REMBE > Clinical Apps > Flashcards

Clinical Apps Flashcards

(169 cards)

Study These Flashcards
1
Q
  1. Local effects of a heat application include
    a. Decreased diapedesis of leukocytes
    b. Local analgesia
    c. Decreased blood flow in the part
    d. Decreased tissue metabolism
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. The critical temperature for a sustained cold application to tissue is
    a. 54F
    b. 50F
    c. 48F
    d. 43F
A

D 6C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. The point of thermal indifference of the skin for water (normal body temperature) is
    a. 82F
    b. 84F
    c. 86F
    D. 92F
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Objectives of muscle reeducation programs include
    a. Development of motor awareness
    b. Development of voluntary response
    c. Development of strength
    d. All of the above
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Indications for an ice pack include
    a. Acute sprains, contusions, soft tissue injuries
    b. Acute bursitis
    c. Acute soft tissue injuries
    d. All of the above
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Local effects of cold applications include
    a. Vasoconstriction
    b. Increased local circulation
    c. Superficial penetration beneath skin surface
    d. Increased leukocytic migration through capillary walls
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. A good reaction to cold is characterized by
    a. Bright pink skin
    b. Maintained pulse rate
    c. A feeling of chilliness
    d. A sense of remorse
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. To increase knee flexion range of motion, the proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) technique of choice is hold-relax applied directly to the
    a. Iliopsoas
    b. Quadriceps
    c. Hamstrings
    d. Anterior tibialis
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. What relationship group presents a large problem to overcome by a supervisor?
    a. Intrapersonal
    b. Peer group
    c. Authority-responsibility
    d. Subordinate to supervisor
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. All of the following are part of the “seven deadly sins” of a manger’s style
    EXCEPT
    a. Using snap judgment
    b. Failure to make assignments and instructions clear
    c. Being a leader instead of a boss
    d. Being indifferent toward discipline and recognition
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. What does it take to be an effective leader? All of the following are examples of effective leadership EXCEPT
    a. Resolve conflict early
    b. Encourage creativity and innovation
    c. Provide little control or feedback
    d. Provide subordinates an opportunity for growth
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. The physical therapy supervisor believed the therapists in the department lacked initiative and did not have self-discipline in control. His management style therefore is
    a. Theory Y
    b. Theory X
    c. Theory Z
    d. Theory XYZ
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Which of the following muscles has the most important function as a downward rotator of the scapula?
    a. Levator scapulae
    b. Upper trapezius
    c. Pectoralis major
    d. Rhomboideus major
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. During your evaluation of a patient’s shoulder, you discover he has a tear in the supraspinatus muscle. What test did you use?
    a. Apley scratch test
    b. Tinel test
    c. Yergason test
    d. Drop-arm test
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. The acupressure point that alleviates pain of the forehead is known as
    a. Chu-chih
    b. Ho-ku
    c. Lieh-chueh
    d. Nei-kuan
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. When using the bindegervebs massage you should always end the massage with
    a. Balancing strokes
    b. Sunstrokes
    c. Hypothenor strokes
    d. Three-count strokes
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Which of the following muscles does NOT attach to the humerus?
    a. Teres major
    b. Pectoralis major
    c. Pectoralis minor
    d. Supraspinatus
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. You have determined that your patient has a hip flexion contracture. What test did you use to determine the contracture?
    a. Yergason
    b. Tinel
    c. Thomas
    d. Ober
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. A physical therapy director who manages by theory Y will assume all of the following EXCEPT:
    a. Employees inherently dislike work
    b. Employees seek to accept responsibility
    c. Employees will exercise self-direction
    d. Employees assume work is natural
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. Herzberg’s two-factor motivation theory includes which of the following?
    a. Satisfies and dissatisfies
    b. Advancement and promotion
    c. Responsibility and growth
    d. Longer work hours and increased work load
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. All of the following are theoretical perspectives of group conflict EXCEPT
    a. Analytical
    b. Psychoanalytical
    c. Developmental
    d. Systems approach
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. All of the following are components of communication within a physical therapy department, EXCEPT:
    a. Initiation
    b. Transmission
    c. Attending
    d. Feedback
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. All of the following are types of leadership, EXCEPT
    a. Nonparticipative
    b. Laissez-faire
    c. Paternalistic
    d. Bureaucratic
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. In a quality assurance program the outcome assessment is based upon the condition of the patient
    a. At time of evaluation
    b. During treatment phase
    c. At conclusion of care
    d. After discharge
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
892. In a quality assurance program, retrospective audit is performed a. After discharge b. At conclusion of care c. After treatment d. After evaluation
A
26
892. The primary purpose for record keeping in a physical therapy department is a. Communication of patient care b. Betterment of patient care c. Quality of care assessment d. Medical-legal aspects
B
27
892. The patient's medical record is utilized for all of the following, EXCEPT: a. Pateint's own use b. Third-party pay c. Medical-legal aspects d. Medical treatment
A
28
892. The problem-oriented medical record is directed toward all of the following EXCEPT a. Organizing date b. Preserving medical logic c. Assessing quality care d. Restrict structure of care
D
29
910. Departmental records and date are collected in physical therapy for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: a. Standards of practice b. Standards of work c. Departmental planning d. Organizational control
A
30
910. When considering the construction or redesigning of a physical therapy department, all of the following are true EXCEPT a. Size of hospital b. Referral sources c. Changes in practice d. Changes in equipment
D
31
910. All of the following fall under the category of malpractice EXCEPT a. breach of negative law b. willful departure from acceptable practice c. breach of positive law d. negligence of the law
A
32
910. which of the following muscles is most important for crutch walking? a. Latissimus dorsi and lower trapezius b. Posteruir deltoid and subscapularis c. Middle deltoid and pectoralis major d. Anterior deltoid and biceps
A
33
910. For the paraplegic patient, which gait is the most difficult when ambulating with crutches? a. Swing-to b. Swing-through c. Four-point d. Two-point
B
34
910. The stance phase during ambulation begins when a. Toes leave the ground b. Toes touch the ground c. Heel touches the ground d. Heel leaves the ground
C
35
910. Paralysis or marked weakness of the pretibial muscle group produces a. Foot drop during swing phase b. Excessive foot eversion c. Excessive foot inversion d. Plantar extension
A
36
917. 'williams' exercises are designed to strengthen which of the following muscles? a. Abdominal and gluteus maximus b. Gluteus maximus and medius c. Gluteus maximus and minimus d. Erectus spinae
A
37
917. The major muscles that act for inspiratory movements include a. External intercostals b. Internal intercostals c. Scalene d. Sternocleidomastoid
A
38
917. An individual fatigues easily doing progressive resistive exercises. Which of the following exercise programs will produce LESS fatigue? a. Oxford technique b. deLorme technique c. cybex technique d. hellebrandt
A
39
917. when using PNF, the movement is facilitated at its onset by a. quich stretch b. active stretch c. extensor thrust d. flexor thrust
A
40
917. when a cane is used for ambulation, usually it is used a. opposite the affected side b. same side as injury c. only during phase stance d. only during push-off
A
41
917. during locomotion, the adductor muscles of the thigh a. have peak activity just after heel contact b. have a high activity level in early stance phase c. have a high activity level in late stance phase d. spike peak activity just before toe-off
D
42
917. during locomotion the erector spinae muscles a. have a high activity during early stance phase b. have a high activity during late stance phase c. are silent during swing phase d. have a low-grade activity during swing phase
D
43
917. during swing phase in locomotion a. ankle dorsiflexors show only slight activity b. calf muscles are active c. quadriceps are showing strong activity d. hamstrings are silent
A
44
917. during stance phase in locomotion a. calf muscles become active b. quadriceps are active c. hip abductors are active d. all of the above
D
45
917. actions of the trapezius (all or in part) include a. protraction of the shoulder girdle b. downward rotation of the shoulder girdle c. shoulder girdle elevation d. shoulder girdle does not move
C
46
917. which of the following muscles are important in stabilizing the scapula? a. Levator scapulae b. Latissimus dorsi c. Deltoid d. Serratus anterior
D
47
928. When performing mobilization, the inferior glide of the humeral head is performed with the shoulder in what position? a. Slightly abducted to 50 b. Abducted to 300 c. Externally rotated d. Internally rotated
B
48
928. During mobilization, the anterior glide with external rotation adds a maximal stretch to the a. Anterior portion of the capsule b. Posterior portion of the capsule c. Anterior portion of the head of the humerus d. Posterior portion of the head of the humerus
A
49
928. When the patella is mobilized with the cephalad movement, the force is in what direction? a. Proximally b. Distally c. Medially d. Laterally
A
50
928. When the patella is mobilized with the medial movement, the force is in what direction? a. Laterally b. Medially c. Proximally d. Distally
B
51
928. When the patella is mobilized with the lateral movement, the force is in what direction? a. Proximally b. Distally c. Medially d. Laterally
D
52
928. Which of the following spinal orthoses limit lumbar extension and reduce lordosis? a. Chairback brace b. Knight spinal brace c. William's brace d. Taylor brace
C
53
928. The Philadelphia collar is nearly as effective as what other rigid cervical brace for controlling flexion-extension between the occiput and third cervical vertebrae? a. Hard cervical collars b. Four-poster cervical brace c. Somi brace d. Soft cervical collars
B
54
928. Pain that is experienced before any point restriction can be felt indicates what type of lesion? a. Acute stage b. Subacute stage c. Joint hypomobility d. Painful one
A
55
928. Which of the following muscles is NOT supplied by the median nerve? a. Flexor carpi radialis b. Flexor digitorum superficialis c. Flexor pollicus longus d. Abductor pollicus longus
D
56
928. Which of the following muscles is NOT supplued by the ulnar nerve? a. Flexor carpi ulnaris b. Palmaris brevis c. Adductor pollicis d. Opponens pollicis
D
57
928. All of the following muscles act on the wrist EXCEPT: a. Flexor carpi radialis b. Extensor carpi ulnaris c. Flexor carpi ulnaris d. Extensor digitorum communis
D
58
928. All of the following msucles have an action on both the wrist and the digits EXCEPT a. Extensor pollicis brevis b. Extensor indicis proprius c. Extensor carpi radialis longus d. Flexor digitorum profundus
C
59
Protraction (abduction) of the shoulder girdle is seriously weakened by the loss of the a. Middle trapezius b. Serratus anterior c. Latissimus dorsi d. Pectoralis minor
B
60
The dorsal scapular nerve supplies the a. Serratus anterior b. Latissimus dorsi c. Levator scapulae d. Pectoralis minor
C
61
942. Your patient is in the prone position with the knee flexed. You compressed the heel and rotated the leg. The patient complained of pain. What test did you use? a. Mcmurray b. Apley's c. Tinel d. Ober
B
62
942. Which of the following motions would be severely limited with a median nerve injury? a. Elbow flexion b. Elbow extension c. Forearm pronation d. Forearm supination
C
63
942. Which of the following muscles is necessary to raise the arm straight overhead? a. Upper trapezius b. Middle trapezius c. Lower trapezius d. Serratus anterior
D
64
942. Loss of which of the following muscles will markedly limit hyperextension of the arm? a. Posterior deltoid b. Latissimus dorsi c. Teres major d. Pectoralis major
A
65
946. A positive Ober test indicates a. Contracted biceps b. Contracted gastrocnemius c. Contracted iliotibial band d. Contracted iliopsoas
C
66
946. Which of the following muscles is a pure flexor of the elbow? a. Biceps brachii b. Brachioradialis c. Pronator teres d. Brachialis
D
67
948. The knee joint has a. 1 0 freedom of motion b. 20 freedom of motion c. 30 freedom of motion d. 40 freedom of motion
B
68
948. If pain is felt during a restricted joint movement, what type of lesion is present? a. Acute b. Subacute c. Joint hypomobility d. Painful one
C
69
948. The radial nerve has been severed mid arm. The resulting deformity is a. Claw hand b. Ape hand c. Wrist drop d. A combination of claw hand and ape hand
C
70
948. A child turns his head to the right, his right arm extends and his left arm flexes. What reflex did the child exhibit? a. Asymmetrical tonic neck b. Symmetrical tonic neck c. Asymmetrical tonic labyrinthine d. Symmetrical tonic labytinthine
A
71
948. A cerebrovascular accident patient has a subluxed right shoulder. The subluxation occurs as a result of a. No portions of the mating cartilages are in contact b. Angle of fracture of the humerus c. Reducing the fracture of the humerus d. Partial separation of the articular cartilages
D
72
948. In normal development, a child will roll from prone to supine at what age? a. 0-3 months b. 3-5 months c. 4-6 months d. 6-8 months
C
73
948. In normal development, a child will assume the pivot prone position at what age? a. 0-3 months b. 3-5 months c. 4-6 months d. 6-8 months
B
74
948. In normal development, a child begins to reach for objects and to crawl at what age? a. 0-3 months b. 4-6 months c. 6-8 months d. 3-5 months
D
75
948. During prone weight-bearing posture, the child progresses through various stages of motor control. Which of the following refers to rocking or weight shifting? a. Controlled mobility b. Stability c. Static-dynamic level d. Skill of locomotion
A
76
948. A positive posterior draw sign signifies what ligament is torn? a. Lateral collateral b. Anterior cruciate c. Posterior cruciate d. Posterior meniscal
C
77
948. When testing for a medial collateral ligament tear, apply a. Valgus stress b. Varus stress c. Posterior stress d. Anterior stress
A
78
when testing for lateral knee stability, apply a. valgus stress b. varus stress posterior stress c. anterior stress
B
79
960. a positive anterior draw sign indicates what ligament is torn? a. Anterior cruciate b. Posterior cruciate c. Anterior meniscal d. Lateral collateral
A
80
960. During knee flexion and extension, what will produce an audible clicking in the joint line? a. Mcmurray test b. Ober test c. Apley's compression test d. Thomas test
A
81
960. A positive Tinel sign indicates pain over a. Severed nerve b. Severed ligament c. Severed muscle d. severed blood vessel
A
82
960. the quadriceps muscles reach their peak of activity during locomotion a. at the beginning of the swing phase b. late in the swing phase c. following heel contact during stance phase d. late in the stance phase
C
83
960. which of the following presents itself with a median nerve paralysis? a. Flexion of the thumb is absent b. Opposition of the thumb is lost c. There is atrophy of the thenar muscles d. All of the above
D
84
960. What reactions causes segmental rotation during normal development? a. STLR b. ATNR c. Body on body d. STNR
C
85
966. Circumduction is characteristic of joints with a. 1 0 of freedom of motion b. 20 of freedom of motion c. 30 of freedom of motion d. 2 or 30 of freedom of motion
D
86
966. The subscapularis a. Is attached to the rib cage b. Inserts greater tubercle of the humerus c. Has a nerve supply only in the lower subscapular nerves d. Is one of the "cuff muscles"
D
87
966. The following muscles originate on the scapula and inserts into the humerus. They are known as a. "cuff muscles" b. Brachialis c. Triceps brachii d. Biceps brachii
A
88
969. Timing for emphasis, a PNF technique, is utilized by the therapist to accomplish a. Decrease over mobile joints b. Increased range of motion c. Increased strength to normal muscles d. An overflow to weak muscles
D
89
969. Shoulder external rotation is performed by a. Subscapularis b. Teres minor c. Teres major d. Pectoralis major
B
90
969. Shoulder internal rotation is achived by a. Posterior deltoid b. Teres minor c. Latissimus dorsi d. Pectoralis minor
C
91
972. The upper and lower portions of the trapezius are synergists in a. Elevation b. Retraction c. Protraction d. Upward rotation
D
92
972. The subscapularis in infraspinatus a. Are antagonists in shoulder internal rotation b. Are antagonists in scapula internal rotation c. Elevate the head of the humerus in shoulder abduction d. Are synergists for shoulder flexion
A
93
972. The patella a. Provides poor leverage for the quadriceps muscles when the knee is extended b. Provides better leverage for the quadriceps muscle when the knee is flexed c. Plays no role in the mechanics of the knee joint d. Lifts the quadriceps tendon away from the joint axis
D
94
972. In strong wrist flexion, the long finger flexors will act. The synergist that will neutralize the flexion tendencies of the long finger flexors is a. Extensor carpi radialis longus b. Extensor carpi ulnaris c. Brachioradialis d. Long finger extensors
D
95
972. In hypertension at the shoulder joint, especially with resistance, the posterior portion of the deltoideus will also tend to rotate the arm outwardly. The synergist that will neutralize this tendency is a. Latissimus dorsi b. Teres minor c. Posterior deltoid d. Anterior deltoid
A
96
977. In radial deviation of the wrist, the flexor carpi radialis will also tend to flex the wrist unless this tendency is neutralized by certain muscles acting as synergist, which would be the a. Extensor carpi dardialis longus b. Flexor carpi radialis brevis c. Extensor digitorum d. Extensor pollicus longus
A
97
977. In ulnar deviation of the wrist, the extensor carpi ulnaris will also tend to extend the wrist. The synergist that will neutralize this tendency is a. Flexor carpi radialis b. Palmaris longus c. Flexor digitorum profundus d. Flexor carpi ulnaris
D
98
977. Consider thigh flexion. The tensor fascia Iatae is a prime mover for flexion but it will also tend to abduct the thigh. This tendency will be neutralized by the a. Sartorius b. Iliacus c. Psoas major d. Pectineus
D
99
980. In thigh extension, the gluteus maximus, adductor magnus, and the hamstring muscles are the principal prime movers, the first two expecially when the thigh is flexed 450 or greater. The adductor magnus will tend to adduct the thigh unless this tendency is neutralized by the a. Pectineus b. Iliopsoas c. Gluteus minimus d. Gluteus medius
D
100
980. You wish to increase range of motion of a muscles. You can use hold-relax or contrac-relax techinique. What is the main difference. a. Isotonic contractions-both b. Direction of movement c. Verbal command d. Causes pain
C
101
982. If forearm pronation is desired without elbow flexion, the synergists preventing or neutralizing the flexion include a. Triceps brachii b. Brachialis c. Brachioradialis d. Extensor carpi radialis brevis and longus
A
102
982. You wish to enhance stability of the hip for ambulation. Which of the following PNF procedures would you use? a. Cutaneous stimulation b. Joint approximation c. Isometric contraction d. Concentric contraction
B
103
982. When the patella is mobilized with the caudal movement, the force is in what direction? a. Laterally b. Medially c. Distally d. Proximally
C
104
982. An increased inclination of the pelvis is also known as a. Posterior tilt b. Backward tilt c. Erect d. Forward tilt
D
105
982. A patient has a positive Trendelenburg sign, what does this mean? a. Pelvis drops on affected side b. Pelvis drops on unaffected side c. Pelvis does not move d. Pelvis is dislocated
B
106
987. A spinal cord patient with a C-5 lesion cannot do any of the following, EXCEPT a. Feed himself b. Assist lifting himself c. Dress himself d. Bathe himself
B
107
987. A spinal cord patient with a T-1 lesion can do all of the following EXCEPT a. Wheelchair independence b. Feed himself c. Functional ambulation d. Dress himself
C
108
987. A spinal cord patient at the level of L-4 has all of the following muscles intact EXCEPT a. Quadriceps b. Hamstrings c. Psoas major d. Rectus abdominus
B
109
The muscle responsible for unlocking the extended knee position is a. Gastro-soleus b. Biceps femoris c. Semitendinosus d. Popliteus
D
110
991. An individual ambulation with a spinal cord severance at L-4 to S-2 can perform all of the following EXCEPT a. Independent ambulation without braces b. Independent ambulation with short leg braces c. Completely free of wheelchair d. Ambulate with forearm crutch
A
111
991. An individual with a quadrilateral socket will bear most of the body weight on a. Quadriceps b. Gluteus maximus c. ASIS of the pelvis d. Ischium of the pelvis
D
112
991. The mechanical advantage of a lever is a. Ratio of the length of the force arm to the resistance encountered b. Ratio of the length of the weight arm to the effort applied c. Product of the force and the resistance encountered d. Ratio of the length of the force arm and the length of the weight arm
D
113
991. During locomotion the calf group of muscles a. Reach peak activity during swing phase b. Are relatively silent during swing phase c. Reach peak activity during stance phase d. Are relatively silent during stance phase
C
114
991. Which of the following muscles is an elbow flexor and is supplied by the radial nerve? a. Biceps brachii b. Brachialis c. Pronator teres d. Brachioradialis
D
115
Which of the following muscles can carry out its function without respect to the position of the forearm? a. Biceps brachii b. Brachialis c. Pronator teres d. Brachioradialis
B
116
997. Which of the following muscles is NOT a "cuff muscle" at the shoulder joint? a. Supraspinatus b. Subscapularis c. Infraspinatus d. Teres major
D
117
997. Which of the following muscles has LEAST effect on eversion of the ankle? a. Peroneus longus b. Peroneus brevis c. Extensor digitorum longus d. Extensor halluces longus
D
118
997. Which of the following does NOT apply to joints that permits 3 0 of freedom of motion? a. Hip joint b. The axes all pass through the center of the joint c. Glenohumeral joint d. Condyloid joints
D
119
997. Which of the following is NOT pertinent to Newton's Third Law? a. Action and reaction are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction b. The forces acting upon a body neutralize each other c. Applies to all forces, including muscle forces d. Bodies at rest tend to remain at rest; bodies in motion tend to remain in motion
D
120
997. You wish to develop trunk control for a cerebrovascular accident patient. Which of the following PNF techniques would you use? a. Hold-relax b. Rhythmic stabilization c. Rhythmic initiation d. Slow reversal hold
C
121
997. A primarily phasic muscle may respond favorably to what type of stretch in the lengthened range? a. Active b. Slow c. Continuous d. Quick
D
122
997. Which of the following actions take place at the shoulder joint? a. Flexion-extension movements in a frontal plane b. Flexion-extension movements in a sagittal plane c. Abduction-adduction movements in a sagittal plane d. Abduction-adduction movements in a transverse plane
B
123
997. Patient will progress through stages of motor control. All of the following are the stages EXCEPT a. Uncontrolled mobility b. Mobility c. Stability d. Skill
A
124
1005. Which of the following is NOT related to the cardinal planes of the body? a. They are perpendicular to each other b. They pass through the center of gravity of the body c. The sagittal plane divides the body into front and back parts d. The transverse plane divides the body into upper and lower parts
C
125
1005. Which of the following PNF techniques will provide controlled mobility for your patient? a. Repeated contractions b. Slow reversal hold c. Hold-relax d. Rhythmic stabilization
B
126
1005. Which of the following muscles will have the highest function excursion? a. Gluteus maximus b. Psoas major c. Deltoideus d. Semimembranosus
D
127
1008. A muscle contracts without being allowed to shorten or lengthen. This is called a. Isotonic contraction b. Isometric contraction c. Concentric contraction d. Eccentric contraction
B
128
1008. Which of the following muscles comes closer to being a pure internal rotator at the shoulder? a. Anterior deltoideus b. Teres major c. Latissimus dorsi d. Subscapularis
D
129
1010. Which of the following muscles are synergists for scapula retraction, but antagonists for shoulder girdle upward and downward rotation? a. Trapezius and serratus anterior b. Trapezius and rhomboids c. Upper and lower trapezius d. Anterior and posterior deltoids
B
130
1010. A positive Trendelenburg sign results from paralysis of a. Hip abductors b. Hip flexors c. Hip extensors d. Hip adductors
A
131
1010. The biceps will supinate the forearm, especially when the elbow is flexed. The synergist that will neutralize the supinating tendencies of the biceps is a. Coracobrachialis b. Brachialis c. Flexor carpi radialis d. Pronator teres
D
132
1013. The biceps and the supinator muscle will supinate the forearm. If supination alone is desired, the synergist that will neutralize the flexion tendencies of the biceps is a. Brachioradialis b. Extensor carpi radialis brevis and longus c. Triceps brachii d. Extensor digitorum
C
133
1013. In strong wrist flexion, the flexor carpi ulnaris will also tend to cause ulnar deviation at the wrist unless this tendency is neutralized by a synergist, which would be a. Palmaris longus b. Extensor carpi radialis longus c. Extensor carpi ulnaris d. None of the above
D
134
1013. In ulnar deviation of the wrist, the flexor carpi ulnaris will have a tendency to also flex the wrist unless this tendency is neutralized by a synergist, which is the a. Palmaris longus b. Extensor carpi radialis longus c. Extensor carpi ulnaris d. Abductor pollicus longus
C
135
1013. The peroneus longus is a plantar flexor of the foot. It will also evert the foot unless this tendency is neutralized by the a. Tibialis anterior b. Tibialis posterior c. Flexor digitorum longus d. Flexor halluces longus
B
136
1013. The tibialis anterior has two actions: foot inversion and foot dorsiflexion. The synergist that will neutralize the tendencies of foot inversion when dorsiflexion is desired is a. Peroneus tertius b. Peroneus brevis c. Peroneus longus d. Posterior tibialis
A
137
1013. The shoulder commonly has limited range in external rotation, abduction, and flexion. These are found in what PNF pattern? a. D1 F b. D1 E c. D2 F d. D2 E
C
138
1013. The patient is placed in supine position. This would be the best position to test a. Knee flexion-fair b. Ankle plantar flexion — nonweight-bearing tests for gastrocnemius and soleus c. Trunk elevation — fair d. Sartorius — poor
D
139
1013. All of the following movements could be tested with the patient in the standing position EXCEPT a. Elevation of pelvis b. Hip external or internal rotation — poor c. Ankle plantar flexion, for soleus d. Hip abduction — normal and good
D
140
1013. Your patient lurches backward during stance phase. What type of gait is he demonstrating? a. Wide-base gait b. Antalgic gait c. Gluteus medius gait d. Extensor gait
D
141
1013. A common above-knee amputee gait deviation is lateral trunk bending. Which of the following is NOT a cause? a. Weak hip abductor b. Weak hip adductor c. Pain or discomfort of the stump d. Abducted socket
B
142
1013. A common above-knee amputee deviation is circumduction. Which of the following is NOT a cause for this deviation? a. Insufficient knee flexion b. Inadequate suspension c. Socket is too large d. Excessive plantar flexion
C
143
1013. A common above-knee amputee gait deviation is wide base walking. Which of the following is NOT a cause for this deviation? a. Prosthesis too short b. Mechanical hip joint set in abduction c. Contracted hip abductors d. Pain in crotch area
A
144
1013. The SACH prosthesis is defined as a. Solid ankle cork heel b. Solid ankle cushioned heel c. Soft ankle cushioned heel d. Soft ankle customed heel
B
145
1013. An excessive plantar-flexion bumper in a single-axis ankle allows that to happen? a. Foot-flat will occur prematurely b. Prevent normal knee flexion c. Cause slapping on the floor d. Prosthesis is in plantar flexion
C
146
1013. The dorsiflexion bumper permits the prosthetic transverse ankle axis to do which of the following? a. Dorsiflexion b. Plantar-flex c. Rotate d. Remain in neutral
A
147
1013. The PTB socket is defined as a. Posterior tendon bearing b. Patellar tendon bearing c. Patellar transfer bearing d. Pressure tendon bearing
B
148
1013. The Lenox Hill orthosis provides what type of stability to the knee? a. Extension b. Flexion c. Mediolateral D. None of the above
C
149
1013. A plantar-flexion (posterior) ankle stop allows which of the following? a. Plantar-flexion b. Dorsiflexion c. Inversion d. Eversion
B
150
1013. A dorsiflexion (anterior) ankle stop allows which of the following? a. Plantar-flexion b. Dorsiflexion c. Inversion d. Eversion
A
151
1013. The maximum loose-pack position is defined as a. Active position b. Prone position c. Supine position d. Resting position
D
152
1013. The close-packed position is characterized by which of the following criteria? a. Joint capsule is maximally relaxed b. Joint capsule is maximally tensed c. Minimal contact with concave surfaces minimal contact with convex surfaces
B
153
1013. The translatoric gliding mobilization technique attempts to follow a. Parallel joint surfaces b. Oblique joint surfaces c. Articular surfaces d. Parallel treatment plane
D
154
1013. The objective of joint mobilization is to quickly restore the active a. Roll-gliding b. Traction c. Rolling d. Treatment
A
155
1013. An individual has been referred to physical therapy for posture evaluation. The following signs were found which led you to discover a scoliosis. Which one is NOT a sign or symptom of scoliosis? a. One leg shorter b. Pelvic obliquity c. Elevated shoulder d. Flat back
D
156
1037. An individual has had a very shor below-elbow amputation. What control motion would you use to teach the patient to control his prosthesis? a. Pronation-supination b. Shrug control c. Arm flexion d. Scapula-retraction
C
157
1037. An individual demonstrates a steppage gait during his ambulation activities. You would describe a steppage gait as excessive a. Knee and hip flexion b. Knee and hip extension c. Knee and ankle flexion d. Knee and ankle extension
A
158
1037. Your patient has a positive Trendelenburg which results in what type of gait? a. Gluteus maximus b. Gluteus medius c. Steppage d. Antalgic
B
159
1040. How massage assists the venous flow of blood A. Petrissage B. Friction C. Mechanically D. Vibration E. 1 cun F. Massage G. Low back H. Effleurage I. Trapezius J. Tapotement
C
160
1040. Relieves subcutaneous scar tissue A. Petrissage B. Friction C. Mechanically D. Vibration E. 1 cun F. Massage G. Low back H. Effleurage I. Trapezius J. Tapotement
F
161
1040. Stroke used at the beginning and ending of massage A. Petrissage B. Friction C. Mechanically D. Vibration E. 1 cun F. Massage G. Low back H. Effleurage I. Trapezius J. Tapotement
H
162
1040. Massage's three-count stroking A. Petrissage B. Friction C. Mechanically D. Vibration E. 1 cun F. Massage G. Low back H. Effleurage I. Trapezius J. Tapotement
I
163
1040. Massage's horizontal stroking A. Petrissage B. Friction C. Mechanically D. Vibration E. 1 cun F. Massage G. Low back H. Effleurage I. Trapezius J. Tapotement
G
164
1040. Assists the venous return A. Petrissage B. Friction C. Mechanically D. Vibration E. 1 cun F. Massage G. Low back H. Effleurage I. Trapezius J. Tapotement
A
165
1040. A massage around bony prominences A. Petrissage B. Friction C. Mechanically D. Vibration E. 1 cun F. Massage G. Low back H. Effleurage I. Trapezius J. Tapotement
B
166
1040. Provides a passive stretch to given muscle groups A. Petrissage B. Friction C. Mechanically D. Vibration E. 1 cun F. Massage G. Low back H. Effleurage I. Trapezius J. Tapotement
H
167
1040. A massage for stimulation purposes A. Petrissage B. Friction C. Mechanically D. Vibration E. 1 cun F. Massage G. Low back H. Effleurage I. Trapezius J. Tapotement
J
168
1040. Width of the thumb A. Petrissage B. Friction C. Mechanically D. Vibration E. 1 cun F. Massage G. Low back H. Effleurage I. Trapezius J. Tapotement
E
169
1040. A massage treatment for peripheral neuritis A. Petrissage B. Friction C. Mechanically D. Vibration E. 1 cun F. Massage G. Low back H. Effleurage I. Trapezius J. Tapotement
D
REMBE
flashcards
Decks in class (6)
# Cards
Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2026 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions