaders of the BRICS countries issued a joint statement to condemn the Pahalgam attack and zero tolerance policy on terrorism."

Answer 26

50,d,"Intelligentized warfare refers to a new form of warfare where Artificial Intelligence (AI) is used not merely for battlefield decision-making but to influence the minds of both the public and policymakers. This includes controlling information environments, shaping public discourse, and modulating decision-making at both strategic and operational levels. It is one of the China’s evolving war strategies. This idea goes beyond conventional warfare. It seeks to gain dominance in the cognitive domain by using AI-powered tools to influence perceptions, sow confusion, or even affect leadership decisions in rival states. It aims at control of the brain—an operational concept that seeks “intelligence dominance” by using AI to subdue the enemy’s will without necessarily resorting to kinetic conflict. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Relevance: A recent research paper has highlighted the increased use of Intelligentized Warfare by China and have raised concerns for internal security."

Answer 27

51,a,"According to the Constitution under Article 341, the President has the authority to specify castes as Scheduled Castes. The President, through public notification, can specify which castes, races, or castes are to be considered SCs in relation to a particular state or union territory, after consultation with the Governor. The Parliament can then make additions or deletions to the list of SCs specified by the President. So, Statement I is correct. It should be noted here that though the recognition of a Scheduled Castes is through a Presidential order, the amendment to the same can only be done by the Parliament. There is a separate list of Scheduled Castes for the Centre as well as States, but any change to either of them can only be done by the President. The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) was established to investigate and monitor matters relating to the safeguards provided for Scheduled Castes. It also participates and advises in the planning of socio-economic development of Scheduled Castes. While recognizing any class of persons as a Scheduled Castes, though it is mandated to render the advice of the National Commission of Scheduled Castes and the Registrar General of India, the recommendations of neither of them are binding on the President. So, Statement II is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: The Nishad community from the State of Uttar Pradesh have demanded the Central Government for the inclusion of community to the list of Scheduled Castes."

Answer 28

52,c,"Global Specs 2030 Initiative launched by the World Health Organisation (WHO) aims to ensure that everyone has access to affordable eyecare services by 2030. The SPECS 2030 initiative spearheads the actions needed for success, focusing on five key areas: Services: Improving access to refractive services; Personnel: Building capacity of eye care personnel; Education: Promoting public awareness about eye health; Cost: Reducing the cost of eyeglasses and services; Surveillance: Strengthening data collection and research. The initiative will focus on 4 key strategies of engagement to support countries and stakeholders. Normative work builds on WHO’s existing technical guidance for eye care and developing additional resources. Global SPECS Network: It provides a platform for relevant organizations to promote collective and coordinated advocacy and action, share experiences, and expand their professional network. It will be convened with relevant private sector actors, including for example the optical, pharmaceutical and technology industries, private sector service providers and insurance companies. Engagement of regions and countries, including a range of activities, will accelerate progress and bridge the gap between global eye care commitments and country implementation. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: The World Health Organisation (WHO) has launched a global initiative called ‘Global Specs 2030’."

Answer 29

53,b,"Mushrooms are fungi, biologically distinct from plant- and animal-derived foods. Trees and mushrooms have a symbiotic relationship in which trees provide a place for the mushrooms to grow and carbohydrates to nourish the fungi. In turn, mushrooms combine their root-like mycelium with trees’ roots, making it easier for the trees to absorb moisture and nutrients from the soil. Fungi feed in a variety of ways and they play several roles in the forest ecosystem. For example, the sycamore mushroom feeds on dead plants in the forest soil, helping to decompose them. Another type, called mycorrhizal fungi, is a type of fungi that works together with plants. The fungi receive carbon-containing “food” from the plants, and the plants get water and minerals from the fungi that is connected to the roots of trees. This relationship between fungi and trees, in which both organisms benefit, is called symbiosis. A partnership between organisms, in which both organisms benefit. Each tree can connect to several species of fungi, and each fungus can connect to several species of trees. In this way, mycorrhizal fungi create a network that allows substances to pass between trees in a forest. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: The health authorities in Australia have issued a generalized warning to the residents regarding the death cap mushrooms."

Answer 30

54,a,"Gavri Festival is a 40-day festival of dance-drama which is performed by the Bhil community of Rajasthan. It is a fusion of act and dance, dedicated to the fight between goddess and demon. This most popular southern Rajasthani ritual reflects the divine perception of the Bhil tribe. It has been known to be in existence since the 3rd or 4th century, it was prevalent in the times of Siddh Raj Jai Singh, a ruler in Gujarat. A vigorous fight between Goddess Amba and Demon Bhiamwal shows the conquest of good over the bad. The original story of ‘Gavri’ is the story of Lord Shiva and the demon Bhasmasur. The artists perform plays in those villages where their married sisters and daughters reside. The purpose behind this custom is to ensure the wellness of their loved ones after marriage and instill in them a sense of pride and security. This dance drama skillfully combines mime and dialogue, known by the names Gavri or Rai Nach. Moreover, energetic background music and colorful costumes makes the place full of verve. Throughout the performance, various scenes are enacted, referred to as Khel. Kutkadiya, a character skillfully narrates the story before each scene, allowing the audience to immerse themselves fully in the play’s narrative. All the characters are played by men and not women. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: In July, like every year, the Bhil community of Mewar embarks on a 40‑day ritual called Gavri."

Answer 31

55,c,"Sudan is a country situated in northeastern Africa. It shares its borders with seven countries. To the north, it is bounded by Egypt, while on the eastern side, it borders Eritrea and Ethiopia. Moving southward, Sudan shares a long boundary with South Sudan, a country that was part of Sudan until its independence in 2011. On the western front, Sudan is flanked by Central African Republic, Chad, and Libya, forming its western and northwestern land connections. So, point I and point III are correct. Although Somalia lies on the eastern side of the African continent, it does not share a direct border with Sudan. The two are geographically separated by Ethiopia and South Sudan, making any land connection between them impossible. So, point II is not correct. Similarly, Kenya shares its northern border with South Sudan, but it does not touch Sudan directly. Hence, while both Somalia and Kenya are part of the broader eastern African region, neither country shares a land boundary with Sudan. So, point IV is not correct. Khartoum, the capital of Sudan, is located in the northeast-central part of the country, at the confluence of the Blue Nile and White Nile rivers. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box: Sudan has a northeastern coastline along the Red Sea, providing it with vital maritime access. Its principal seaport, Port Sudan, functions as a major gateway for international trade. Through the Red Sea and the Suez Canal, Sudan is connected to the Mediterranean Sea, while it also gains indirect access to the Indian Ocean via sea routes that pass around the Arabian Peninsula. The Sudan region is known for violent clashes between Sudanese Armed Forces (SAF) and the Rapid Support Forces (RSF). Operation Kaveri was launched by the Government of India in April 2023 to evacuate Indian nationals from conflict-hit Sudan. Relevance: The United Nations has issued a warning regarding the worsening humanitarian crisis in Sudan."

Answer 32

56,b,"Global Peace Index (GPI): It is the world’s leading measure of global peacefulness. It has been released by the Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP) since 2007. It measures the state of peace across three domains: Societal Safety and Security; Ongoing Domestic and International Conflict and Militarisation. So, pair I is correctly matched. World of Debt Report: It is a report published by the United Nations Trade and Development (UNCTAD). It provides a comprehensive overview of the global debt landscape, especially focusing on developing countries. In 2023, global public debt surged to a record high of $97 trillion, driven primarily by cascading crises and the sluggish and uneven performance of the global economy. So, pair II is not correctly matched. Poverty and Equity Briefs (PEBs): These are published biannually by the World Bank. They offer insights into poverty, shared prosperity, and inequality trends across more than 100 developing countries. These briefs analyse poverty using both national poverty lines and international benchmarks, providing a comprehensive understanding of global poverty dynamics. The World Bank’s Spring 2025 Poverty and Equity Brief commended India and said between 2011–12 and 2022–23, India’s extreme poverty rate fell from 16.2% to 2.3%. So, pair III is not correctly matched. Global Gender Gap Report: It is published annually by the World Economic Forum (WEF). It tracks progress towards gender parity across various countries. It measures gender parity across four key dimensions: Economic Participation and Opportunity, Educational Attainment, Health and Survival, and Political Empowerment. The report measures the gender gap based on scores ranging from 0 to 100. In the 2025 report, India is ranked 131st out of 148 countries, with an overall score of 64.1%. So, pair IV is correctly matched. So, only two of the pairs given above are correctly matched. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer."

Answer 33

57,a,"All edible oils are composed of three primary types of fatty acids: Saturated Fatty Acids (SFA) – considered ""bad fats"", Monounsaturated Fatty Acids (MUFA), and Polyunsaturated Fatty Acids (PUFA) – both regarded as ""good fats"". A high intake of SFAs is associated with elevated levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL), commonly known as bad cholesterol. This can lead to inflammation, reduced insulin sensitivity, blood clot formation, and an increased risk of cardiovascular diseases and type-2 diabetes. Oils that are solid or semi-solid at room temperature—such as palm oil, coconut oil, ghee, butter, and lard—typically have high SFA content. In addition to these natural fatty acids, Trans Fatty Acids (TFA) are artificially produced fatty acids produced during the hydrogenation of vegetable oils. This process converts liquid oils into semi-solid fats, thereby increasing shelf life, but also raises health concerns due to the formation of harmful trans fats. So, statement II is correct. Hydrogenation of oils: It is a widely used industrial process in the food industry, particularly for converting liquid vegetable oils into semi-solid or solid fats. This process not only alters the physical properties of the oil but also affects its chemical composition, including the formation of trans fats. Hydrogenation involves the addition of hydrogen atoms to unsaturated fatty acids in the presence of a metal catalyst (commonly nickel). This process reduces the number of double bonds, converting unsaturated fats into saturated or partially saturated fats, making them more stable. As a result, hydrogenated oils are less prone to oxidation and rancidity, which significantly increases their shelf life—a major reason for their use in processed foods. So, statement I is correct. During partial hydrogenation, some unsaturated fats are not fully saturated but are structurally altered to form trans fatty acids. These trans fats have a longer shelf life and desirable texture for food processing, but they are harmful to human health. Trans fats are linked to increased risk of heart disease, as they raise LDL (bad) cholesterol and lower HDL (good) cholesterol. Because of these health risks, many countries have implemented regulations to limit or ban trans fats in food products. So, both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer."

Answer 34

58,c,"The Bhopal gas tragedy of 1984 is considered one of the world’s worst industrial disasters. The incident occurred at the Union Carbide India Limited (UCIL) pesticide plant in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh. The disaster was caused by the accidental release of Methyl isocyanate (MIC) gas into the atmosphere. MIC is a highly toxic and flammable chemical used in the manufacture of pesticides. Methyl isocyanate is a chemical compound produced by the reaction of methylamine with phosgene, and it has been associated with toxic gas clouds that can cause extreme suffocation due to its presence and the density of materials involved in the reaction. The gas is severely irritating to the eyes, skin and respiratory tract. Corrosive on ingestion, and causes severe respiratory oedema on inhalation. On the night of the incident, water entered a tank containing MIC, triggering an exothermic reaction that led to the release of approximately 40 tons of the gas. The gas spread across nearby residential areas, leading to thousands of immediate deaths and long-term health complications among survivors. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: The waste of Union Carbide factory, from where the gas leak got initiated, was finally disposed of and incinerated recently."

Answer 35

59,a,"An electoral roll in India is a compilation that lists persons who are entitled to vote for particular elections in a particular jurisdiction. As per the Representation of the People (RPA) Act, 1950, the electoral roll for each parliamentary and assembly constituency is prepared assembly constituency-wise, meaning each assembly segment has its own electoral roll. So, statement I is correct. As per the RPA, 1950 it is mandatory to revise electoral rolls before each Lok Sabha and assembly elections. This is done to include newly eligible voters and remove ineligible or deceased individuals. So, statement II is correct. If the electoral roll is not revised the validity or continued operation of the previous electoral roll shall not be affected. Hence, an electoral roll once prepared remains validated as long as its subsequent version is not released. So, statement III is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: The intensive electoral roll revision before the Bihar Assembly Elections have been a source of controversy in recent months."

Answer 36

60,a,"National Financial Reporting Authority is an independent regulatory body established by the Government of India under Section 132(1) of the Companies Act, 2013. So, option (a) is not correct. Its primary role is to oversee and enforce compliance with accounting and auditing standards to improve the credibility, quality, and transparency of financial reporting in India. So, option (b) is correct. It aims to protect the interests of investors, stakeholders, and the public by ensuring high standards in the financial reporting ecosystem. It recommends accounting and auditing policies and standards to be adopted by companies for approval by the Central Government and monitors compliance with accounting standards and auditing standards. NFRA has the power to investigate, either suo moto or on a reference made to it by the Central Government, into the matters of professional or other misconduct committed by any member or firm of chartered accountants registered under the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949. So, option (c) is correct. It has the same powers as are vested in a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, while trying a suit. The jurisdiction of the NFRA for the investigation of Chartered Accountants and their firms would extend to listed companies and large unlisted public companies, the thresholds for which shall be prescribed in the Rules. So, option (d) is correct. Therefore, option (a) is the answer. Relevance: The former Chairman of CBDT, has been recently appointed as the Chairperson of the National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA)."

Answer 37

61,a,"Rupa Tarakasi is a traditional silver filigree craft. The word ""Rupa"" means silver, and ""Tarakasi"" refers to filigree work. It involves intricate designs made using fine silver wires, often used in jewellery, decorative items, and temple ornaments. This craft is known for its delicate and artistic patterns. So, statement I is correct. Rupa Tarakasi is native to Cuttack, Odisha. It has been granted the Geographical Indication (GI) tag for Odisha. So, statement II is not correct. Cuttack is historically renowned for this centuries-old silver filigree art form. It is known to have existed as far back as the 12th century. The art form received considerable patronage under the Mughals. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: Prime Minister of India gifted the first lady of Ghana a rupa tarakashi purse during his state visit to Ghana."

Answer 38

62,a,"Genetically Modified (GM) crops are created by inserting foreign genes (often from bacteria or other species) into the plant's genome to introduce traits such as pest resistance, herbicide tolerance, or enhanced nutrition. So, statement I is correct. As of now, Bt Cotton is the only GM crop approved for commercial cultivation in India. Other GM crops such as GM mustard or Bt brinjal have not yet received final approval for field cultivation. So, statement II is correct. While the import of GM food products in India is regulated and requires prior approval from the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) and the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI), there is no blanket ban on GM food imports. There is concern that some GM foods are entering the market without regulation, which has sparked recent policy debates. So, statement III is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: Import of GM maize into Indian markets has been a major point of contention between India and USA negotiators during the ongoing negotiations for finalizing the trade deal."

Answer 39

63,b,"The Citizenship Act, 1955 governs the criteria for being recognized as an Indian citizen but does not specify any single document as conclusive proof. The authenticity of the Citizenship of India then is established through various Government issued documents and identity cards. Aadhaar Card: It is a biometric-based identity document issued for residents of India. Its primary purpose is to provide the persons living in the country digital ID with a unique identification number. Neither in the Aadhar memorandum, nor in any of the gazette notifications, does Aadhaar is mentioned to be deemed as proof of citizenship. So, point I is not correct. Electoral Photo Identity Card (EPIC): It is a statutory document issued by the Election Commission of India, its primary purpose is to identify the eligible voters in the country. As ruled by the Supreme Court and the High Courts in various judgements, this EPIC can be taken as a proof of citizenship as the form for issuance of the card contains a declaration by the applicant that the applicant is a citizen of India. So, point II is correct. Birth Certificate: It is a statutory document under the Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969 issued by a competent authority, it is a basic document given by the authorities once a child is born. Thus, it lists down the place of birth. For someone who receives this document within Indian boundaries, issued under the Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969, it stands as a valid and primary proof of citizenship. So, point III is correct. Passport: An Indian Passport is issued only to Indian citizens under the Passports Act, 1967. It is thus one of the strongest proofs of Indian citizenship. A valid Indian passport is one of the proofs of citizenship in the country. It allows an Indian national to claim their identity as a citizen of the Republic of India. So, point IV is correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: The Election Commission of India (ECI) pointed out to the Supreme Court that Aadhaar doesn't validate citizenship of any individual."

Answer 40

64,d,"Marking the close refers to a market manipulation tactic where traders buy or sell securities near the end of the trading day—especially during the last few minutes before the market closes—to artificially inflate or deflate the closing price of a stock. It is a market abuse practice that involves manipulating the closing price of a security or financial asset to make a profit or avoid a loss. This practice typically involves executing large trades in a security just before the market closes in order to drive the closing price up or down. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Relevance: Marking the close strategy was allegedly used by trading firm Jane Street to influence stock prices in their favor."

Answer 41

65,c,"Soybean is cultivated as an oilseed in India, the bean is the largest source of protein feed and second-largest source of vegetable oil in the world. Soybean is a leguminous plant that helps in nitrogen fixation in the soil through symbiotic association with rhizobium bacteria. This process improves soil fertility and reduces the need for nitrogenous fertilizers. So, statement I is correct. Soybean is one of the oilseed crops for which the Government of India declares Minimum Support Price (MSP) annually, as part of its effort to promote oilseed production and ensure price support to farmers. So, statement II is correct. Madhya Pradesh is the largest producer of soybean in India, often referred to as the “Soy State” due to its dominant share in national production, followed by Maharashtra and Bihar. So, statement III is not correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: Soybean is a major area where the trade negotiators of USA and India are having contentions in the ongoing trade deal."

Answer 42

66,b,"The World Health Organization (WHO) has launched the “3 by 35” initiative, calling on countries to increase the real prices of tobacco, alcohol, and sugary drinks by at least 50% by the year 2035 through the use of health taxes. The aim is to reduce the burden of Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs) and generate essential public revenue. As part of this initiative, WHO has partnered with a coalition of global organizations that provide technical expertise, policy guidance and practical experience. These partners will support countries in designing and implementing effective health tax policies. Together, they seek to raise awareness about the benefits of such taxes and support national-level actions. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer."

Answer 43

67,d,"Ningaloo Reef is the world's largest fringing reef and another of Australia's UNESCO World Heritage Sites, it is home to a lush oceanic forest that spreads out along the coast for hundreds of kilometres. Ningaloo is hit by a marine heatwave, higher water temperatures have stressed the corals and they've been turning white, in an effect known as 'bleaching'. It is the first time that the reefs on both Australia's western and eastern coasts have been bleached. When water is too warm, corals expel the algae (zooxanthellae) living in their tissues causing the coral to turn completely white. This is called coral bleaching. When a coral bleaches, it is not dead. Corals can survive a bleaching event, but they are under more stress and are subject to mortality. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Relevance: The Ningaloo Reef is hit by marine heatwaves."

Answer 44

68,b,"Military satellites are satellites that are primarily used for military purposes, such as surveillance, reconnaissance, communication, navigation and weather monitoring. They are owned and operated by military organisations, including defence departments, intelligence agencies and other government bodies. Rukmini (GSAT-7) is a dedicated military communication satellite that operates in the UHF, S and Ku bands. It was designed to provide real-time communication between naval ships, submarines, aircraft and ground stations. The satellite has a coverage area of the Indian Ocean Region (IOR) and extends up to 2,000 km from the Indian coastline. So, point I is correct. The Hyperspectral Imaging Satellite (HysIS) is an Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) developed hyperspectral Earth observation minisatellite designed to provide imaging services and insights into Indian agriculture, forestry, coastal zone assessments and other geological environments. So, point II is not correct. GSAT-6 is a dedicated military communication satellite that operates in the S-band frequency. It provides communication capabilities to the Indian armed forces in remote and border areas. So, point III is correct. SARAL, which stands for Satellite with ARgos and ALtiKa, is a joint Indo-French satellite mission focused on oceanographic studies. It primarily measures sea surface elevation and ocean circulation using its advanced altimetry payload, ALTIKa. So, point IV is not correct. Angry Bird (GSAT 7A) is the 1st dedicated communication satellite for the Indian Air Force. Its 30% capacity is currently used by the Indian Army Aviation. It was launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) in 2018. It is a geostationary satellite that operates in the Ku-band frequency range. It has several advanced features, including a high data rate communication link, which enables real-time communication between aircraft, ground stations, and other platforms. So, point V is correct. So, only three of the above are military communication satellites of India. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, the Government of India has partnered with global satellite imaging firms to access high-resolution satellite imagery for real-time monitoring of the Line of Actual Control (LAC) and international borders."

Answer 45

69,b,"The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), in partnership with the Department of Biotechnology-National Institute of Immunology (DBT-NII), is currently developing AdFalciVax, a malaria vaccine candidate. The vaccine has shown excellent efficacy in the preclinical stage of development. As an indigenously developed vaccine candidate fulfilling the Make in India mandate, AdFalciVax holds the potential to contribute substantially toward malaria eradication by preventing infection and minimising community transmission. It is India’s first indigenous multi-stage recombinant chimeric malaria vaccine. This vaccine is specifically designed to target two critical stages of Plasmodium falciparum, the deadliest malaria parasite. It aims to provide protection against human infection and simultaneously reduce vector-borne transmission within the community. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) has been developing a chimeric malaria vaccine AdFalciVax."

Answer 46

70,b,"The Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change exempted the majority of India’s coal-based thermal plants from installing systems that are designed to remove sulphur dioxide (SO2) emissions, a key contributor to air pollution. Known as Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) devices, these systems cut SO2 from flue gas, which is a residue from thermal plants. So, statement I is not correct. Flue gas, produced from the combustion of fossil fuels, contains several pollutants including carbon dioxide (CO₂), sulphur dioxide (SO₂), nitrogen oxides and particulate matter. Among these, SO₂, an acidic gas, is specifically targeted by Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) units. These systems use basic compounds to neutralise SO₂ emissions before they are released into the atmosphere. There are three major types of FGD systems in use globally: Dry Sorbent Injection (DSI): Involves injecting powdered sorbents like limestone into the flue gas. So, statement II is correct. SO₂ reacts with the sorbent, and the resulting compound is removed using electrostatic precipitators or fabric filters. Wet Limestone Treatment: Uses a limestone slurry instead of powder. When SO₂ is passed through the slurry, it forms gypsum, a stable compound with wide industrial applications, particularly in construction. So, statement III is correct. This is the most commonly used method due to its high efficiency. Seawater FGD: Adopted in coastal thermal power plants. Seawater absorbs SO₂ and the treated water is processed further before being safely discharged back into the sea. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box: Sulphur dioxide (SO₂) is a key pollutant from coal combustion, contributing to respiratory issues and the formation of secondary particulate matter in the atmosphere. It plays a major role in PM2.5 pollution, with studies showing that 15% of India’s ambient PM2.5 is linked to coal, and 80% of that stems from SO₂ emissions. Relevance: Recently, a committee of experts has recommended that India scrap the decade-old mandate requiring the installation of Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) units in all coal-based Thermal Power Plants (TPPs)."

Answer 47

71,a,"The Vice-President of India holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. According to Article 67(a) of the Constitution of India, the Vice President may resign from Office by writing to the President. She/he can also be removed from the office before completion of his term. A formal impeachment is not required for her/his removal. She/he can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Rajya Sabha and agreed to by the Lok Sabha. So, statement I is correct. In the case of the President, the Constitution requires that a vacancy be filled within six months. However, for a vice presidential vacancy, there is no fixed deadline. The only requirement is that the election be held “as soon as possible” after the post falls vacant. The poll is conducted under the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952. As per convention, the Secretary General of either House of Parliament is appointed as the Returning Officer, in rotation. So, statement II is not correct. According to Article 65 of the Constitution of India, when the office of the Vice President is vacant, the Vice President’s duties as Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha are discharged by the Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha. Unlike the vacancy in the office of the President, the Constitution does not envisage automatic succession of a Vice President. In the case of a President’s resignation or death, the Vice President is sworn in as the Acting President. So, statement III is correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box: The office of the Vice President of India has witnessed several brief vacancies, primarily due to resignations following elevation to the presidency or death in office. V.V. Giri became Acting President after Zakir Husain’s death on 4 May 1969 and G.S. Pathak took over on 31 August 1969. R. Venkataraman resigned on 24 July 1987 after becoming President; Shankar Dayal Sharma assumed office on 3 September 1987. Shankar Dayal Sharma resigned on 25 July 1992 and K.R. Narayanan succeeded him on 21 August 1992. K.R. Narayanan vacated the post on 25 July 1997 and Krishan Kant took office a month later. Krishan Kant died on 27 July 2002; B.S. Shekhawat assumed office on 19 August 2002. B.S. Shekhawat resigned on 22 July 2007, with Hamid Ansari taking over on 11 August 2007. Unlike the President's office, the Constitution does not provide a provision like Article 70 to manage a vacancy in the Vice President’s office. Relevance: Recently, the Vice President of India resigned mid-term."

Answer 48

72,d,"Biostimulants are substances that stimulate physiological processes in plants and help enhance the yield from a harvest. Plant-derived waste materials and seaweed extracts are at times used in their production. The Fertiliser (Inorganic, Organic or Mixed) (Control) Order, 1985 defines biostimulants as substances, microorganisms, or their combinations that, when applied to plants, seeds, or the rhizosphere, primarily stimulate physiological processes, enhancing nutrient uptake, growth, yield, nutrient efficiency, crop quality and stress tolerance. However, this definition excludes pesticides and plant growth regulators which are governed under the Insecticides Act, 1968. There are many categories of biostimulants. The most popular are humic acids, seaweed extracts, liquid manure composting and beneficial bacteria and fungi. Humic and fulvic acids: parts of soil organic matter resulting from the decomposition of plant, animal, and microbial residues. e.g. peat, mineral deposits of leonardite and soft coal. So, point I is correct. Dark in color. Can increase the cation exchange capacity. Seaweed Extracts: Derived through different extraction processes. Soluble powders or liquids. So, point II is correct. Liquid manure composting: Made by mixing manure water and a blend of proprietary materials thought to feed specific bacteria in the manure. This provides adequate conditions for microbial growth. The liquid is then used as a biofertilizer. So, point III is correct. Beneficial bacteria and fungi: concentration of bacteria and/or fungi in the soil that help with root growth. e.g. Bacillus and Rhizobium fungi. So, point IV is correct. The majority of products are marketed toward large-scale commercial agriculture. So, all four of the above can be used as biostimulants in agriculture. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, the Union Agriculture Minister urged Chief Ministers of all States to immediately halt the practice of “forced tagging” of nano-fertilisers or biostimulants with conventional fertilisers."

Answer 49

73,b,"India and the Maldives share a maritime boundary defined by the Eight Degree Channel, also known as Maliku Kandu. This channel separates Minicoy Island (part of India’s Lakshadweep group) from the northernmost atolls of the Maldives, serving as a natural maritime divide between the two nations. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box: The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are separated by the Ten Degree Channel. The Lakshadweep Islands and Maliku (Minicoy) Atoll are separated by the Nine Degree Channel. The Grand Channel lies between Great Nicobar Island (India) and Sumatra Island (Indonesia). The Minicoy Channel, also known as the Eight Degree Channel, separates Minicoy Island (India) from the northern Maldives. Relevance: Recently, the Prime Minister of India attended the Maldives' 60th Independence Day celebrations."

Answer 50

74,d,"Delimitation refers to the process of redrawing the boundaries and fixing the number of seats for territorial constituencies in each State for the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. It also involves determining the number of seats to be reserved for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs). As per Articles 82 and 170 of the Constitution of India, this readjustment of seats and constituencies is to be carried out after every Census. So, statement I is correct. The Supreme Court of India in its recent judgement, ruled that the delimitation of constituencies in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir in 2022 did not amount to discrimination against the electorates of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, nor did it violate their ""legitimate expectations."" The Court clarified that States and Union Territories operate under distinct constitutional frameworks and a delimitation exercise conducted in a Union Territory cannot be used as a benchmark for States. So, statement III is correct. The Supreme Court emphasised that Article 170(3) of the Constitution of India specifically prohibits delimitation in States until after the first Census conducted post-2026. However, this embargo does not apply to the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir, which has been excluded from this freeze and its delimitation based on the 2011 Census was constitutionally valid. So, statement II is correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box: The number of Lok Sabha seats was fixed at 494 (1951), 522 (1961) and 543 (1971), corresponding to populations of 36.1, 43.9, and 54.8 crore respectively, averaging 7.3, 8.4 and 10.1 lakh people per seat. However, to promote population control, seat allocation was frozen based on the 1971 Census by the 42nd Amendment (till 2000) and later extended by the 84th Amendment (till 2026). As a result, the number of seats remains unchanged, though constituency boundaries and SC/ST seat reservations were adjusted using the 2001 Census and will next be updated after 2026. Relevance: The Supreme Court has recently ruled that States cannot demand delimitation by citing parity with the Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir."

Answer 51

75,c,"India and the United Kingdom have signed the Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement (CETA), a bilateral free trade agreement marking a major milestone in their longstanding partnership. CETA ensures tariff elimination on about 99 per cent of tariff lines, covering India’s nearly entire trade basket. This means nearly 100 percent of Indian goods such as textiles, leather, marine products, gems and jewellery, toys, chemicals, engineering products and agri-products will enter the UK market at zero duty. So, statement I is correct. At the same time, India has opened 89.5 % of its tariff lines covering 91 % of the UK’s exports. Only 24.5 % of the UK’s exports will enjoy immediate duty-free market access. The agreement simplifies compliance by allowing exporters to self-certify the origin of products, reducing time and paperwork. UK importers can also rely on importers’ knowledge for certification, further easing trade. For small consignments under £1,000, there is no requirement for origin documentation, which supports e-commerce and small businesses. Product Specific Rules of Origin (PSRs) align with India’s current supply chains for key sectors such as textiles, machinery, pharmaceuticals, and processed food. So, statement II is not correct. Double Contribution Convention (DCC) exempts Indian workers and their employers from paying UK social security contributions for up to three years when on temporary assignments. Around 75,000 workers and over 900 companies are expected to benefit, resulting in savings of more than INR 4,000 crore. So, statement III is correct. India and the UK have agreed to negotiate mutual recognition agreements (MRAs) after implementing the trade deal, as these pacts are important for facilitating the movement of professionals such as nurses, accountants and architects to Britain. So, statement IV is correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, India and the United Kingdom have signed the Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement (CETA)."

Answer 52

76,c,"A judge can be removed from office through a motion adopted by Parliament on the grounds of ‘proven misbehaviour or incapacity’. While the Constitution does not use the word ‘impeachment’, it is colloquially used to refer to the proceedings under Article 124 (for the removal of a Supreme Court judge) and Article 218 (for the removal of a High Court judge). The provision stating that a judge can be removed from office on grounds of ""proved misbehaviour or incapacity"" through a motion passed by Parliament is laid down in Article 124(4) of the Indian Constitution. So, statement I is not correct. The Constitution provides that a judge can be removed only by an order of the President, based on a motion passed by both houses of parliament. The procedure for the removal of judges is elaborated in the Judges Inquiry Act, 1968. The Act sets out the following steps for removal from office: Under the Act, a removal motion may originate in either house of Parliament. To initiate proceedings: (i) at least 100 members of the Lok Sabha may give a signed notice to the Speaker, or (ii) at least 50 members of the Rajya Sabha may give a signed notice to the Chairman. So, statement II is correct. In this instance, the motion was submitted in both Houses on the same day, which requires joint action under the Act. Under Section 3 of the Act, the presiding officers, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, must first consult relevant authorities before admitting the motion. If admitted by both Houses, they are then required to jointly constitute a three-member inquiry committee. So, statement III is correct. This committee will include a Supreme Court judge (who may also be the Chief Justice of India), a Chief Justice of a High Court and a distinguished jurist. The committee is tasked with framing definite charges and presenting them to the judge. In cases of alleged incapacity, the judge may be directed to undergo a medical examination. The Central Government may also be asked to appoint an advocate to conduct the case against the judge if requested by the Presiding Officers. So, statement IV is correct. After completing its inquiry, the committee must submit a detailed report with findings on each charge. This report is to be laid before both Houses of Parliament at the earliest possible opportunity. The motion for removal is required to be adopted by each house of Parliament by: (i) a majority of the total membership of that House; and (ii) a majority of at least two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting. If the motion is adopted by this majority, the motion will be sent to the other House for adoption. Once the motion is adopted in both houses, it is sent to the President, who will issue an order for the removal of the judge. So, only three of the above statements are correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, the members of both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha submitted notices seeking the removal of a Justice of the Allahabad High Court."

Answer 53

77,b,"International Society for Mangrove Ecosystems (ISME) is an international non-profit and non-governmental scientific society, established in August 1990. ISME Headquarters is in Okinawa, Japan. M.S. Swaminathan served as its Founding President till 1993. So, statement I is not correct. The ISME conducted an assessment of the economic and environmental values of mangrove forests, including those in India, as well as the current state of their conservation. It also organised a series of workshops on mangrove conservation and sustainable utilisation, published a manual of mangrove ecosystem restoration and produced a World Mangrove Atlas. GLObal Mangrove Database and Information System (GLOMIS) is a project of the International Society for Mangrove Ecosystems (ISME) with financial support from the International Tropical Timber Organisation (ITTO) and the Prefectural Government of Okinawa. It is a searchable database on mangrove experts, research, and species, including the Mangrove Ecosystem Information Services, which focuses on documenting genetic resources. In 1992, a team of scientists surveyed and evaluated 23 mangrove sites in South, Southeast Asia and Oceania over nine countries, with scientific inputs from M.S. Swaminathan, to establish a global network of Mangrove Genetic Resource Centre. So, statement II is correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box: According to the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2023, India's mangrove cover stands at 4,991.68 km², marking an increase of 16.68 km² since 2019 and accounting for 0.15% of the country's total geographical area. Relevance: Recently, World Mangrove Day was observed on July 26."

Answer 54

78,c,"According to the United Nations (UN), Palestine is a non-member observer State, meaning that it is recognised as a State and can participate in sessions and General Assembly activities. So, statement III is correct. As of 2025, approximately 147 out of 193 United Nations member States, about 75%, officially recognise the State of Palestine as a sovereign nation. However, there is still no universally recognised Palestinian State. So, statement I is correct. Currently, the region known as the Occupied Palestinian Territories includes Gaza, the West Bank and East Jerusalem. The only internationally recognised state in the region remains Israel. India’s support for the Palestinian cause is an integral part of the nation’s foreign policy. In 1974, India became the first Non-Arab State to recognise the Palestine Liberation Organisation (PLO) as the sole and legitimate representative of the Palestinian people. In 1988, India became one of the first countries to recognise the Palestinian State. In 1996, India opened its Representative Office in Gaza, which was later shifted to Ramallah in 2003. So, statement II is not correct. In 2024, amid the ongoing Israel-Gaza war, a group of UN experts urged all UN member States to recognise the State of Palestine to help facilitate an immediate ceasefire. Following this appeal, nine countries, Armenia, Slovenia, Ireland, Norway, Spain, the Bahamas, Trinidad and Tobago, Jamaica and Barbados, officially extended their recognition to Palestine. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: France is expected to formally recognise the State of Palestine at the United Nations General Assembly in September 2025."

Answer 55

79,a,"Scheme for Promotion of Culture of Science: It is a flagship initiative of the Ministry of Culture, Government of India. So, statement II is not correct. It is aimed at fostering scientific temper and awareness across the country for the public in general and students in particular. The scheme supports the establishment of science cities, science centres, innovation hubs and digital planetariums in various regions. So, statement I is correct. The National Council of Science Museums (NCSM), an autonomous body under the Ministry of Culture, serves as the nodal agency for implementation of the scheme. Under this Scheme Science Centres/Digital Planetariums (Category-III) are set up in areas with a population of less than 5 lakhs. These institutions have significantly contributed to enhancing scientific awareness and informal science education through hands-on exhibits, innovation hubs, digital planetariums, and outreach programmes. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: The Union Minister for Culture and Tourism informed Rajya Sabha about the Scheme for Promotion of Culture of Science."

Answer 56

80,a,"The Great Indian Bustard (GIB) is the largest among the four bustard species found in India. Being primarily terrestrial, it spends most of its time on the ground and flies only occasionally within its habitat. Historically, the GIB was widely distributed across 11 Indian States and parts of Pakistan. Its key strongholds were the Thar Desert in the northwest and the Deccan Plateau in peninsular India. Currently, the species' population is largely restricted to Rajasthan and Gujarat, with small remnant populations in Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. GIBs prefer open, flat landscapes with minimal visual obstruction, thriving in grasslands and agro-scrub habitats. During the non-breeding season, they occupy wide agro-grass scrub areas, while in the breeding season (summer and monsoon), they gather in traditional, undisturbed grasslands with sparsely grazed tall grass (less than 50 cm). They avoid dense scrub and grass taller than their height. The species is listed under: Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. So, point I is correct. Appendix I of CITES. So, point II is correct. CMS Convention. Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List. So, point III is not correct. Identified for recovery under the Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats by the Ministry of Environment and Forests. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, a Supreme Court appointed expert committee has proposed to designate power corridors for transmission lines in Gujarat and Rajasthan for the Great Indian Bustard."

Answer 57

81,a,"The Prime Minister of India, during his visit to a Gangaikonda Cholapuram Shiva temple built by Rajendra Chola I, highlighted this rich democratic legacy, comparing it to the Magna Carta (1215) of Britain, thereby underscoring India’s ancient contributions to democratic governance. Long before modern democratic systems took shape in Europe, the Chola Empire in South India had established a well-structured method of local self-governance. One of the most remarkable examples of this is found in the Uttaramerur Inscriptions, located in the present-day Kanchipuram district, Tamil Nadu. These stone inscriptions provide some of the earliest known records of a formal electoral process in the world. So, statement II is not correct, and statement III is correct. The Kudavolai system, or “ballot pot” method, was used to conduct elections to village assemblies. Under this system, the names of eligible candidates were inscribed on palm leaves and placed into a pot. A young boy, chosen for his impartiality, would then draw one leaf in full public view. This method ensured fairness, transparency and public trust, making it more than a simple lottery. It was a civic practice grounded in collective consent and accountability. So, statement I is correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, the Prime Minister of India highlighted this rich democratic legacy of India during his visit to the Gangaikonda Cholapuram Shiva temple."

Answer 58

82,a,"Indian Railways has achieved a major milestone by successfully testing its first hydrogen-powered coach at the Integral Coach Factory (ICF) in Chennai. India is developing a 1,200 HP hydrogen train. This will place India among the leaders in hydrogen-powered train technology. It marks a major milestone in India’s efforts to transition towards clean and green transportation alternatives. So, statement I is correct. The hydrogen coach is part of a broader vision by Indian Railways to deploy 35 hydrogen-powered trains under the “Hydrogen for Heritage” initiative. These trains are intended to operate on heritage and hill routes across the country, with an estimated cost of ₹80 crore per train and an additional ₹70 crore for supporting ground infrastructure per route. So, statement II is not correct. Indian Railways has also initiated a pilot project to retrofit an existing Diesel Electric Multiple Unit (DEMU) with a hydrogen fuel cell. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, Indian Railways has successfully tested its first hydrogen-powered coach at the Integral Coach Factory (ICF)."

Answer 59

83,c,"During January-June 2025, India’s imports of agricultural products from the US were, at $1,693.2 million, a whopping 49.1% more than the $1,135.8 million for the same six months of the last calendar year. India’s agricultural exports to the US, too, were up 24.1%, from $2,798.9 million in January-June 2024 to $3,472.7 million in January-June 2025. The US’s exports to India have been led by tree nuts — mainly almonds and pistachios — which were valued at $1.1 billion-plus in 2024, and registering further 42.8% annual growth. The other items are ethanol, soyabean oil and cotton, which are imported by India from the USA. So, statement I is correct. India’s agricultural exports to the US include seafood (primarily frozen shrimp) has been the top item, spices, essential oils, basmati rice, processed fruits & vegetables and baked foods. FDI up to 100 per cent is permitted under the automatic route in specified activities of the agriculture and allied sectors. It includes sectors like Floriculture, Horticulture, Apiculture and Cultivation of Vegetables & Mushrooms under controlled conditions, Animal Husbandry (including breeding of dogs), Pisciculture, Aquaculture, under controlled conditions. So, statement II is not correct. India is one of the largest agricultural product exporters in the world. The largest importers of India’s agricultural products, as of FY25 (until December 2024), were the USA, UAE, China, Bangladesh. During this period, the USA was the largest importer of Indian agricultural products at Rs. 36,117 crore (US$ 4.19 billion) with a share of 11.36% of the total exports. The USA and China were the major importers of India’s marine products. So, statement III is correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer."

Answer 60

84,c,"Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs) are disaster events caused by the abrupt discharge of water from glacial lakes — large bodies of water that sit in front of, on top of, or beneath a melting glacier. As a glacier withdraws, it leaves behind a depression that gets filled with meltwater, thereby forming a lake. The more the glacier recedes, the bigger and more dangerous the lake becomes. Such lakes are mostly dammed by unstable ice or sediment composed of loose rock and debris. In case the boundary around them breaks, huge amounts of water rush down the side of the mountains, which could cause flooding in the downstream areas — this is referred to as a GLOF event. GLOFs can be triggered by various reasons, including glacial calving, where sizable ice chunks detach from the glacier into the lake, inducing sudden water displacement. Incidents such as avalanches or landslides can also impact the stability of the boundary around a glacial lake, leading to its failure, and the rapid discharge of water. Almost two-thirds of GLOF events are triggered by ice avalanches or landslides, and the remaining due to excessive meltwater pressure on weak moraine dams and earthquakes. So, statement I is correct. Central Water Commission (CWC) monitors 902 Glacial lakes and water bodies, to enable the detection of relative change in water spread areas of Glacial lakes and water bodies as well as identifying those ones which have expanded substantially during its monitoring months. So, statement II is correct. In addition, the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) has identified 188 glacial lakes in the Himalayan region that can potentially be breached because of heavy rainfall. Thirteen of them are in Uttarakhand. The Central Government has approved National Glacial Lake Outburst Flood (GLOF) Risk Mitigation Project (NGRMP) for its implementation in four states namely (Not all Himalayan States), A, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Uttarakhand. NGRMP is aimed at reducing the risks associated with glacial lake outburst floods, particularly in regions that are highly susceptible to such natural disasters. So, statement III is not correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer."

Answer 61

85,b,"Sohrai painting, a traditional indigenous art form is practised by women of different indigenous communities native to the villages of Hazaribagh region of Jharkhand. These practitioners belong to Kurmi, Santal, Munda, Oraon, Agaria, Ghatwal ethnic groups. So, statement I is not correct. It is typically created by women during harvest and festive seasons. Using natural earth pigments and bamboo brushes, the artists transform mud walls into vivid depictions of animals, plants, and geometric motifs-deeply connected to agrarian life and spiritual beliefs. So, statement II is correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: Through Kala Utsav 2025, Artists in Residence Programme, held at Rashtrapati Bhavan, Sohrai Art received national recognition, standing as a vibrant affirmation to the enduring spirit of Jharkhand’s tribal communities."

Answer 62

86,a,"Heavy water (D2O) is a form of water (H2O) with deuterium, a heavier isotope of hydrogen, instead of regular hydrogen, and is used as a coolant as well as moderator for slowing down fast-moving neutrons during a chain reaction, essential for sustaining the nuclear fission process. So, statements I and II are correct. D2O needs to be 99.9% pure for working efficiently. But with time, it gets contaminated with light or regular water, requiring the depleted D2O to be upgraded back to 99.9% using a distillation process and not using the technology of gas chromatography. “BARC has transferred the indigenous technology to TEMA to build the vacuum distillation columns for upgradation of depleted heavy water at its private test facility”. So, statement III is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: A Mumbai-based private entity, TEMA India has been entrusted with testing the equipment required for the upgrading of depleted heavy water, a crucial requirement at all Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors in India."

Answer 63

87,a,"The Supreme Court first called for complaint committees to be set up in its 1997 judgment (Vishaka Guidelines). It called for an appropriate mechanism to be created by employers to ensure time bound treatment of complaints of sexual harassment. The Court provided basic definitions of sexual harassment in the workplace, and guidelines to combat it. The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013, often called the POSH Act, superseded the Vishaka Guidelines. It mandated the constitution of Internal Complaints Committees (ICCs) at all workplaces which employed more than 10 people, under Section 4(1). Women working in smaller enterprises in the informal sector could complain to Local Committees (LCC) as per Section 6(1) of the POSH Act, to be set up by District officers. Section 6(2) directs the District Officer to designate a nodal officer in every block, taluka, tehsil, ward, or municipality to receive complaints and forward them to the LCC. Any aggrieved woman can complain in writing to the ICC or local committee within three months of the date of the harassment incident or series of incidents. So, statement I is correct and statement II is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Knowledge Box: Powers and Composition of Internal Complaint Committee: Each ICC is to be headed by a Presiding Officer, who is to be a woman employed at a senior level at the workplace. At least two members should be employees, preferably committed to the cause of women or who have had experience in social work or have legal knowledge, and another member should be from an NGO devoted to women’s rights or a person familiar with sexual harassment issues. At least half of the members should be women. The ICC has the same powers as are vested in a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure. The inquiry is to be completed within 90 days. If the complaint is proved, the ICC must recommend the action to be taken against the accused. The employer is also required to aid the victim if she wishes to file a criminal complaint. Relevance: Recently, a young student’s self-immolation at a college in Balasore, Odisha has put the spotlight on the Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) which failed to validate her complaints of sexual harassment against her head of the department."

Answer 64

88,d,"Foot and mouth disease (FMD) is a severe, highly contagious disease of livestock. It's caused by the FMD virus, an Aphthovirus, and is characterized by the formation of blisters (vesicles) in the mouth and on the feet. The disease affects cattle, swine, sheep, goats and other cloven-hoofed ruminants. It is a transboundary animal disease (TAD). So, option (a) is correct. Commercial FMD vaccines are based on chemically inactivated whole-virus particles, manufactured as aqueous or oil formulations, formulated with aluminium hydroxide/saponin, or as single or double emulsions for oil adjuvants. So, option (b) is correct. While FMD is found worldwide, it is not currently present in North America. The disease is endemic in many parts of the world, including Africa, Asia, and South America. North America, along with Europe, has been successful in eradicating the disease. So, option (c) is correct. Under the Livestock Health and Disease Control Programme (LHDCP) scheme, 100% central assistance is provided to States/UTs for vaccination against Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD), Brucellosis, Peste des Petits Ruminants (PPR) and Classical Swine Fever (CSF). The implementation of the vaccination programme under LHDCP has effectively reduced the spread of livestock diseases like Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD), Brucellosis and Lumpy Skin Disease (LSD). So, option (d) is not correct. Therefore, option (d) is the answer. Knowledge Box: Hand, Foot, and Mouth Disease (HFMD): HFMD is a human syndrome caused by viruses belonging to the enterovirus genus (group). This group of viruses includes polioviruses, coxsackie viruses, echoviruses, and other enteroviruses. The most common strains causing HFMD are Coxsackie A virus and Enterovirus71 (EV71). It is a common viral illness of infants and children and is extremely uncommon in adults; however, still a possibility. Relevance: Recently, vaccination drives against the Foot-and-mouth disease (FMD) for cattle in various districts of the country."

Answer 65

89,d,"Exercise Bold Kurukshetra 2025 is a joint military exercise conducted between India and Singapore. This exercise underscores the strong and long-standing bilateral defence relationship between both countries and enhances cooperation between the two armies. So, statement I is not correct. The exercise is conducted as a Table Top Exercise and Computer-Based Wargame, aimed at validating operational procedures for mechanised warfare. So, statement II is correct. It was first conducted in 2005. The 14th edition (so not conducted every year) of the India-Singapore Joint Military Exercise was conducted in 2025 in Jodhpur. So, statement III is not correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, Exercise Bold Kurukshetra 2025 was conducted in Jodhpur."

Answer 66

90,d,"The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World Report, 2025 (SOFI) is a jointly published by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), the International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD), the United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF), the World Food Programme (WFP), and the World Health Organization (WHO). This is the annual global monitoring report for Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 2 targets 2.1 and 2.2 – to end hunger, food insecurity and malnutrition in all its forms. So, statement I is not correct. The Sustainable Development Solutions Network is a non-profit launched by the United Nations in 2012 to promote the implementation of the UN Sustainable Development Goals at national and international levels. As per SOFI report 2025, India continues to have the largest number of undernourished people globally — largely due to the size of its population, according to the analysis. Undernourishment affected approximately 12 per cent of the Indian population in 2024, as per the report. Globally, India ranked 48th out of 204 countries assessed for undernourishment. But within Asia, it had the seventh-highest proportion of undernourished people, following the Syrian Arab Republic, Afghanistan, Timor-Leste, Pakistan, Iraq and Jordan. So, statement II is not correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, the State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World Report, 2025 was published jointly by five different organisations."

Answer 67

91,c,"Recently militants, accused of Pahalgam terror attack, were killed in the Dachigam forest area on the outskirts of Srinagar under Operation Mahadev. According to the official statement of the honourable Home Minister, it was a joint effort of CRPF, Army and Jammu and Kashmir Police personnel who chased these terrorists in extremely difficult conditions and killed them. So, option (c) is correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, the Indian army conducted Operation Mahadev to take out the Pahalgan terror accused."

Answer 68

92,d,"Divya Deshmukh (19-year-old from Nagpur) is the FIDE's Women World Cup 2025 winner. She is also India’s latest Grandmaster, only the fourth Indian woman to get that most coveted of titles in chess. She beat fellow-Indian Koneru Humpy in the tiebreakers of the World Cup final at Batumi, Georgia. So, option (d) is correct. The FIDE World Cup is held every two years and follows a knockout format, where players are eliminated after losing a match, not a round-robin format where every player competes against every other player. The FIDE Women's World Cup 2023 was a major chess tournament that took place in Baku, Azerbaijan, from July 29 to August 22, 2023. So, option (a), (b) and (c) are not correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, Divya Deshmukh (19-year-old from Nagpur) is the FIDE's Women World Cup 2025 winner."

Answer 69

93,c,"About Kashi Declaration: It was adopted at the Youth Spiritual Summit, 2025 held under the theme ‘Drug-free Youth for Developed India’ at the Rudraksh International Convention Centre in Varanasi. The summit was organised by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. The summit brought together over 600 youth leaders from more than 120 spiritual and socio-cultural organisations, along with academicians, experts, and government representatives. The event was a moment in India’s pursuit of a drug-free society by 2047, uniting spiritual strength with youthful resolve. The Kashi Declaration calls for treating substance abuse as a complex public health and societal challenge. It recommends a whole-of-government and whole-of-society approach, integrating efforts from spiritual, educational, technological, and cultural domains. It proposed institutional mechanisms for multi-ministerial coordination, including the formation of a Joint National Committee, annual progress reporting, and a national platform for linking affected individuals to support services. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: The Youth Spiritual Summit concluded recently at the Rudraksh International Convention Centre in Varanasi with the formal adoption of the Kashi Declaration."

Answer 70

94,c,"The Indian Army conducted 'Exercise Divya Drishti' in the high-altitude areas of East Sikkim to test new technologies, including AI-enabled sensors and drones, recently. The exercise was designed to improve battlefield awareness, real-time surveillance and quick decision-making. So, option (c) is correct. In March 2019, India successfully conducted Mission Shakti, an anti-satellite missile test, making India the fourth country in the world to have demonstrated the ability to destroy a satellite in orbit. This mission involved a ballistic missile defense interceptor, which was launched from Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam Island in Odisha. The missile successfully hit and destroyed a defunct satellite, Microsat-R, in a low Earth orbit (LEO) at an altitude of about 283 kilometers. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, the Indian army tested certain AI-enabled sensors and drones under an exercise code named 'Exercise Divya Drishti'."

Answer 71

95,a,"In March 2025, a bird census was conducted by forest officials, scientists, and conservationists to record grassland bird populations. The census specifically targeted 10 species that are either globally threatened or unique to the Brahmaputra floodplains, such as the Bengal Florican and Swamp Francolin. So, statement I is correct. Surveying small, shy, and highly camouflaged birds is very difficult using traditional methods like Visual Counting. So, the passive acoustic recorders were placed in tall trees near grasslands to record their mating calls. A software was used to create a spectrogram, which is a graphical representation of the sound, to aid in identifying the species. Also a software Birdnet was used, which uses machine learning to try and identify species by bird song. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: In his Mann ki Baat radio programme on July 27, Prime Minister highlighted a “first-ever grassland bird census” in Assam’s Kaziranga National Park and the technology used for this."

Answer 72

96,a,"The Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has officially notified the Environment (Protection) Rules for Management of Contaminated Sites, 2025 under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The Rules create the country’s first dedicated legal framework for identifying, remediating and monitoring contaminated sites that pose serious risks to human health and ecosystems. So, statement I is correct. The Rules empower State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) and local authorities to identify and list suspected contaminated sites based on industrial activities, historical waste dumps or community complaints. So, statement II is correct. These sites will be mapped and tracked through a centralised online portal to be developed by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB). The State Board shall list all such sites as suspected contaminated sites on the Centralised Online Portal and initiate a series of assessments. The Rules exclude specific categories from their ambit such as sites contaminated with radioactive waste, mining areas under existing mining laws and maritime oil spills already regulated under other frameworks. However, if contamination from these sources exceeds acceptable limits or is mixed with other hazardous waste, the rules may still apply. So, statement III is not correct. The Rules introduce the concept of a “responsible person”, an individual, company, or entity found liable for causing pollution. The SPCB concerned shall identify the responsible person for contamination within 90 days from the date of publication of the site as contaminated. If the polluter cannot be identified, the government may fund remediation using various resources, including the Environment Relief Fund created under the Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 and penalties collected from environmental violations. So, statement IV is correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, the Environment (Protection) Rules for Management of Contaminated Sites, 2025 was notified."

Answer 73

97,c,"National Crisis Management Committee: It is established under the Disaster Management Act, 2005 (53 of 2005) by the central government. So, statement I is correct. The committee shall be the apex body for dealing with the situation arising out of a major disaster. So, statement II is correct. It is headed by the Cabinet Secretary. So, statement II is not correct. Its members will constitute of the Union home secretary, defence secretary, secretary (co-ordination), cabinet secretariat and member and head of department, the National Disaster Management Authority. It shall coordinate and monitor actions of the concerned ministries or departments of the government of India, state governments, national authority, state authorities, governmental and non-governmental organisations in relation to disaster response. It shall give such directions as may be necessary for the proper coordination and monitoring of disaster response in the country. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, the Central government constituted the National Crisis Management Committee (NCMC), for dealing with any situation of major disaster having national ramifications."

Answer 74

98,c,"According to the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI), the share of contract labour in the manufacturing workforce doubled from 20% in 1999-2000 to 40.7% in 2022-23, cutting across all industries. The shift towards contractualisation is often viewed as a strategy to enhance operational flexibility and access specialised skills as and when required. So, statement I is correct. Analysis of real net value added per worker, a standard measure of labour productivity, shows that contract Labour-Intensive (CLI) enterprises have, on an average, 31% lower labour productivity when compared to Regular Labour-Intensive (RLI) enterprises. So, statement II is not correct. Contract workers, typically hired through third-party contractors, are excluded from core labour laws under the Industrial Disputes Act 1947, which governs layoffs, retrenchments, and safeguards against arbitrary dismissals. So, statement III is correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, the data on contractual labour was released by Annual Survey of Industries (ASI)."

Answer 75

99,c,"NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR) will be the first one ever to observe the Earth in two frequencies — NASA’s L-band and ISRO’s S-band. Each system’s signal is sensitive to different sizes of features on Earth’s surface, and each specialises in measuring different attributes, such as moisture content, surface roughness, and motion. The satellite was launched on the GSLV-F16 and was put in a 734 km Sun Synchronous Orbit — an orbit in which the satellite reaches over a place at the same time each day. So, statement I is correct. With two radar systems in place, the satellite would be able to provide very high-resolution data, in all types of weather conditions, and both during the day and the night. The satellite is powerful enough to capture changes as small as one centimetre in size during its repeated observations over the same terrain. So, statement II is correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: An earth observation satellite, NISAR, jointly developed by NASA and ISRO, was launched on July 30 from Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh."

Answer 76

100,c,"At the Ramsar 15th Conference of Parties Zimbabwe, India introduced a Resolution on ‘Promoting Sustainable Lifestyles for the Wise Use of Wetlands’. The Resolution builds upon Resolution 6/8 on ‘Promoting Sustainable Lifestyles’ adopted at the Sixth UN Environment Assembly in March 2024. The resolution also calls for creating enabling conditions, including fostering public and private collaboration, pursuing education at all levels and awareness-raising initiatives to enhance the wise use of wetlands. Thus, it shows that wetland conservation needs a ""whole of society"" approach. This means moving beyond government-only conservation models to include grassroots participation and local ownership. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, the Ramsar 15th Conference of Parties held in Zimbabwe."

ca 3 Flashcards

(100 cards)