Ortho Flashcards by 567 123

The correct emergency treatment for an injured limb is to:
a. Secure the injured limb to the uninjured one
b. Straighten the injured limb to a normal position
c. Support the injured limb without straightening it
d. Not touch the injured limb

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An angulated fracture of a long bone is also known as
a. Oblique
b. Transverse
c. Spiral
d. Greenstick

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An involucrum is
a. Sheath of new bone
b. Pyogenic lesion of a joint
c. Condition caused by premature closure of an epiphysis
d. Tumor metastasis to bone

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The clinical picture of progressive muscular athrophy (Aran- Duchenne Type) includes
a. initial weakness and atrophy of the lower extremities
b. gross sensory losses over weakened or atrophied muscles
c. hyperactive deep reflexes are first evidence of the disorder
d. usually the first evidence of the disorder is an atrophy of the intrinsic muscles of the hand

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A patient has a congenital coxa valga deformity. This means there is
a. An increase in the angle of inclination between the neck of the femur
b. A lengthening of the extremity on the affected side
c. An increase in the angle formed between the neck of the femur and its shaft
d. An abnormality of the upper end of the tibia

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In case of delayed union of a fracture of the tibia or femur
a. The patient should drink more milk
b. Immobilization will be shortened
c. Full weight-bearing in a walking cast
d. Protect the fracture line against undue strain

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In the repair of fractures
a. A spiral fracture heals more rapidly than a transverse fracture
b. The humerus and forearm bones require about the same duration to heal as the femur and tibia do
c. Beyond puberty, age has more influence on the rate of fracture healing
d. Healing time is indirectly proportional to total volume of damaged bone and the breadth of fracture defect

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Causes for nonunion of a fracture include
a. Inadequate fixation
b. Adequate fixation
c. Oversupply of calcium in diet
d. Not enough calcium in the diet

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In Guillan-Barre syndrome
a. There is an apparent hypertrophy of the muscles of the calf
b. There is polyneuritis, characterized by a slowly progressive, ascending motor weakness
c. The symptoms are easily confused with those of neuropathy
D. Distal muscle groups tend to be involved more commonly than proximal

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In pseudohypertrophic muscular dystrophy there is
a. Symmetric, ascending motor weakness, sometimes easily confused with poliomyelitis
b. Apparent hypertrophy of muscles of the legs and forearms
c. Normal muscles about the shoulder girdle
d. Hypertrophy of the extensor muscles of the legs and trunk

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Klumpke’s paralysis
a. Results from injury to cervical roots 5 and 6 during the birth process
b. Results from injury to cervical 8 and first dorsal root at birth
c. Involves the lower arm and leg
d. Movements of the wrist and fingers are not affected

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In Erb-Duchenne or upper arm paralysis the
a. Brachial plexus is involved
b. Cervical plexus is involved (cervical roots 5-6)
c. Radial nerve is involved
d. Median nerve is involved

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Spina bifida myelocele
a. Is the least severe form of spina bifida
b. Is the most common form of spina bifida
c. Has a low infant mortality rate
d. Infection may easily take place

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A patient is diagnosed as having a coxa vara deformity. This means
a. There is an abnormality of the upper end of the tibia
b. There is a decrease in the angle of inclination between the neck of the femur and its shaft
c. There is a lengthening of the extremity on the affected side
d. It can be either a congenital or an acquired deformity

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In spina bifida myelomeningocele
a. The hernia sac contains only cerebrospinal fluid
b. The hernia sac contains cerebrospinal fluid and spinal cord or nerve roots or both
c. There is less likely to be a neurological deficit in the lower extremities
d. The central canal of the spinal cord is greatly dilated and contains a large amount of cerebrospinal fluid

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An osteotomy is
a. Removal of a sequestrum
b. Fusion of a joint
c. Debridement of osteomyelitis
d. Operative sectioning of a bone

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Cancellous or spongy bone
a. Is nonlamellar
b. Is the structural feature of the diaphysis
c. Is found in the epiphyseal areas of long bones
d. Has the Haversian system as its conspicuous structural feature

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Hyaline cartilage is nourished through the
a. Nutrient arteries of the diaphysis
b. Vessels from the periosteum
c. Joint fluid
d. Haversian canals

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The four basic concepts which should be considered for fractures are
a. Reduction, refraction, retention, and rehabilitation
b. Recluse, reduction, retention, and rehabilitation
c. Recognition, reduction, retention and rehabilitation
d. Refracture, reduction, retention and rehabilitation

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All of the following are signs and symptoms of a shoulder dislocation, EXCEPT
a. Injured shoulder is held in a flexed position
b. Head of humerus can be palpated
c. Localized pain in the area of injury
d. Definite sensation of crepitus

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Which of the following is frequently injured as a complication of shoulder dislocation?
a. Radial nerve
b. Radial artery
c. Axillary nerve
d. Axillary artery

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A clinical picture in which there is a deformity of (1) foot inversion, (2) forefoot adduction, and (3) plantar flexion would most likely be
a. Talipes equinovarus
b. Talipes calcaneovalgus
c. Talipes valgus
d. Talipes calcaneus

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The etiology of congenital dysplasia of the hip is
a. Trauma at birth
b. The virus of German measles during the first trimester
c. Inadequate nutritional status of the mother
d. Unknown

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Which of the following statements does NOT apply to osteogenesis imperfecta?
a. A rare congenital skeletal disease
b. Bones are extremely fragile and multiple fractures are common
c. The etiology is unknown
d. Bone fragility and the tendency for fractures is more severe following injury

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Osteosclerosis is characterized by a. Fibrous dysplasia of bone b. Regions of increased bone density noted on roentgenograms c. Decreased bone density giving a moth-eaten appearance d. Demineralization of bone tissue

Myositis ossificans is characterized by a. Pathologic fractures b. Osteosclerosis of bone tissue c. A fibrous dysplasia of bone d. Transformation of soft tissue structures into bony consistency

A patient who has fallen downstairs complains of pain in his left groin and gluteal are; the right hip is flexed, adducted, and internally rotated. The most likely diagnosis is a. Fractured acetabulum b. Dislocated hip c. Fractured femoral head d. Dislocated tibia

Balanced skeletal traction is frequently used for the treatment of fractures of the a. Patella b. Tibia c. Femur d. Humerus

Which of the following is a positive sign of a fracture? a. Crepitus b. Abrasions c. Shock d. pain

Which of the following is the first stage of bony callus formation following a fracture? a. Metaplasia b. Provisional callus c. Periosteum d. Blood clot

The Denis-Browne splint is used for the correction of a. Talipes equinovarus b. Talipes calcaneovalgus c. Talipes valgus d. All of the above

Osteoclasis refers to a. A condition in which there is an abnormal number of osteoclasts in bone tissue b. A decrease in the number of osteoclasts c. The surgical removal of a sequestrum d. The nonsurgical fracturing of a bone to correct a deformity

The term phocomelia refers to a. A defect in which a finger of either hand is missing b. A congenital absence of the sacrum c. Underdevelopment of the femur d. A complete absence of a middle or intercalary segment of a limb

A congenital deformity in which there are supernumerary digits of the hand or foot is called a. Syndactyly b. Macrodactyly c. Microdactyly d. Polydactyly

The most common and serious deformities as far as congenital dislocations are concerned affect the a. Spine b. Shoulder C. Hip d. Knee

Buck's traction is used in the treatment of femoral fractures for a child aged a. 5 years- 40 pounds b. 3 years- 30 pounds c. 3 years- 40 pounds d. 6 years- 60 pounds

Heberden's nodes are associated with a. Osteoarthritis b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Atrophic arthritis d. Gout

Tophi are associated with a. Osteoarthritis b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Gout d. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head

Tuberculosis of the spine is also known as a. Legg-calve-perthes disease b. Little's disease c. Still's disease d. Pott's disease

Skeletal traction is most frequently used in treating fractures of the a. Tibia b. Femoral shunt c. Neck of the femur d. Knee

The Pearson attachment when used in conjunction with a Thomas splint, allows a. Immobilization of the hip b. Hip flexion c. Knee flexion d. Ankle flexion

In differentiating osteoarthritis from rheumatoid arthritis, the latter a. Is a systemic disease; the patient is sick b. Is associated with chronic inflammatory signs and cutaneous changes c. Involves the distal interphalangeal joints producing the fusiform finger d. More often involves weight-bearing joints

In a fractured bone a. Callus may be minimal and predominately bone if the fracture is an undisplaced linear fracture b. There may be limited callus in fractures of the shafts of young bones c. Callus is minimal in fractures where movement takes place while it is healing d. The hematoma prevents callus formation

When a bone is fracture, blood extravasates into the area and forms a hematoma, which begins to organize within 24 hours. This organization of the hematoma means that a. The blood clot dissipates and is absorbed b. A blood clot has formed c. The blood clot is invated by granulation tissue d. The healing process has not begun

The clinical picture of Charcot's joint includes a. The joint range of motion is decreased b. There is swelling of the joint c. Pain is severe d. There is stability of the joint

The term hydrarthrosis refers to a. An operation to remove fluid from a cavity of the body b. A condition associated with rheumatoid arthritis c. No joint effusion d. A form of hydrocephalus

The clinical picture of scoliosis includes a. Inequality of leg length b. Asymmetric weakness of abdominal muscles c. An A-P curvature of the spine that is exaggerated d. Senile osteoporosis

The silver fork deformity results from an unreduced or inadequately reduced a. Fracture of the lower ulna b. Colle's fracture c. Fracture of the first metacarpal d. Fracture of one or more carpals

Volkmann's ischemic contracture a. Is a congenital deformity b. Is a complication of fractures or injuries to the lower end of the radius c. Results in osteoporosis following fractures because Volkmanns's canals are obliterated d. Results in a severe clawhand deformity

In differentiating osteoarthritis from rheumatoid arthritis, the former a. Is a systemic disease b. Is more commonly associated with acute inflammatory signs and cutaneous changes c. Involves the distal interphalangeal joints rather than the proximal joint d. Results in bony ankylosis and osteoporosis

A spinal fracture is defined as one which a. Results from torsion of the limb b. Is at an angle across the bone c. Occurs mainly in children d. Results from metastatic tumor

Of the three degrees of congenital dysplasia of the hip, which of the following is found or observed in acetabular dysplasia? a. There is subluxation of the hip b. There is dislocation of the hip c. The acetabulum is shallow but the head of the femur remains seated d. The head of the femur rides upward and outward from the acetabulum

Characteristic pathological changes in congenital dislocation of the hip include a. The acetabulum is usually shallow b. Anterior dislocation is more common than posterior dislocation of the femoral head c. The femoral head is larger on the affected side d. The abductor muscles become shortened and contracted

An oblique fracture is described as one which a. Occurs frequently in children b. Proceeds at an angle across bone c. Is typical of ski injuries d. Results from torsion

A greenstick fracture is best described as one which a. Occurs in people with recent activity b. Results from metastatic tumor c. Occurs frequently in children and heals rapidly d. Results from twisting the limb

A fatigue fracture occurs as a result of a. People increasing level of activity b. Children playing and falling very hard c. Metastatic tumors from the breast d. Recent ski injury

The Denis-Browne splint a. Is used in the treatment of a silver fork fracture b. May be used to reverse the deformities of Pott's disease c. Can be used in stabilizing the cervical area in treating whiplash injuries d. Is frequently used in correcting the deformities of a congenital clubfoot

A disease in which there is deficiency in mineralization of bone matrix is a. Scurvy b. Osteitis deformans c. Osteoporosis d. Osteomalacia

A shepherd's-crook deformity a. Involves the humerus b. May be associated with fibrous dysplasia of the femur c. Would most likely be present in children d. Is roentgenographic evidence of osteogenesis imperfecta

The increase in the length of long bones a. Is appositional growth b. Take place at the epiphyseal plates c. Progresses at a rapid rate under the endosteum d. Results in a lengthening of Sharpey's fibers

Osteoblasts are located in a. Haversian canals b. Volkmann's canals c. Lacunae d. None of the above

The Volkmann's canals a. Run parallel with the length of long bone b. Contain the processes of osteocytes c. Are located only in cancellous or spongy bone d. None of the above

Bone cells called osteoblasts are a. Multinucleated cells b. Associated with the necrotic c. Associated with bone resorption d. Precursors of the osteocytes

An osteone is a. A juvenile bone cell b. A mature bone cell c. A Haversian system d. The stem cell for an osteoclast

A pathologic fracture is best defined as one which a. Occurs mainly in children after an illness b. Occurs as a result from torsion of a limb c. Is first recognized from a ski injury d. Is most frequently caused by a primary tumor

Ewing's sarcoma a. Is a malignant tumor of medullary origin b. Simulates a low-grade osteomyelitis c. Has an onset characterized by pain, tenderness, fever, and leukocytosis d. All of the above

Which of the following muscles are usually involved in Erb-Duchenne paralysis? a. Deltoideus and internal rotators of the shoulder b. Biceps, brachialis, supinator, and brachioradialis c. Wrist flexors and finger flexors d. Wrist extensors

Which of the following condition is found to be more common in children than adults? a. Pyogenic arthritis b. Osteitis pubis c. Acromegaly d. Osteitis deformans

Progressive muscular atrophy (Aran-Duchenne type) is a. A primary disease of the spinal cord b. Characterized by a slow degeneration of the anterior horn cells c. Found most often in adults between ages 25 and 45 years d. All of the above

Congenital dysplasia of the hip is a. More common among girls than boys b. A rare deformity in this country c. Frequently observed in black children d. Of low incidence in northern Italy and Japan

Congenital talipes equinovarus is a. The most common congenital deformity of the foot b. More common in boys c. A foot position of inversion and plantar flexion d. All of the above

The deformity known as metatarsus varus is quite common and a. Is easily overlooked during infancy before walking begins b. Is characterized by forefoot abduction c. Is one of the causes of eversion d. In mild cases yields to simple exercises which include stretching the forefoot into abduction

Syndactyly refers to a. Webbed fingers or toes b. A decreased number of fingers or toes c. An increased number of fingers or toes d. A fibrous or bony union between two bones separated by an interosseous membrane

Postural deviations resulting from untreated congenital hip dislocation include a. Lumbar spine deviates toward the affected side b. Forward tilting of the pelvis c. Increased lumbar lordosis d. All of the above

A condition characterized by flattening, breaking, cystic changes, and reconstitution of the femoral head is known as a. Slipped femoral epiphysis b. Calve-Legg-Perthes disease c. Osteoarthritis of the femoral head d. Osteogenic sarcoma

An overweight teenage male has symptoms of moderate groin and knee pai; leg abducts and externally rotates during hip flexion. The most likely diagnosis is a. Congenital dislocated hip b. Calve-Legg-Perthes disease c. Sliped capital femoral epiphysis d. Fractured femoral head

Von Recklinghausen's disease of bone is a. Rickets b. Fibrous dysplasia of bone c. Hyperparathyroidism d. Heperpituitarism

Which of the following is a lipid storage disorder in which histiocytes laden with a lipid accumulate in bone marrow, spleen, liver, etc.? a. Achondroplasia b. Gaucher's disease c. Osteomalacia d. Osteogenesis imperfecta

Idiophatic scoliosis treatment depends primarily upon a. Surgery after the curvature has increased b. Brace the spine for 2 years c. Use a cast prior to surgery d. Diagnosis with relative skeletal immaturity

A supracondylar fracture of the humerus would most likely cause a peripheral nerve injury involving a. Axillary nerve b. Radial nerve c. Musculocutaneous nerve d. Median nerve

Atrophy of the muscles of the thenar eminence would indicate injury to which nerve ? a. Musculocutaneous b. Radial c. Ulnar d. Median

A patient with a peripheral nerve injury presents a clinical picture involving the right hand. There is inability to fully flex the index finger and the middle finger, thumb opposition is lost, and the sensory deficit includes the lateral one-half of the right finger, the middle and index finger, and the thumb. Which nerve is involved? a. Musculocunaneous b. Radial c. Median d. Ulnar

450. A peripheral nerve injury which produced a deformity of clawhand would involve which nerve? a. Musculocutaneous b. Radial c. Median d. Ulnar

Thoracic outlet syndromes are a. Cervical intervertebral disks and related traumatic lesions b. Various forms of cervical root compression causing radiating pain c. Associated with the glenoid fossa of the shoulder d. Various types of injury to synovial membranes

Consider the following clinical picture of the knee joint: there is marked swelling of the knee joint, the tibia can be displaced forward on the femur, there is pain and marked instability of the knee joint. Which of the following structures are likely involved? a. Tibial collateral ligament b. Fibular collateral ligament c. Anterior cruciate ligament d. Posterior cruciate ligament

Which of the following conditions is subject to frequent intraarticular hemorrhage, especially of the knee, which leads to degeneration of the articular cartilage, over growth of the synovium, and proliferation of bone at the articular edges? a. Still's disease b. Diastematomyelia c. Epiphyseal arrest d. Hemophilia

A fracture of the second lumbar vertebrae would involve which segment of the spinal cord? a. Twelfth thoracic b. First lumbar c. Second lumbar d. None of the above

The clinical picture of progressive muscular atrophy (Aran-Duchenne type) a. Involves the lower extremities initially and progresses upward b. Produces gross sensory losses over areas of muscle atrophy c. Includes initial involvement usually of the hand intrinsic muscles and then progression upward and downward to the lower extremities d. Includes initial involvement of bowel and bladder reflexes

The pathogenesis of Friedreich's ataxia is a. A degeneration of the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord b. A developmental defect of the cerebral cortex c. Hypoxia to the central nervous system at birth d. Degeneration of sclerosis of the nerve fibers of the dorsal and lateral tracts of the spinal cord

In the case of a fractured femur, delayed union is present if the fracture site is not clinically firm in a. 10 weeks b. 20 weeks c. 6 months d. 7 months

In bone fractures in young individuals, new bone formation begins on the inner and outer surfaces of the damaged bone within a. 48 hours b. 96 hours c. 6 days d. 8 days

Which of the following organisms is responsible for the highest percentage of cases of pyogenic or suppurative osteomyelitis? a. Salmonella b. Gonococcus c. Streptococcus d. Staphylococcus

The condition described as Paget's disease is called a. Progressive myositis ossificans b. Osteitis fibrosa cystica c. Osteitis deformans d. Osteosclerosis

Which of the following conditions presents clinical evidence of clubbed fingers and toes and a broadening of the nails? a. Secondary hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy b. Osteitis deformans c. Infantile cortical hyperostosis d. Progressive myositis ossificans

Talipes equinovarus is best treated by a. Conservative management b. Bryant's traction c. Buck's traction d. Surgical procedure

A disease in which there is an outstanding characteristic of bone destruction with little tendency toward formation of new bone is a. Osteomyelitis b. Blastomycosis c. Tuberculosis d. Echinococcus cyst

The epiphysis of a bone is located a. Directly adjacent to the joint b. Directly below the metaphysic c. Directly above the diaphysis d. Directly adjacent to the periosteum

Which of the following bone tumors is malignant? a. Osteogenic sarcoma b. Osteoma c. Chondroma d. Osteochondroma

In treating a baby, you observe that there is limitation of abduction of the flexed right hip and an asymmetry of the gluteal folds. What deformity would you suspect? a. Osgood-Schlatter's disease b. Osteochondritis dissecans c. Acetabular dysplasia d. Osteogenesis imperfecta

Achondroplasia is a condition in which there is a. A deficiency in the amount and growth of the articular cartilate b. An increase or hyperplasia of cartilate cells on the articular surface of bones c. An abnormal bone growth resulting in retardation of the longitudinal growth of bones d. An absence of epiphyseal plates in juvenile bone

Neurologic manifestations may be absent A. Spina bifida occulta B. Spina bifida menigocele C. Spina bifida myelomeningocele D. Spina bifida syringomyelocele E. Spina bifida myelocele

The most severe form of spina bifida A. Spina bifida occulta B. Spina bifida menigocele C. Spina bifida myelomeningocele D. Spina bifida syringomyelocele E. Spina bifida myelocele

The soft tissue tumor contains only meninges and cerebrospinal fluid A. Spina bifida occulta B. Spina bifida menigocele C. Spina bifida myelomeningocele D. Spina bifida syringomyelocele E. Spina bifida myelocele

The soft tissue tumor contains spinal cord and cerebrospinal fluid A. Spina bifida occulta B. Spina bifida menigocele C. Spina bifida myelomeningocele D. Spina bifida syringomyelocele E. Spina bifida myelocele

The herniated sac contains spinal cord in which the central canal is dilated and greatly distended with cerebrospinal fluid A. Spina bifida occulta B. Spina bifida menigocele C. Spina bifida myelomeningocele D. Spina bifida syringomyelocele E. Spina bifida myelocele

Paralysis of biceps, coracobrachialis, and finger flexors A. Axillary nerve B. Medial cord, brachial plexus C. Lateral cord, brachial plexus D. Axillary nerve and radial nerve E. Long thoracic nerve

Paralysis fo deltoideus with hepesthesia on lateral aspect of shoulder and arm A. Axillary nerve B. Medial cord, brachial plexus C. Lateral cord, brachial plexus D. Axillary nerve and radial nerve E. Long thoracic nerve

Inability to raise arm above 90 0 of shoulder flexion A. Axillary nerve B. Medial cord, brachial plexus C. Lateral cord, brachial plexus D. Axillary nerve and radial nerve E. Long thoracic nerve

Inability to extend arm and perform wrist extension A. Axillary nerve B. Medial cord, brachial plexus C. Lateral cord, brachial plexus D. Axillary nerve and radial nerve E. Long thoracic nerve

Paralysis fo hand intrinsic and anesthesia over ulnar distribution A. Axillary nerve B. Medial cord, brachial plexus C. Lateral cord, brachial plexus D. Axillary nerve and radial nerve E. Long thoracic nerve

Thre are characteristic changes in the epiphyses in early infancy due to syphilitic infection A. Bridie's abscess B. Osteitis pubis C. Suppurative osteomyelitis D. Suppurative arthritis E. Osteochondritis

There is associated with the condition the formation of involucrum A. Bridie's abscess B. Osteitis pubis C. Suppurative osteomyelitis D. Suppurative arthritis E. Osteochondritis

The clinical appearance of a lesion that may have been preceded years previously by a recognized or unrecognized bacteremia A. Bridie's abscess B. Osteitis pubis C. Suppurative osteomyelitis D. Suppurative arthritis E. Osteochondritis

450. Usually a nonsuppurative lesion or a low-grade infectious process resulting as a sequel to trauma A. Bridie's abscess B. Osteitis pubis C. Suppurative osteomyelitis D. Suppurative arthritis E. Osteochondritis

The etiology is trauma that may influence the localizing of an infection A. Bridie's abscess B. Osteitis pubis C. Suppurative osteomyelitis D. Suppurative arthritis E. Osteochondritis

450. Legg-Calve-Perthes disease A. Spondylolysis B. Spondylolisthesis C. Coxa vara D. Coxa valga E. Coxa plana

The presence of a bilateral isthmus defect of a vertebrae without forward displacement A. Spondylolysis B. Spondylolisthesis C. Coxa vara D. Coxa valga E. Coxa plana

A decrease in the neck-shaft angle of the femur A. Spondylolysis B. Spondylolisthesis C. Coxa vara D. Coxa valga E. Coxa plana

Forward displacement of the fifth lumbar vertebrae and the spinal column upon the sacrum A. Spondylolysis B. Spondylolisthesis C. Coxa vara D. Coxa valga E. Coxa plana

An increase in the angle of the neck of the femur to its shaft A. Spondylolysis B. Spondylolisthesis C. Coxa vara D. Coxa valga E. Coxa plana

An affection characterized by subperiosteal new bone formation on the shafts of long bones and mandible in infants under 6 months of age A. Blount's disease B. Caffey's disease C. Calve's disease D. Freiberg's disease E. haglund's disease

A vascular necrosis or osteochondritis of a metatarsal head A. Blount's disease B. Caffey's disease C. Calve's disease D. Freiberg's disease E. haglund's disease

Bowleg, resulting from defective growth at the medial side of the upper tibial epiphysis; a localized epiphyseal dysplasia A. Blount's disease B. Caffey's disease C. Calve's disease D. Freiberg's disease E. haglund's disease

A vertebral osteochondritis that occurs in the dorsal spine of children between 2 and 12 years of age A. Blount's disease B. Caffey's disease C. Calve's disease D. Freiberg's disease E. haglund's disease

A calcaneal epiphysitis that occurs in the posterior calcaneal epiphysis; symptoms are pain and sweeling; etiology is chronic pressure or strain; most often occurs in boys ages 9-14 A. Blount's disease B. Caffey's disease C. Calve's disease D. Freiberg's disease E. haglund's disease

A malignant tumor that develops from cartilage cells A. Multiple myeloma B. Ewing's sarcoma C. Chondrosarcoma D. Osteogenic sarcoma E. Reticulum cell sarcoma

A highly malignant tumor of bone marrow origin A. Multiple myeloma B. Ewing's sarcoma C. Chondrosarcoma D. Osteogenic sarcoma E. Reticulum cell sarcoma

A rare malignant tumor with a more favorable prognosis A. Multiple myeloma B. Ewing's sarcoma C. Chondrosarcoma D. Osteogenic sarcoma E. Reticulum cell sarcoma

A malignant tumor often simulating a low-grade osteomyelitis A. Multiple myeloma B. Ewing's sarcoma C. Chondrosarcoma D. Osteogenic sarcoma E. Reticulum cell sarcoma

The most common primary malignant neoplasm of bone A. Multiple myeloma B. Ewing's sarcoma C. Chondrosarcoma D. Osteogenic sarcoma E. Reticulum cell sarcoma

An operation to restore mobility to a stiffened joint A. Epiphyseodesis B. Arthrodesis C. Arthroplasty D. Sequestrectomy E. Spondylophytosis

An operation to fuse a joint to restore stability to a flail A. Epiphyseodesis B. Arthrodesis C. Arthroplasty D. Sequestrectomy E. Spondylophytosis

An operation in which the epiphysis is fused to a diaphysis to limit leg length growth A. Epiphyseodesis B. Arthrodesis C. Arthroplasty D. Sequestrectomy E. Spondylophytosis

A condition in which there is bony spurring or lipping developing about the margins of vertebral bodies A. Epiphyseodesis B. Arthrodesis C. Arthroplasty D. Sequestrectomy E. Spondylophytosis

An operation associated with osteomyelitis A. Epiphyseodesis B. Arthrodesis C. Arthroplasty D. Sequestrectomy E. Spondylophytosis

A condition brought on by injury or trauma. There is pain, vasomotor instability, trophic changes in soft tissues, and patchy rarefaction and atrophy of bone A. Shoulder-hand syndrome B. Sudeck's atrophy C. achondroplasia D. Amyoplasia congenital E. Dyschondroplasia

Abnormal bone growth that produces a congenital dwarf A. Shoulder-hand syndrome B. Sudeck's atrophy C. achondroplasia D. Amyoplasia congenital E. Dyschondroplasia

A disorderly and excessive proliferation of cartilage cells at the epiphyseal plates of growing bone A. Shoulder-hand syndrome B. Sudeck's atrophy C. achondroplasia D. Amyoplasia congenital E. Dyschondroplasia

A manifestation of reflex sympathetic dystrophy A. Shoulder-hand syndrome B. Sudeck's atrophy C. achondroplasia D. Amyoplasia congenital E. Dyschondroplasia

An incomplete fibrous ankylosis of many or all joints. It is a congenital condition A. Shoulder-hand syndrome B. Sudeck's atrophy C. achondroplasia D. Amyoplasia congenital E. Dyschondroplasia

Ortho Flashcards

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