1
Q
absent or ineffective peristalsis of the distal esophagus accompanied by failure of the esophageal spinchter to relax in swallowing
A
achalasia
2
Q
inhalation of fluids or foods into the trachea and bronchial area
A
aspiration
3
Q
physiologic response to rapid emptying of gastric contents into the small intestine; manifested by nausea, weakness, sweating,
A
dumping syndrome
4
Q
synonyms of dumping syndrome
A
vagotomy syndrome
5
Q
difficulty swallowing
A
dysphagia
6
Q
bizzare cell growth resulting in cells that differ in size, shape, or arrangement from other cells of the same tissue type
A
dysplasia
7
Q
nutritional formula feedings infused through a tube directly into the GI
A
enteral nutrition
8
Q
of or relating to the intestines
A
enteric
9
Q
disorder marked by backflow of gastric or duodenal contents into the esophagus that causes troublesome symptoms and mucosal injury to the esophagus
A
gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
10
Q
surgical creation of an opening into the stomach for the purpose of administering fluids, nutrition, formula and medications or for decompression and drainage of stomach contents
A
gastrostomy
11
Q
inflammation of the gums; chnage of color from pink to red, associated swelling, bleeding, and sensitivity tenderness
A
gingivitis
12
Q
foul odor from the oral cavity; in laypersons’ terms “bad breath”
A
halitosis
13
Q
protrusion of an organ or part of an organ through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it
A
hernia
14
Q
surgical creation of an opening into the jejunum for the purpose of administering fluids etc.
A
jejunostomy
15
Q
the use of shock waves to break or disintegrate stones
A
lithotripsy
16
Q
pain on swallowing
A
odynophagia
17
Q
ionic concentration of fluid
A
osmolality
18
Q
inflammation of the parotid gland
A
parotitis
19
Q
a feeding tube inserted endoscopically into the stomach
A
percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy
20
Q
abscessed tooth
A
periapical abscess
21
Q
a burning sensation in the stomach and espphagus that moves up to the mouth; commonly called heartburn
A
pyrosis
22
Q
inflammation of the salivary glands
A
sialadenitis
23
Q
artificially created opening between a body cavity and the body surface
A
stoma
24
Q
inflammation of the oral mucosa
A
stomatitis
25
gastrointestinal symptoms that includes diarrhea and abdominal cramping resulting from rapid gastric emptying
synonym; dumping syndrome
vagotomy syndrome
26
dry mouth
xerostomia
27
is the most common cause of tooth loss among adults
gingivitis and periodontitis
28
is an erosive process that begins with the action of bacteria on fermentable carbohydrates in the mouth which produces acids that dissolve tooth enamel
tooth decay
29
is the hardest substances in the human body, caries and priodontal disease can still occur for several reactions
tooth enamel
30
contributing factors of tooth decay include
nutrition
soft drink consumption
genetic predisposition
31
is a gluey gelatinlike substance that adheres to the teeth
dental plaque
32
a break in the tooth’s enamel
fissure
33
condition of the tooth that begins with a small hole usually in a fissure
dental decay
34
if dental decay is unchecked where does it extend
dentin
35
many medications taken by older adults cause dry mouth these are
antidepressant medications
antihypertensive medications
diuretic agents
36
poor dentition can exacerbate problems of aging such as
decreased food intake
loss of appetite
social isolation
37
treatmemt for dental carries includes
fillings
dental implants
extraction
38
dentist can determine the extent of damage and the type of treatment using
x-ray studies
39
what are the measures used to prevent and control dental caries
using fluoride toothpaste
making good dietary choices
implementing daily oral hygiene practices
40
most effective of mouth care
mechanical cleansing (brushing)
41
the most commonly identified streptococcus species in the mouth is
streptococcus mitis
42
involves a collection of pus in the apical dental periosteum (fibrous membrane supporting the tooth structure)
periapical abscess
43
clinical manifestation of abscess
dull, gnawing, continuous pain
swelling of the adjacent facial structure
temperature sensitivity
44
ca. of the oral cavity and pharynx pt education is directed toward
avoiding high-risk behaviors
45
pt with ca of the oral cavity and oropharynx have a relatively stable ____ survival rate
5- year survival rate
46
malignancies of the oral cavity are usually
squamous cell carcinoma
47
Any area of the oropharynx can be a site of malignant growths, but the ______ are most commonly affected.
lips,
the lateral aspects of the tongue,
and the floor of the mouth
48
is associated with about 70% of oropharyngeal cancers.
High-risk HPV infection
49
shows promise in impacting rates of head and neck cancer.
Vaccination against HPV
50
clinical manifestation
Many oral cancers produce few or no symptoms in the early stages. Later, the most frequent symptom is
a painless sore or lesion that bleeds easily and does not heal.
51
clinical manifestation
Oral cancer - may also present as a ________ in the mouth or throat.
red or white patch (leukoplakia)
52
A typical lesion in oral cancer is
a painless indurated (hardened) ulcer with raised edges.
53
what are the possible locations of lesions in ca. of oral cavity and pharynx
(tonsil,
base of the tongue,
soft palate, or
pharyngeal wall),
54
the patient with lesions may report
tenderness,
trismus (limited jaw range of motion),
a neck mass
55
Diagnoscic evaluation for ta ca. of the oral cavity and pharynx consists of an ________ to detect possible metastasis
oral examination
as well as
an assessment of the cervical lymph nodes
56
to detect and guide therapy for ta ca. of oral cavity and pharynx
MRI
ENDOSCOPY
biopsy
57
Human Papillomavirus Prevention
HPV vaccine is generally recommended for all children ages 1._ (can be started at age 2._), up to the age of 3.___ for women and 4.__ for men.
1.11 or 12
2. 9
3. 26 years
4. 21 years
58
Men who have sex with men, transgender men and women, and immunocompromised people, including those with human immune deficiency virus (HIV), may receive the vaccine up to
26 years of age
59
medical management for ca. of oral cavity and pharynx
are associated with improved survival for all adults over age 70, including those who are positive for HPV infection
Surgical resection
and
chemoradiation (CRT)
60
In cancer of the lip, small lesions are usually
ca. of oral cavity…
excised liberally.
61
may be more appropriate for larger lesions involving more than one third of the lip because of superior cosmetic results.
ca. of oral cavity…
Radiation therapy
62
ca. of oral cavity…
Tumors larger than ____ often recur.
4 cm
63
In cancer of the tongue, treatment with ___ may preserve function and maintain quality of life.
radiation therapy
and
chemotherapy
64
(removal of the tongue)
Total glossectomy
65
remains the principal treatment of advanced stage or cancers at the base of the tongue;
Total glossectomy (removal of the tongue)
66
Often, cancer of the oral cavity has metastasized through the extensive lymphatic channel in the neck region, requiring a ______ of the oral cavity.
neck dissection
and
reconstructive surgery
67
tissue flaps (graft of tissue with its own blood supply) or the current mainstay of free (cut and removed) tissue transfer most commonly obtained from the
pectoralis major,
fibula
radial forearm ,
68
1.____is associated with better speech and verbal communication, but 2._____ remain common functional deficits with total glossectomy and free flap reconstruction
1.Laryngeal preservation
2. swallowing and aspiration issues
69
Nurses assess the graft postoperatively for viability. Although color should be
'assessed (1.___ may indicate arterial occlusion, and 2.____ may indicate venous congestion);
1. white
2. blue mottling r
70
it can be difficult to assess the graft by looking into the mouth. ______ may be used to locate the pulse at the graft site and to assess tissue perfusion.
A Doppler ultrasound device
71
The ____ is a mucus-lined, muscular tube that carries food from the mouth to the stomach,
esophagus
72
esophagus begins at the _____ and ends ____.
base of the pharynx
about 4 cm below the diaphragm
73
The ____ is a mucus-lined, muscular tube that carries food from the mouth to the stomach,
esophagus
74
esophagus ability to transport food and fluid is facilitated by two sphincters.
upper esophageal sphincter, also called the hypopharyngeal sphincter
The lower esophageal sphincter, also called the gastroesophageal sphincter or cardiac sphincter
75
An incompetent ______ allows reflux (backward flow) of gastric contents.
lower esophageal sphincter
76
Disorders of the esophagus include
motility disorders (achalasia, spasms),
hiatal hernias,
diverticula,
77
, the most common symptom of esophageal disease,
Dysphagia
78
(pain on swallowing).
odynophagia
79
Achalasia is rare, may progress slowly, and occurs most often in people between ages
20 and 40 and ages 60 and 70 years
80
is absent or ineffective peristalsis of the distal esophagus accompanied by failure of the esophageal sphincter to relax in response to swallowing.
Achalasia
81
The main symptom of achalasia is ___, with the hallmark being difficulty with solid food.
dysphagia
82
_____ show esophageal dilation above the narrowing at the lower gastroesophageal sphincter, which is called _____
X-ray studies
a birds beak deformity.
83
a process in which peristalsis, contraction amplitudes, and esophageal pressure is measured by a radiologist or gastroenterologist, confirms the diagnosis of achalasia
high-resolution manometry,
84
is only used in patients who cannot receive other definitive treatments in achalasia
botulinum toxin
85
Achalasia may be treated conservatively by ____ to stretch the narrowed area of the esophagus
pneumatic dilation
86
Achalasia may be treated surgically by ____, called a _____
esophagomyotomy,
Heller myotomy,
87
(antireflux procedure that minimizes the incidence of GERD).
fundoplication
88
In the condition known as _____, the opening in the diaphragm through which the esophagus passes becomes
enlarged, and part of the upper stomach moves up into the lower portion of the thorax.
hiatal hernia
89
There are two main types of hiatal hernias:
sliding
and
paraesophageal.
90
occurs when the upper stomach and the gastroesopha. geal junction
sliding or type 1 hiatal hernia
91
occurs when all or part of the stomach pushes through the diaphragm beside the esophagus
A paraesophageal hernia
92
Paraesophageal hernias are further classified as types I1, I1I, or IV, depending on the extent of herniation. ___ has the greatest herniation,
Type IV
93
The patient with a sliding hernia may have
pyrosis,
regurgitation
and dysphagia,
94
Large hiatal hernias may lead to
intolerance to food, nausea, and vomiting.
95
Diagnosis of hiatal hernia is typically confirmed by
x-ray studies;
barium swallow;
esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD),
96
The patient is advised not to recline for ____ after eating, to prevent reflux or movement of the hernia, and to elevate the head of the bed on _____ blocks to prevent the hernia from sliding upward.
1 hour
4- to 8-inch (10- to 20-cm)
97
an ____ reserved procedures for patients with complications such as. bleeding, dense adhesions, or injury to the spleen.
hiatal hernia
open transabdominal or transthoracic approach
98
is an out-pouching of mucosa and submucosa that protrudes through a weak portion of the musculature of the esophagus.
An esophageal diverticulum
99
Diverticula may occur in one of the three areas of the esophagus-
pharyngoesophageal (upper),
midesophageal (middle),
or epiphrenic (lower).
100
The most common type of.diverticulum is ____ Located in the pharyngoesophageal area,
Zenker diverticulum (ZD).
101
is
-caused by a dysfunctional sphincter that fails to open, which leads to increased pressure that forces the mucosa and submu-cosa to herniate through the esophageal musculature (called a pulsion diverticulum)
Zenker diverticulum (ZD).
102
Zenker diverticulum (ZD). is usually seen in
older than 60 years of age
103
is the occurrence of numerous small diverticula associated with a stricture in the upper esophagus.
Intramural diverticulosis
104
Symptoms experienced by the patient with a pharyngo-esophageal pulsion diverticulum include
dysphagia,
fullness in the neck,
belching,
105
The diverticulum, or pouch, becomes filled with food or liquid. When the patient assumes a ____, undigested food is regurgitated, and coughing may be caused by irritation of the trachea or aspi-ration.
recumbent position
106
are also common because of the decomposition of food retained in the diverticulum.
Halitosis (foul odor from the oral cavity)
and
a sour taste in the mouth
107
may determine the exact nature and location of a diverticulum.
A barium swallow
108
usually is contraindicated because of the danger of perforation of the diverticulum, with resulting mediastinitis inflammation of the organs and tissues that separate the lungs).
Esophagoscopy
109
inflammation of the organs and tissues that separate the lungs).
mediastinitis
110
ZD can be treated by
endoscopy (rigid or flexible) or open surgery.
111
is a fairly common disorder marked by backflow of gastric or duodenal contents into the esophagus that causes troublesome symptoms and/or mucosal injury to the esophagus.
Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
112
are the hallmark symptoms of gerd
pyrosis and regurgitation
113
Diagnostic testing may include ____, which is the gold standard for the diagnosis of GERD, or a ____.
ambulatory pH monitoring
PPI trial
114
Esophageal cancer can be of two cell types:
adenocarcinoma
and
squamous cell carcinoma.
3RD YEAR 2ND SEM
flashcards
Decks in class (13)
# Cards
-
PSYCHIA ADV. CLASS LINGAD129
-
DEFENSOR LIVER PRELIM65
-
DEFENSOR 2ND QUIZ (HEPA, CHOLE, CIRR106
-
DEFENSOR 3RD QUIZ THYROID115
-
ERWIN SECOND QUIZ56
-
Defensor 4th QUIZ adrenal and DM102
-
DEFENSOR CHAPTER 38 DIGESTIVE AND GASTRO171
-
ERWIN SCHIZOPHRENIA96
-
DEFENSOR CHAP 39114
-
LINGAD CHAP 14 & 17183
-
Lingad chap4567121
-
DEFENSOR CHAP 40101
-
Midterm Reading Assignment0
