CBME Flashcards

(101 cards)

1
Q

Making one or a few products based on what the customer wants, within the set time and cost.

A

Job-Shop Production-

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2
Q

Making a limited number of products at regular times, then storing them until they are sold.

A

Batch Production -

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3
Q

Making a very large number of parts or products using a continuous process.

A

Mass Production -

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4
Q

Products move step by step in order, using machines like conveyors, until finished.

A

Continuous Production -

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5
Q

According to Edwood Buffa, it is “a process by which goods and services are created.”

A

Production-

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6
Q

The process of using and combining resources to create value in a controlled way, following company rules.

A

Management-

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7
Q

The part of an organization that makes the products.

A

Production System-

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8
Q

Making sure that what really happens matches the plan.

A

Controlling-

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9
Q

According to Joseph G. Monks, it is the process of using and combining resources in a controlled way to add value based on management rules.

A

Operations Management-

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10
Q

The main goal of operations: to give customers what they need, at the right cost and time.

A

Customer Service -

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11
Q

Using resources well so customer needs are met and the business does not fail.

A

Resource Utilization

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12
Q

A way of planning that focuses on the market to stay competitive.

A

Strategic Planning Operations Model-

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13
Q

The ratio of output (what is made) to input (what is used).

A

Productivity-

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14
Q

The part of an organization that changes inputs into outputs with the right quality.

A

Production Function-

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15
Q
  1. Which type of decision defines the long-term direction of a company?
    A. Tactical Decision
    B. Operational Decision
    C. Strategic Decision
    D. Routine Decision
A

C. Strategic Decision

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16
Q
  1. Tactical decisions are usually focused on:
    A. Setting long-term company goals
    B. Day-to-day activities
    C. Implementing strategic goals
    D. Intuition and gut feeling
A

C. Implementing strategic goals

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17
Q
  1. Which type of decision deals with short-term, day-to-day operations?
    A. Strategic
    B. Tactical
    C. Operational
    D. Reversible
A

C. Operational

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18
Q
  1. Decision-making under certainty means:
    A. Outcomes are unknown
    B. Outcomes are risky but probabilities are known
    C. Outcomes are completely known
    D. Outcomes are influenced by intuition
A

C. Outcomes are completely known

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19
Q
  1. When outcomes are uncertain but probabilities are known, it is called:
    A. Decision-making under uncertainty
    B. Decision-making under risk
    C. Decision-making under certainty
    D. Intuitive decision-making
A

B. Decision-making under risk

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20
Q

What do you call decision-making when outcomes are uncertain and probabilities are unknown?
A. Under certainty
B. Under risk
C. Under uncertainty
D. Data-driven

A

C. Under uncertainty

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21
Q
  1. Which type of decision-making relies on gut feeling?
    A. Data-driven
    B. Intuitive
    C. Tactical
    D. Operational
A

B. Intuitive

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22
Q

Which characteristic of a decision refers to how fast it must be made?
A. Frequency
B. Urgency
C. Impact
D. Risk

A

B. Urgency

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23
Q
  1. If a decision has long-lasting consequences and cannot be easily changed, it is:
    A. Reversible
    B. Non-routine
    C. Irreversible
    D. Routine
A

C. Irreversible

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24
Q
  1. Which step in the decision-making framework comes first?
    A. Identify Alternatives
    B. Implement the Decision
    C. Gather Information
    D. Identify the Problem
A

D. Identify the Problem

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25
11. In which step do you compare pros and cons of each option? A. Identify Alternatives B. Evaluate Alternatives C. Implement Decision D. Make a Decision
B. Evaluate Alternatives
26
12. What is the break-even point (BEP)? A. Point where revenue is less than cost B. Point where revenue is higher than cost C. Point where revenue equals cost D. Point of maximum profit
C. Point where revenue equals cost
27
13. A break-even chart (BEC) shows the relationship between: A. Costs and intuition B. Costs and revenues at different levels of output C. Sales and stakeholders D. Intuition and alternatives
B. Costs and revenues at different levels of output
28
14. What does the angle of incidence in a break-even chart indicate? A. The margin of safety B. The level of profit per sales increase C. The number of alternatives D. The risk of decision-making
B. The level of profit per sales increase
29
15. Margin of safety is calculated as: A. (Total cost ÷ revenue) × 100 B. (Actual sales − BEP sales) ÷ Actual sales C. (BEP sales − actual sales) ÷ BEP sales D. Revenue – expenses
B. (Actual sales − BEP sales) ÷ Actual sales
30
The first phase of the project life cycle where the project is defined.
INITIATION PHASE
31
The phase where the plan is carried out and work is performed.
EXECUTION PHASE
32
The phase where results are evaluated and the project is formally ended.
CLOSING/TERMINATION PHASE
33
The step-by-step stages a project follows from start to finish.
PROJECT LIFE CYCLE
34
A tool that breaks down a project into smaller, manageable tasks.
WORK BREAKDOWN STRUCTURE
35
A bar chart that shows tasks, duration, and overlaps in a project schedule.
GANTT CHART
36
A method best for uncertain durations that finds earliest and latest completion times.
PROGRAM EVALUATION AND REVIEW TECHNIQUE
37
A method used for planning and scheduling tasks with fixed durations.
CRITICAL PATH METHOD
38
Digital tools that help plan, track, and manage projects efficiently.
PROJECT MANAGEMENT SOFTWARE
39
The phase of the life cycle where detailed plans, schedules and resources are developed.
PLANNING PHASE
40
The process of identifying and preparing for potential problems in a project.
RISK MANAGEMENT
41
Purpose of monitoring and controlling activities in the life cycle.
MONITORING AND CONTROLLING
42
Ensuring that a project is completed on time, within budget and quality standard
MAIN GOAL OF PROJECT MANAGEMENT
43
Process design starts by setting clear goals and understanding what the process should achieve.
TRUE-
44
Product design and process design are completely separate and do not affect each other.
FALSE-
45
Small changes in product design can greatly affect how a process is carried out.
TRUE
46
The goal of process design is to make sure a process works well and meets its purpose.
TRUE-
47
Throughput rate refers to how many items are completed in a given time.
TRUE-
48
Cycle time is the total time it takes for an item to move through the whole process.
FALSE -
49
Standardization means using the same steps and methods for similar tasks to avoid confusion.
TRUE-
50
Environmentally sensitive process design only focuses on reducing costs, not waste.
FALSE -
51
Life cycle analysis measures energy use and waste at each stage of a product’s life.
TRUE -
52
Jobbing processes handle high variety and low volume, but share resources among products.
TRUE -
53
Project processes usually have low volume and high variety.
TRUE -
54
Batch processes produce items one at a time, never in groups.
FALSE-
55
Mass processes involve high volume and low variety, with repetitive and predictable activities.
TRUE -
56
Service shops mix both front-office and back-office activities.
TRUE -
57
Process mapping helps visualize how materials, people, or information flow through a process.
TRUE-
58
Integration of product planning and process design to deliver optimized design and production.
FRAMEWORK FOR PRICES DESIGN:
59
MODULAR DESIGN: Enables standardization, speeds up assembly, and simplifies maintenance and repairs.
MODULAR DESIGN:
60
A systematic approach that ensures products meet customer needs and company standards by combining Six Sigma, design methods, and quality standards.
DESIGN FOR EXCELLENCE:
61
Guides production processes, quality checks, and logistics.
PRODUCT DESIGN:
62
Modifying product design and process to make manufacturing easier, faster, cheaper, without compromising quality.
DESIGN FOR MANUFACTURE:
63
Drives growth but brings changes and impacts across the organization and supply chain.
PRODUCT DEVELOPMENT:
64
Focuses on reducing parts and simplifying assembly; examines orientation and movement of components.
DESIGN FOR ASSEMBLY:
65
Design parts so they cannot be assembled incorrectly; prevents orientation, alignment, and assembly mistakes.
POKA-YOKE:
66
Must be functionally sound to meet customer needs and expectations; includes function and features.
PRODUCT CHARACTERISTICS
67
Operational content (task assignment) and operational method (productivity).
PRODUCT DESIGN )(MICRO)
68
Standardize parts, modules, sub-assemblies, and processes.
STANDARDISE DESIGN
69
Operational convenience and availability of materials are critical.
PRODUCTION ASPECT
70
Workstation selection and workflow analysis.
PRODUCT DESIGN
71
Involves analyzing capital expenditures, product cost, and its functional value.
ECONOMIC ANALYSIS
72
Evaluates market demand, environment, and adaptability to future changes in sales and costs.
MARKET ASPECT
73
Which term most closely matches the idea of a product or service meeting customer needs and expectations?
QUALITY
74
Which guru is associated with the concept of continuous improvement and the famous 14 management principles?
W. EDWARDS DEMING
75
What does the acronym SERVQUAL primarily relate to?
SERVICE QUALITY MEASUREMENT
76
Which term describes the process of ensuring products conform to design specifications?
QUALITY CONTROL
77
Managing the whole to achieve excellence
TOTAL QUALITY MANAGEMENT
78
Determines if a process is within control limits
CONTROL CHART
79
Which tool is a graphical method to identify the root causes of a problem?
FISHBONE DIAGRAM
80
Which standard family is widely used for quality management systems?
ISO 9000
81
Which term describes a measure of process capability and defect reduction?
SIX SIGMA
82
Which quality dimension is most aligned with meeting customer expectations for service reliability and responsiveness?
DURABILITY
83
Award that are Administered by the National Institute of Standards and Technology.
MALCOLM BALDRIGE NATIONAL QUALITY AWARD
84
Intention to include features.
QUALITY OF DESIGN
85
The "Father of modern-day quality management."
JOSEPH M. JURAN
86
The year Frederick W. Taylor emphasized inspection for quality control
EARLY 1900’s
87
The Cycle that Implement the plan and document.
ACT
88
The place where a company sets up operations for producing goods or services is called ________
facility location
89
Two important factors to consider in facility location are ________ and labor ability
1. power supply 2. labor ability
90
_______ is the layout where the product stays in one place and workers or resources move to it.
Fixed Position Layout
91
The type of layout best for mass production of standardized items is called _______.
product Layout
92
In facility layout design, the first step is ___________, followed by production and material flow analysis.
information gathering
93
Machines are grouped by __________processes to improve workflow efficiency in a cellular layout.
similar
94
A layout that combines two or more types of layouts is known as a ________-
hybrid layout
95
A good example of a service industry where facility layout is important is a _________
hospital
96
In warehouse layouts, frequently ordered items are usually placed _________ the entrance.
near
97
For customized or varied products, the most suitable layout is the __________
process layout
98
Management policies, such as prioritizing _______, ________, ________, or _______ can influence facility layout.
1. speed 2. cost 3. efficiency 4. worker safety
99
Modern office layouts often promote ________ and open spaces for teamwork.
collaboration
100
A company may need to relocate its facility when ________ ends or demand increases.
lesee/LEASE
101
The main goal of facility layout design is to ensure efficient workflow, cost savings, and __________
productivity