How are insurance liabilities valued at market value?
◦ Insurance liabilities aren’t directly traded on an exchange, so their market value is estimated by finding a replicating portfolio of traded assets that matches the expected timing and amount of liability cashflows.
◦ These liability cashflows are then discounted using a risk-free yield curve to calculate their present value.
* Risk-Free Discount Rate:
◦ Should represent the time value of money with minimal credit/default risk bc you can’t exactly earn a risk-premium on those liabilities
◦ Government zero-coupon bonds could be used, but in many markets long-dated government bonds are illiquid, thinly issued, or only available at certain maturities.
* so often, swap rates are used… which are better bc the swap market is often deeper, more liquid and offers high trading values at many more maturities => smoother and more reliable term structure for discounting
What is the illiquidity premium, and when can insurers include it in their discount rate for valuing liabilities?
What are the differences between the active and passive approaches to setting supervisory reserves?
What are the advantages and disadvantages of the active vs passive approaches to setting supervisory reserves? (6 each method)
Active Approach
✔ Advantages:
* More realistic, uses current assumptions based on actual experience.
* Encourages insurers to monitor experience closely.
* Better reflection of true economic value of liabilities.
✘ Disadvantages:
* More volatile reserves → financial results fluctuate and therefore higher P(making knee jerk management decisions)
* High burden on supervisors (must regularly update bases).
* May require frequent system/model updates for insurers.
Passive Approach
✔ Advantages:
* Simpler, easier to administer and monitor.
* Produces stable reserves, less volatile reporting and also PROFIT emergence more stable
* Lower supervisory costs (assumptions only updated occasionally).
✘ Disadvantages:
* Less responsive to actual company/market experience.
* May result in systematically excessive or inadequate reserves.
* Can create distortions between insurers (those closer/further from true experience).
When is an active approach particularly useful?
What are the key advantages and disadvantages of using a valuation approach that is a combination of active and passive elements?
Advantages:
Stability: If the approach leans passive, it may benefit from being more straightforward to implement, involving less subjectivity, and resulting in relatively stable profit emergence.
* Informativeness: If the approach includes active elements, it may be more informative in terms of understanding the impact of current market conditions on the company’s ability to meet its obligations, especially regarding financial guarantees and options
Disadvantages:
* Greater Mismatch and Volatility: A combination of active and passive elements can result in a greater mismatch between assets and liabilities. This, in turn, leads to greater volatility of results.
* Volatile Financial Position: This increased volatility manifests as greater profits/losses or changes in free surplus when market conditions change.
* Specific Example of Mismatch Risk: An approach that uses a net premium valuation for liabilities (a passive technique, as the assumptions may be “locked in” or updated infrequently) and the market value of assets (an active technique) could experience greater volatility of results than a fully active approach (like using market-consistent valuation for both)
How do insurers perform a market-consistent valuation of liabilities under a risk-based capital regime?
Liabilities valued as Best Estimate Liability (BEL) + Risk Margin.
* Discounting uses a risk-free curve (e.g. swap rates, government bonds, adjusted for illiquidity in some cases).
* Process for BEL:
* Project expected future liability cashflows (claims, expenses, options/guarantees).
* Construct a replicating portfolio of traded assets that mimics timing/amount of cashflows.
* Discount cashflows using the risk-free curve (can use swaps for long terms due to deep, liquid markets).
* Solvency Capital Requirement (SCR):
* SCR = capital to withstand a 1-in-200 year loss event over one year (99.5% confidence).
* Calculated via:
– Standard Formula: prescribed shocks for risks (market, credit, insurance, operational).
– Internal Model: company-specific stochastic modelling (if approved).
* SCR ensures insurer can survive extreme but plausible stresses.
* Risk Margin:
* Purpose: Ensure liabilities can be transferred to another insurer; reflects cost of holding capital for non-hedgeable risks.
* Calculated using Cost of Capital (CoC) approach:
– Estimate future SCR for non-hedgeable risks (longevity, morbidity, etc.).
– Multiply by the prescribed CoC rate (e.g. 6% in Solvency II).
– Discount back at the risk-free rate.
* Proxy models often used: simplified methods to approximate SCR run-off (e.g. scaling from current SCR using duration or proportionality).
Why is a risk margin required in insurance BEL valuation?
How is the risk margin calculated, and what proxy models are used in practice?
What are the steps in calculating the SCR under the VaR approach, including aggregation and correlations?
What are the steps in calculating the SCR using the run-off (or ruin probability) method?
How are Solvency Capital Requirements (SCR) calculated specifically in relation to economic risks?