1
Q
What are the three main types of aging?
A
Biological aging, psychological aging, and social aging.
2
Q
What is biological aging?
A
The process involving how the body functions and changes over time.
3
Q
What are the two metabolic processes involved in biological aging?
A
Anabolism and catabolism.
4
Q
What is anabolism?
A
The process of body building to peak potential, occurring from birth to a variable age depending on the individual.
5
Q
What is catabolism?
A
The body’s typically slow deterioration from its peak until death.
6
Q
What is psychological aging?
A
One’s perception of personal age—how old or young a person feels regardless of their chronological age.
7
Q
What is social aging?
A
How a person’s chronological age is viewed within a societal or cultural context, influenced by vocation and socioeconomic status.
8
Q
How does the perception of aging differ between Eastern and Western cultures?
A
Eastern cultures often regard older individuals with more respect, while Western cultures may show less respect as people age.
9
Q
How might vocation and socioeconomic status influence social aging?
A
Individuals of the same age may be perceived differently based on their profession or wealth—for example, a wealthy doctor vs. a retired blue-collar worker.
10
Q
What are common categories of human development theories?
A
Learning, cognitive, psychoanalytic (psychodynamic), humanistic, ethological, language, physical, and moral development.
11
Q
What three major contrasts are used to categorize developmental theories?
A
Nature vs. nurture, continuous vs. discontinuous development, and active vs. reactive theories.
12
Q
What does ‘nature vs. nurture’ refer to?
A
The debate over the influence of genetics and heredity (nature) versus environmental factors (nurture) on development.
13
Q
How does intelligence demonstrate both nature and nurture influences?
A
Genetic predisposition sets a range of potential, but environmental factors (like nutrition and stimulation) determine where within that range a person falls.
14
Q
What does it mean for a theory to be interactionist or epigenetic?
A
It recognizes the combined influence of both genetic (nature) and environmental (nurture) factors on development.
15
Q
What is continuous development?
A
Development marked by small, gradual, and often hard-to-separate changes over time.
16
Q
Which theory exemplifies continuous development?
A
Skinner’s operant conditioning.
17
Q
What is discontinuous development?
A
Development marked by distinct, qualitatively different stages or leaps in abilities.
18
Q
Which theories exemplify discontinuous development?
A
Stage theories like those of Piaget and Erikson.
19
Q
What are active theories of development?
A
Theories that view individuals as actively shaping and regulating their own development.
20
Q
What is an example of an active theory?
A
Erikson’s psychosocial developmental theory.
21
Q
What are reactive theories of development?
A
Theories that view individuals as passive and shaped by environmental stimuli.
22
Q
What is an example of a reactive theory?
A
Skinner’s operant conditioning.
23
Q
What is a strength of a Case Study?
A
Provides in-depth analysis and rich, meaningful data.
24
Q
What is a limitation of a Case Study?
A
No systematic comparison is possible.
25
What is a strength of a Naturalistic Study?
Provides rich, meaningful data in real-life settings.
26
What are two limitations of a Naturalistic Study?
Observer effects may influence behavior, and causality cannot be determined.
27
What is a strength of Survey Research?
Gathers data from many individuals, useful for large-scale analysis.
28
What are two limitations of Survey Research?
Requires large sample sizes and may suffer from sampling bias, which limits generalizability.
29
What is a strength of Correlational Research?
Describes the strength and direction of relationships between variables.
30
What is a limitation of Correlational Research?
Causality cannot be determined.
31
What is a strength of a Cross-sectional Design?
Less expensive and quicker than longitudinal studies.
32
What is a limitation of a Cross-sectional Design?
It does not track individual changes over time.
33
What is a strength of a Longitudinal Design?
Displays developmental trends over time.
34
What are two limitations of a Longitudinal Design?
It is more expensive in terms of time and money.
35
What is a strength of a Time-lag Study?
Allows for intergenerational (cohort) comparisons.
36
What is a limitation of a Time-lag Study?
Cohort effects may influence results.
37
What is a case study in developmental research?
An in-depth study of a single individual or group experiencing a similar developmental phenomenon.
38
What are two key strengths of a case study?
Allows in-depth study and analysis; produces rich, detailed data.
39
What are two key limitations of a case study?
Findings can’t be systematically compared across individuals; results are not easily generalizable.
40
What is a naturalistic study?
A study conducted in a natural setting using observation and interviews, often similar to qualitative research.
41
What are two advantages of naturalistic studies?
Rich, meaningful data; observations occur in real-world settings.
42
What are two disadvantages of naturalistic studies?
Observer effects may influence participants; causality cannot be determined.
43
What is survey research?
A method that uses interviews or questionnaires to assess thoughts, feelings, and perceptions from a large group.
44
What is a major strength of survey research?
Data can be collected from many individuals efficiently.
45
What are two major limitations of survey research?
Requires large sample sizes; sampling bias can limit generalizability.
46
What is correlational research?
A design that examines the relationship between two existing variables without manipulation.
47
What is the main strength of correlational research?
It describes the strength and direction of a relationship between variables.
48
What is a major limitation of correlational research?
It cannot determine causality.
49
What is a cross-sectional design?
A study that examines different age groups at one point in time (e.g., 5-, 10-, and 15-year-olds).
50
What are two advantages of cross-sectional designs?
Less expensive and time-consuming than longitudinal studies; data collected quickly.
51
What are two limitations of cross-sectional designs?
Diffusion of individual changes; cohort effects may impact results.
52
What is a longitudinal design?
A study that examines the same group over time to assess developmental changes.
53
What is a key strength of longitudinal designs?
Provides a valid display of developmental trends over time.
54
What are two limitations of longitudinal designs?
Expensive in time and money; participant attrition and mortality can be issues.
55
What is a time-lag study?
A study that replicates previous research on a new cohort to assess generational differences.
56
What is a strength of time-lag studies?
Allows for intergenerational comparisons using the same study parameters.
57
What are the two main parts of the nervous system?
The central nervous system (CNS) and the peripheral nervous system (PNS).
58
What does the central nervous system consist of?
The brain and spinal cord.
59
What does the peripheral nervous system consist of?
The network of nerves connecting the CNS to the rest of the body (e.g., fingers, arms, legs, toes).
60
What are the two key processes in brain development besides neuron growth?
Interconnectedness of neurons and myelination (insulation of neurons to enhance transmission speed).
61
What percent of adult brain size is present at birth?
25%
62
What percent of adult brain weight is reached by the end of the first year?
60%
63
What percent of adult brain weight is reached by the end of the second year?
80%
64
At what age does the brain reach its full adult size?
Around 16 years old.
65
When does brain shrinkage begin?
Around age 30.
66
By the late 80s, how much less does the brain weigh compared to when the person was 30?
About 20% less.
67
What changes occur in the brain as a person reaches old age?
Decreased blood flow and reduced levels of some neurotransmitters.
68
What is a neurotransmitter?
A substance that transmits nerve impulses across neural synapses.
69
What are the three main parts of the brain?
The hindbrain (brain stem), midbrain, and forebrain (cerebral cortex).
70
Which parts of the brain are well-developed at birth?
The hindbrain and midbrain.
71
Which part of the brain is mostly undeveloped at birth?
The forebrain (cerebral cortex).
72
What is the function of the medulla oblongata?
Regulates heart and lungs.
73
What is the function of the cerebellum?
Regulates balance.
74
What is the function of the pons?
Connects the left and right cerebellum.
75
What does the reticular activating system regulate?
Arousal and attention.
76
What does the midbrain connect?
The hindbrain and forebrain.
77
What are three key functions of the midbrain?
1. Connects hindbrain and forebrain
2. Controls eye muscles
3. Relays auditory and visual information
78
What side of the body does the left hemisphere control?
The right side of the body.
79
What are the functions of the left hemisphere?
Language, writing, logical and systematic thought.
80
What side of the body does the right hemisphere control?
The left side of the body.
81
What are the functions of the right hemisphere?
Muscle abilities, imagination, emotional expression.
82
What is the function of the corpus callosum?
Connects the two hemispheres and allows integration of cognitive, emotional, and bodily functions.
83
What does the cerebral cortex cover?
The two cerebral hemispheres.
84
What are the main functions of the cerebral cortex?
Memory, concentration, problem-solving, and muscle coordination.
85
What is the main function of the occipital lobe?
Interprets sensory information through the eyes (vision).
86
What is the main function of the parietal lobe?
Controls spatial reasoning and the sense of touch.
87
What is the main function of the temporal lobe?
Responsible for hearing and storage of permanent memory.
88
What is the main function of the frontal lobe?
Regulates sense of smell, body control, and movement.
89
What is the function of the thalamus?
Relays nerve impulses from sensory pathways to the cerebral cortex.
90
What is the main function of the limbic system?
It is involved in emotions and motivation.
91
What is the function of the hypothalamus?
Acts as the control center for pleasure and pain; regulates hunger, thirst, sexual functions, body temperature, and hormone release.
92
What is the function of the amygdala?
Influences behaviors such as sexual interest, feeding, and anger.
93
What is the function of the hippocampus?
Influences memory and helps recognize novel information or situations.
94
What is hemispheric specialization (lateralization)?
The development of right- or left-brain dominance for certain functions.
95
When does hemispheric specialization begin?
Early in development, often occurring gradually through childhood.
96
What are the three main types of genetic disorders?
Autosomal diseases, X-linked diseases, and sex chromosomal disorders.
97
What are autosomal diseases?
Genetic disorders involving a chromosome other than a sex chromosome.
98
What is Phenylketonuria (PKU) and its impact?
A recessive disorder involving inability to neutralize phenylalanine, leading to CNS damage if untreated. Requires a special diet.
99
What is Sickle Cell Anemia and who is most affected?
A recessive disorder common in African Americans (~1 in 500 births) that causes sickle-shaped red blood cells, leading to pain, anemia, and high early mortality.
100
What is Tay-Sachs Disease and its prognosis?
A recessive disorder common in Jews of European descent (~1 in 3,500 births), leading to CNS degeneration and death by age 4. No known treatment.
101
What are X-linked diseases?
Genetic disorders passed through the X chromosome.
102
What is an example of an X-linked disease and its symptoms?
Hemophilia – a recessive disorder (~1 in 5,000 births) causing blood clotting failure, leading to severe bleeding and tissue damage.
103
What are sex chromosomal disorders?
Disorders involving anomalies on the sex-determining chromosomes, affecting sexual characteristics and reproduction.
104
What is Turner Syndrome (XO)?
A disorder in females (~1 in 5,000 births) where part or all of one X chromosome is missing. Symptoms include short stature, webbed neck, incomplete puberty, and spatial learning issues.
105
What treatments are used for Turner Syndrome?
Hormone therapy and special education for learning difficulties.
106
What is Klinefelter’s Syndrome (XXY)?
A disorder in males (~1 in 1,000 births) caused by an extra X chromosome. Symptoms include tall stature, increased body fat, incomplete puberty, sterility, and verbal deficits.
107
What treatments are used for Klinefelter’s Syndrome?
Hormone therapy and special education services.
108
Into what major categories can learning theories be divided?
Stimulus–response theories, operant conditioning theories, and social learning theories.
109
What is the core idea of stimulus–response theories?
Learning occurs through forming associations between stimuli and responses.
110
Which theorists are associated with classical conditioning (a stimulus–response theory)?
Pavlov, Watson, and Wolpe.
111
What is classical conditioning?
A learning process in which a neutral stimulus becomes associated with a meaningful stimulus and acquires the ability to produce a similar response.
112
Which theorists are associated with operant conditioning?
Skinner and Thorndike.
113
What is operant conditioning?
Learning based on the consequences of behavior (reinforcement and punishment).
114
Which theorists are associated with social learning theories?
Bandura and Rotter.
115
What is the core idea of social learning theory?
Learning occurs through observation and internalized motivational forces.
116
Why is an additional category added beyond the three major learning theory types?
Because placement of some theorists is not universally agreed upon.
117
Who was Ivan Pavlov?
A Russian physiologist known for discovering classical conditioning through studies of dogs’ salivation responses.
118
What did Pavlov initially observe about his dogs’ salivation?
They salivated not only at food but also when Pavlov entered the room or when they were in the room associated with him.
119
What is an unconditioned stimulus (US)?
A stimulus that naturally and automatically elicits a response (e.g., meat powder).
120
What is an unconditioned response (UR)?
A natural, automatic reaction to the unconditioned stimulus (e.g., salivation to food).
121
What is a conditioned stimulus (CS)?
A previously neutral stimulus that does not normally elicit the response (e.g., tone, bell, buzzer).
122
What is a conditioned response (CR)?
The learned response to the conditioned stimulus after repeated pairings (e.g., salivation to the tone).
123
How does classical conditioning occur in Pavlov’s experiments?
By repeatedly pairing the CS (tone) with the US (food), causing the CS alone to elicit the CR (salivation).
124
What does 'neutral stimulus' mean in classical conditioning?
A stimulus that does not normally elicit the target response before conditioning.
125
What is simultaneous conditioning?
US and CS are presented at the exact same time.
126
What is delayed conditioning?
The CS begins first and overlaps with the US; the most effective conditioning method.
127
What is backward conditioning?
The US is presented before the CS; it is rarely effective.
128
What is extinction in classical conditioning?
The weakening of the learned response when the CS is repeatedly presented without the US.
129
What is spontaneous recovery?
The rapid reappearance of a weakened CR after a pause or after refresher pairings.
130
What conclusion did Pavlov draw from spontaneous recovery?
Learned behaviors are not erased but inhibited and can be revived.
131
What is stimulus generalization?
When a CR occurs in response to stimuli similar to the original CS (e.g., responding to a red light after being conditioned with a green light).
132
What is stimulus discrimination?
Learning to respond only to the specific CS and not to similar stimuli (e.g., responding only to the green light, not the red).
133
How does reinforcement affect generalization?
If a response to a new stimulus is reinforced, generalization increases; if not reinforced, discrimination develops.
134
John B. Watson
Behaviorism / Classical Conditioning
135
In behaviorism, who is known as the “father of American behaviorism”?
John B. Watson.
136
In behaviorism, what core idea did Watson promote about what psychology should study?
Only observable, measurable behaviors—if it can’t be observed, it “does not exist.”
137
In classical conditioning as applied by Watson, how did he believe development occurred?
Through learned associations between stimuli and responses.
138
In classical conditioning (Little Albert study), what was Watson attempting to demonstrate?
That fear could be conditioned into a child by pairing a neutral CS with an aversive US.
139
In classical conditioning (Little Albert), what were the CS, US, UR, and CR?
CS = white rat; US = loud noise; UR = startle/fear; CR = fear response to rat.
140
In classical conditioning, what did the Little Albert study demonstrate about stimulus generalization?
Albert feared other white, furry objects (rabbits, cotton balls).
141
In behaviorism, did Watson successfully decondition Little Albert’s phobia?
No.
142
In behaviorist theory, what bold environmental-shaping claim did Watson make?
He claimed he could shape any healthy infant into any type of specialist through conditioning.
143
Joseph Wolpe
Classical Conditioning (Therapeutic Applications)
144
In classical conditioning–based psychotherapy, what principle did Wolpe develop?
Reciprocal inhibition—one cannot experience two opposing responses simultaneously.
145
In classical conditioning therapy, what is systematic desensitization?
Gradual exposure to feared stimuli while relaxed to weaken the fear response.
146
In classical conditioning techniques, what is counterconditioning?
Pairing a pleasant stimulus with an aversive one to alter emotional responses.
147
In classical conditioning–based interventions, what is aversive counterconditioning?
Applying a noxious stimulus when a maladaptive response occurs (e.g., rubber band snap).
148
In classical conditioning, what is flooding?
Prolonged exposure to an anxiety-provoking stimulus until the fear response diminishes.
149
Edward Thorndike
Operant Conditioning Foundations
150
In operant conditioning foundations, what was Thorndike’s major contribution?
The Law of Effect.
151
In operant conditioning theory, what does the Law of Effect state?
Behaviors followed by satisfying consequences are more likely to recur; unpleasant outcomes reduce behavior.
152
B. F. Skinner
Operant Conditioning
153
In operant conditioning, what type of learning did Skinner focus on?
Learning shaped by consequences of voluntary behavior.
154
In operant conditioning, how did Skinner distinguish his work from Pavlov’s?
Pavlov studied reflexive “respondent” behavior; Skinner studied voluntary “operant” behavior shaped by reinforcement.
155
In operant conditioning, what is positive reinforcement?
Adding a desirable stimulus after behavior to increase its frequency.
156
In operant conditioning, what is negative reinforcement?
Removing an unpleasant stimulus to increase a behavior’s likelihood.
157
In operant conditioning, what is punishment?
Adding or removing a stimulus to decrease the frequency of a behavior.
158
In operant conditioning, what are primary reinforcers?
Reinforcers that satisfy biological needs (e.g., food, rest).
159
In operant conditioning, what are secondary reinforcers?
Stimuli associated with primary needs (e.g., money, tokens).
160
Reinforcement Schedules
Operant Conditioning
161
In operant conditioning, what is a continuous reinforcement schedule?
Reinforcement given after every response.
162
In operant conditioning, what is an intermittent reinforcement schedule?
Reinforcement given only sometimes, not after every response.
163
Fixed Ratio (FR)
Operant Conditioning
164
In operant conditioning, what is a Fixed Ratio (FR) reinforcement schedule?
Reinforcement given after a set number of responses (e.g., FR5 = every 5 responses).
165
In operant conditioning, what behavior pattern does an FR schedule produce?
Fast responding, quick learning, but often lower-quality output.
166
Variable Ratio (VR)
Operant Conditioning
167
In operant conditioning, what is a Variable Ratio (VR) reinforcement schedule?
Reinforcement after an unpredictable number of responses, averaging a certain amount.
168
In operant conditioning, what behavior pattern does a VR schedule produce?
Rapid, steady responding with strong resistance to extinction (e.g., gambling).
169
Fixed Interval (FI)
Operant Conditioning
170
In operant conditioning, what is a Fixed Interval (FI) schedule?
Reinforcement given after a fixed amount of time.
171
In operant conditioning, what pattern does FI produce?
Low, uneven responding—behavior increases as the reinforcement time approaches.
172
Variable Interval (VI)
Operant Conditioning
173
In operant conditioning, what is a Variable Interval (VI) schedule?
Reinforcement given after varying time intervals.
174
In operant conditioning, what response pattern does VI produce?
High, steady responses because reinforcement timing is unpredictable (e.g., pop quizzes).
175
In operant conditioning, what is the process of shaping behavior through successive approximations?
Reinforcing behaviors that gradually get closer to the target behavior until the full behavior (e.g., pressing a bar) is learned.
176
In operant conditioning–based counseling strategies, what is contingency contracting?
Creating written agreements that specify behavior-change goals and associated consequences.
177
In operant conditioning–based counseling, what is a token economy?
A system where tokens are earned for desirable behaviors and exchanged for rewards.
178
In operant conditioning, what is the Premack principle?
A high-probability behavior is used to reinforce a low-probability behavior.
179
In operant conditioning, what is extinction?
Eliminating reinforcement for a behavior, which decreases its frequency.
180
In operant conditioning, what is time out?
Removal from a reinforcing environment to decrease a behavior.
181
In operant conditioning, what is response cost?
Removing a reinforcer (e.g., losing points or tokens) to decrease a behavior.
182
In social learning theory, how is learning viewed compared to simple stimulus–response models?
Learning involves cognitive and social factors, not just automatic associations.
183
In social learning theory, how do individuals learn within social contexts?
By observing experiences, interpreting them, and applying meaning—even without external reinforcement.
184
In Bandura’s social learning theory, what are the primary ways people learn?
Observation, imitation, and modeling.
185
In social learning theory, what is observational (vicarious) learning?
Learning through watching others without direct reinforcement.
186
In social learning theory, what is modeling?
Demonstrating a behavior so that another person can observe and learn it.
187
In social learning theory, what is the role of attention in effective modeling?
Learners must accurately attend to and perceive the modeled behavior.
188
In social learning theory, what is the retention component of modeling?
Storing the behavior in memory through imagery or verbal coding.
189
In social learning theory, what is the reproduction component of modeling?
Practicing and accurately carrying out the modeled behavior.
190
In social learning theory, what is the motivation component of modeling?
Internal or external reinforcement increases the likelihood of performing the behavior.
191
In social learning theory, what factors enhance the effectiveness of modeling?
Similar demographics (e.g., age, sex, race) or positive traits (e.g., warmth, compassion) in the model.
192
In social learning theory, what is covert modeling?
Learning through imagined observation rather than live demonstration.
193
In social learning theory, what is self-efficacy?
One’s belief in their ability to successfully perform a behavior or task.
194
In Dollard and Miller’s drive-based learning theory, what shaped psychological disturbances?
Learned habits and experiences that produce anxiety and drive reduction patterns.
195
In Dollard and Miller’s theory, what are habits?
Learned, stable behavior patterns that help reduce primary and secondary drives.
196
In drive theory, what is a primary drive?
An innate biological need (e.g., hunger, thirst).
197
In drive theory, what is a secondary drive?
A learned drive that becomes important through associations (e.g., parental approval, peer acceptance).
198
In Dollard and Miller’s conflict theory, what is an approach–approach conflict?
Choosing between two equally appealing positive options.
199
In Dollard and Miller’s conflict theory, what is an approach–avoidance conflict?
Wanting something desirable while fearing negative consequences for obtaining it.
200
In Dollard and Miller’s conflict theory, what is an avoidance–avoidance conflict?
A situation where both available choices are undesirable.
201
In cognitive development theory, what do theories of cognitive development aim to explain?
How individuals construct meaning from experience and how reasoning becomes more complex over developmental levels.
202
In cognitive development theory, which two major theorists must counselors understand?
Jean Piaget and Lev Vygotsky.
203
In Piaget’s cognitive developmental theory, what did he reject about learning?
That learning is determined primarily by biology or environment alone.
204
In Piaget’s cognitive development theory, what is organization?
The ability to order and classify new information.
205
In Piaget’s developmental theory, what is adaptation?
Cognitive change required to process new information.
206
In Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, what is assimilation?
Interpreting new information using an existing mental framework.
207
In Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, what is accommodation?
Adjusting cognitive structures to incorporate new information.
208
In Piaget’s cognitive development theory, what is a schema?
A mental structure for processing or integrating experiences and perceptions.
209
In Piaget’s theory, what motivates learning to occur?
A state of disequilibrium caused by conflict or challenge to existing thinking.
210
In Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, what is equilibration?
The process of restoring cognitive balance through assimilation and accommodation.
211
In Piaget’s cognitive development stages, what characterizes the sensorimotor stage?
Learning through senses and motor actions.
212
In Piaget’s sensorimotor stage, what marks the transition to symbolic thought?
The achievement of object permanence.
213
In Piaget’s preoperational stage, what major development emerges?
Symbolic representation, including language and pretend play.
214
In Piaget’s preoperational stage, what is egocentrism?
Difficulty seeing situations from others’ perspectives.
215
In Piaget’s cognitive development theory, what is centration?
Focusing on only one aspect of a situation at a time.
216
In Piaget’s preoperational stage, what is animism?
Attributing life-like qualities to inanimate objects.
217
In Piaget’s preoperational stage, what is irreversibility?
Inability to understand that actions can be undone or reversed.
218
In Piaget’s concrete operational stage, what type of reasoning emerges?
Logical reasoning about concrete objects and events.
219
In Piaget’s theory, what is conservation?
Understanding that quantity remains the same despite changes in shape or arrangement.
220
In Piaget’s concrete operational stage, what is reversibility?
Ability to mentally reverse an action or process.
221
In Piaget’s cognitive development theory, what changes occur in egocentrism during the concrete operational stage?
Egocentrism decreases; children become able to consider others’ perspectives.
222
In Piaget’s formal operational stage, what major cognitive ability develops?
Abstract and hypothetical reasoning.
223
In Piaget’s formal operations, what is hypothetico–deductive reasoning?
Using logic to deduce conclusions from premises and to test multiple hypotheses.
224
In Piaget’s cognitive development theory, does every individual reach the formal operational stage?
No; not everyone attains this level of abstract reasoning.
225
In Vygotsky’s cognitive developmental theory, what influences cognitive growth?
Language development and social–cultural interaction.
226
In Vygotsky’s cognitive developmental theory, what is the zone of proximal development (ZPD)?
The gap between what children can do independently and what they can do with assistance.
227
In Vygotsky’s cognitive development theory, what is scaffolding?
Supportive strategies provided to help children learn tasks they cannot yet do alone; removed once mastery is achieved.
228
In Vygotsky’s language development theory, what is social speech?
Speech used to influence or control others, common in children under age three.
229
In Vygotsky’s language development theory, what is egocentric speech?
Self-directed speech used by children (around age 3–7) to guide their own actions.
230
In Vygotsky’s cognitive development theory, what is private (inner) speech?
Internalized self-talk that guides behavior and supports higher mental processes, emerging around age seven.
231
In cognitive memory theory, what is sensory memory?
Immediate, momentary storage of environmental stimuli lasting only seconds.
232
In cognitive memory theory, what is short-term memory?
Temporary storage lasting seconds to minutes when information is attended to; capacity is about 7±2 items.
233
In cognitive memory theory, what is long-term memory?
Relatively permanent, extensive storage of learned information.
234
In cognitive memory theory, what enhances transfer from short-term to long-term memory?
Encoding and rehearsal.
235
In memory theory, what is echoic storage?
Storage of auditory information.
236
In memory theory, what is iconic storage?
Storage of visual information.
237
In retrieval theory of memory, why do people forget?
Information is stored in long-term memory but cannot be accessed due to lack of retrieval cues.
238
In decay theory of memory, why is information forgotten?
Memory traces fade and disappear over time.
239
In interference theory of memory, what is retroactive inhibition?
New information interferes with recall of previously learned information.
240
In interference theory of memory, what is proactive inhibition?
Previously learned information interferes with learning or recall of new information.
241
In cognitive memory strategy theory, what is chunking?
Grouping information into larger units to expand short-term memory capacity.
242
In cognitive memory strategy theory, what is the method of loci?
Using guided imagery to place information in a familiar sequence of locations for recall.
243
In cognitive memory strategies, how do acronyms improve memory?
By forming meaningful words from the first letters of items to recall (e.g., RIASEC).
244
In cognitive memory theory, what is eidetic memory?
The ability to recall visual images with extreme detail, also called photographic memory.
245
In cognitive performance theory, what does the Yerkes–Dodson law state?
Memory and performance are optimal at moderate arousal; low or high arousal reduces effectiveness.
246
In learning and memory theory, why is spaced learning more effective than massed learning?
Information is retained better when study sessions are distributed over time rather than concentrated.
247
COGNITIVE DISSONANCE THEORY
A theory explaining that people experience discomfort when new information conflicts with existing beliefs, motivating them to resolve the inconsistency.
248
cognitive dissonance
Psychological discomfort caused by conflicting beliefs or information.
249
how do people usually resolve dissonance?
They tend to reject or reinterpret new information instead of changing their beliefs.
250
confirmatory bias
The tendency to seek information that confirms existing beliefs.
251
ATTRIBUTION THEORY
A theory explaining how people assign causes (attributes) to events and outcomes in order to understand why things happen.
252
stability dimension
Whether the cause is stable (consistent over time) or unstable (changeable).
253
effect of stable attributions
They can lead to hopelessness, since outcomes appear unchangeable.
254
locus dimension
Whether the cause lies internally (within the person) or externally (outside factors).
255
control dimension
Whether the cause is controllable or uncontrollable by the individual.
256
ADOLESCENT EGOCENTRISM THEORY
A theory describing adolescents’ heightened self-focus, leading to beliefs of being observed and being uniquely special.
257
imaginary audience
The belief that everyone is watching and judging one’s behavior.
258
personal fable
The belief in one’s uniqueness and invulnerability (“It won’t happen to me”).
259
INTELLIGENCE THEORIES
A theory dividing intelligence into crystallized (learned) and fluid (problem-solving) components.
260
crystallized intelligence
Learned verbal, mathematical, and experiential abilities.
261
fluid intelligence
Nonverbal reasoning and pattern recognition.
262
Spearman’s intelligence theory
A theory stating that intelligence consists of a general ability (g) and specific abilities (s).
263
g
General intelligence common to all cognitive tasks.
264
s
Specific skills or abilities relevant to certain tasks.
265
intelligence development theory
Both genetic inheritance and environmental interactions.
266
CREATIVITY THEORY
A theory describing creativity as a combination of divergent and convergent thinking processes.
267
divergent thinking
Generating many possible ideas or solutions.
268
convergent thinking
Focusing on selecting the best solution and refining it.
269
highly creative thinkers
Many ideas, in diverse categories, with greater detail/elaboration.
270
GENDER DIFFERENCES IN COGNITIVE DEVELOPMENT
Differences within each gender exceed the small average differences between genders.
271
small ability differences at ages 10–12
Girls slightly outperform boys in verbal skills; boys slightly outperform girls in math.
272
COGNITIVE AGING THEORY
A theory describing how cognitive abilities change across adulthood, often declining gradually with age.
273
significant declines in cognitive abilities
Around age 70.
274
cognitive tasks difficult for older adults
Learning new information, retrieving old information, timed tasks, and memorization tasks.
275
In learning theory approaches to language development, what is the theory itself?
A view that children learn language by observing, imitating, and being reinforced for speech sounds.
276
In social learning theory (Bandura) applied to language development, how do children acquire language?
By observing and imitating language models such as parents, siblings, and peers.
277
In learning theory (Bandura), what is a limitation of imitation in explaining language development?
It does not explain the creation of novel speech or sentences.
278
In stimulus–response learning theory (behaviorism), how is language learned?
Through reinforcement of speech sounds that gradually approximate adult speech.
279
In Chomsky’s nativist theory of language development, what is the theory itself?
A theory proposing that humans are biologically programmed to learn language through an innate language acquisition device (LAD).
280
In Chomsky’s nativist theory, what is the language acquisition device (LAD)?
An innate neurological system enabling humans to perceive, generate, and use language.
281
In Chomsky’s nativist theory, what are surface structures?
Language-specific grammatical rules.
282
In Chomsky’s nativist theory, what are deep structures?
Universal, innate grammatical rules shared across languages.
283
In Chomsky’s nativist theory, what evidence supports the theory?
All children follow the same developmental language stages and master basic language by ages 5–6.
284
In the interactionist approach to language development, what is the theory itself?
The view that language develops through a combination of biological predispositions and social/cultural interactions.
285
In interactionist language theory, what contributes to language development?
Exposure to language, social engagement, and cognitive readiness.
286
In psycholinguistics, what is the field itself?
The scientific study of how language develops.
287
In language development theory, what is speech?
The physical production of verbal sounds.
288
In language development theory, what is language?
A system of grammar and meaning that enables mutual understanding.
289
In semantics theory, what is semantics?
The study of word meanings.
290
In syntax theory, what is syntax?
The correct use of grammar rules.
291
In pragmatics theory, what is pragmatics?
How language is used in social contexts (e.g., turn-taking, gestures).
292
In phonology theory, what is phonology?
The study of the sound system of a language.
293
In phonology theory, what is a phoneme?
The smallest unit of sound in a language (English has about 40).
294
In morphology theory, what is morphology?
The study of how words are formed.
295
In morphology theory, what is a morpheme?
The smallest unit of meaning (e.g., “boy,” “-s”).
296
In language variation theory, what is a dialect?
A variation of a language based on region, age, social class, or occupation.
297
In neurolinguistic theory, what is Broca’s area responsible for?
Speech production; damage results in slow, labored speech (motor aphasia).
298
In neurolinguistic theory, what is Wernicke’s area responsible for?
Speech comprehension; damage results in difficulty understanding language (sensory aphasia).
299
In neurolinguistic theory, what is the arcuate fasciculus?
A bundle of nerve fibers connecting Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas.
300
In early language development theory, at what age does a baby smile when talked to?
3 months.
301
In early language development theory, when does a baby turn their head toward a voice?
4 months.
302
In early language development theory, when does cooing begin?
5 months.
303
In early language development theory, when does babbling resembling speech begin?
6 months.
304
In early language development theory, when do infants start repeating syllables (e.g., “ma-ma”)?
8 months.
305
In early language development theory, when do children begin to understand some words?
1 year.
306
In early language development theory, when can a child produce about 50 one-word utterances (holophrases)?
1.5 years.
307
In early language development theory, when do children begin using two-word phrases?
2 years.
308
In early language development theory, when do children develop a vocabulary of several hundred words and speak in short sentences?
2.5 years.
309
In early language development theory, about how many words does a typical 3-year-old know?
Around 1,000 words.
310
In early language development theory, at what age do children demonstrate consistent use of basic grammar rules?
4 years.
311
In DSM-5 communication disorders, what does normal language development involve?
Both receptive (understanding) and expressive (producing) language skills, closely tied to learning and information processing.
312
In DSM-5 communication disorders, what percentage of children experience receptive or expressive language difficulty?
Approximately 2% to 5%.
313
In DSM-5 Language Disorder, what is the disorder itself?
A long-term difficulty in acquiring or using spoken or written language.
314
In DSM-5 Language Disorder, what assessment sources are required?
Standardized tests and naturalistic observations.
315
In DSM-5 Language Disorder, what are common symptoms?
Limited vocabulary and difficulty producing or understanding developmentally appropriate sentences.
316
In DSM-5 Speech Sound Disorder, what is the disorder itself?
Difficulty producing developmentally expected speech sounds.
317
In DSM-5 Speech Sound Disorder, what types of errors are common?
Misarticulations and sound substitutions.
318
In DSM-5 Social Communication Disorder, what is the disorder itself?
A pragmatic language impairment affecting understanding and use of verbal and nonverbal social cues.
319
In DSM-5 Social Communication Disorder, what areas of functioning are affected?
Social relationships and comprehension of social interactions.
320
In adult-onset communication disorders, what are common causes?
Stroke, dementia, or brain trauma.
321
In adult-onset communication disorders, what is aphasia?
Difficulty in naming objects.
322
In adult-onset communication disorders, what is anomia?
Difficulty finding words (word-finding problems).
323
In Freud’s psychosexual theory, what is the theory itself?
A theory proposing that personality develops through resolving conflicts driven by libidinal (psychic) energy focused on different body zones as one matures.
324
In Freud’s psychoanalytic theory, what role do past experiences play?
They strongly influence current behaviors, needs, and personality development.
325
In Freud’s psychoanalytic theory, what is the libido?
The instinctual life force that drives behavior (e.g., sexual, aggressive, survival instincts).
326
In Freud’s structural theory, what is the id?
The instinctual component present at birth that seeks immediate gratification based on the pleasure principle.
327
In Freud’s structural theory, what principle does the id operate on?
The pleasure principle—seeking immediate satisfaction of impulses.
328
In Freud’s structural theory, what is the ego?
The rational component that develops in the first year of life and mediates between the id and superego using the reality principle.
329
In Freud’s structural theory, what principle does the ego operate on?
The reality principle—finding realistic ways to satisfy the id’s desires.
330
In Freud’s structural theory, what is the superego?
The moral component of personality, emerging around age five, representing internalized values and societal rules.
331
In Freud’s theory, what principle does the superego operate on?
The morality principle—enforcing ethical standards and prohibitions.
332
In Freud’s psychoanalytic theory, what causes anxiety?
Conflict between the id’s impulses and the superego’s moral demands when the ego cannot mediate.
333
In Freud’s theory of defense mechanisms, what is repression?
Unconsciously pushing threatening thoughts and feelings out of awareness.
334
In Freud’s defense mechanism theory, what is regression?
Returning to earlier, more comfortable stages of behavior.
335
In Freud’s defense mechanisms, what is displacement?
Redirecting emotions toward a less threatening target.
336
In Freud’s theory, what is projection?
Attributing one’s own unacceptable feelings or motives to someone else.
337
In Freud’s defense mechanisms, what is rationalization?
Justifying behaviors with logical explanations to conceal true motives.
338
In Freud’s defense mechanisms, what is compensation?
Making up for perceived weaknesses by excelling in other areas.
339
In Freud’s defense mechanisms, what is denial?
Refusing to acknowledge reality.
340
In Freud’s defense mechanisms, what is reaction formation?
Expressing the opposite of one’s unacceptable impulses.
341
In Freud’s psychosexual theory, what is fixation?
Stagnation in a psychosexual stage due to over- or under-gratification, influencing adult personality.
342
In Freud’s psychosexual stages, what characterizes the oral stage?
Pleasure is centered on the mouth through sucking and mouthing.
343
In Freud’s oral stage, what personality traits may result from fixation?
Dependency, passivity, gullibility, sarcasm; habits like smoking or overeating.
344
In Freud’s anal stage, what is the focus of gratification?
Retention and expulsion of feces; toilet training.
345
In Freud’s anal stage, what traits result from anal retentive fixation?
Orderliness, stinginess, compulsiveness, obsessive thinking.
346
In Freud’s anal stage, what traits result from anal expulsive fixation?
Messiness, destructiveness, cruelty.
347
In Freud’s phallic stage, what is the primary source of gratification?
The genitals, including masturbation and exploration.
348
In Freud’s phallic stage, what is the Oedipus complex?
A male child’s desire to eliminate the father to possess the mother.
349
In Freud’s phallic stage, what is the Electra complex?
A female child’s desire to eliminate the mother to possess the father.
350
In Freud’s phallic stage, what resolves the Oedipus/Electra complex?
Identification with the same-sex parent.
351
In Freud’s phallic stage, what develops during this period?
The superego.
352
In Freud’s latency stage, what happens to sexual impulses?
They become dormant.
353
In Freud’s latency stage, what is the focus of development?
Social skill mastery, learning, and ego refinement.
354
In Freud’s theory, what role do defense mechanisms play during latency?
Children learn to manage anxiety using them.
355
In Freud’s genital stage, what reemerges?
Sexual impulses directed toward mature, adult relationships.
356
In Freud’s genital stage, what indicates successful development?
Ability to sublimate parental love and form healthy romantic relationships.
357
Ego Development Theory
A theory proposing that personality develops through progressive stages of ego maturity, with potential fixation at any stage.
358
Presocial Stage
Babies begin to differentiate themselves from the external world.
359
Symbiotic Stage
Children further differentiate self from others.
360
Impulsive Stage
A stage where a child asserts identity and acts on impulses.
361
Self-Protective Stage
A stage involving rule-governed behavior and basic self-control.
362
Conformist Stage
Ego development focused on obeying rules and seeking acceptance from family/group.
363
Self-Awareness / Self-Conscious Stage
A stage focused on striving for stability, maturity, and greater self-understanding.
364
Conscientious Stage
A stage where internalized morality and personal responsibility deepen.
365
Individualistic Stage
A stage emphasizing individuality and awareness of internal conflict.
366
Autonomous Stage
A stage defined by striving for self-fulfillment and coping effectively with inner conflict.
367
Integrated Stage
The highest stage, marked by consolidated identity and full ego integration.
368
Humanistic Theory
A holistic theory viewing humans as inherently good and motivated by an innate drive toward self-actualization.
369
Physiological needs
Basic survival needs such as food, water, and rest.
370
Safety needs
Physical and emotional security, shelter, and stability.
371
Belongingness needs
Love, affiliation, and feeling connected to others.
372
Esteem needs
Needs for self-respect, competence, achievement, and confidence.
373
Self-actualization
The realization of one’s highest potential and purpose.
374
Self-actualization needs typically met
Often in middle adulthood or later (around age 60+), if ever.
375
Characteristics of self-actualized individuals
Acceptance of self and others, spontaneity, autonomy, creativity, resistance to enculturation, and deep appreciation of life.
376
Five Factor Model
A comprehensive, evidence-based model describing personality using five broad traits: openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism.
377
High openness
Imagination, emotional awareness, curiosity, and desire for new experiences.
378
Low openness
Conventional thinking and preference for routine.
379
High conscientiousness
Planning, responsibility, achievement striving, and behavioral self-regulation.
380
Low conscientiousness
Spontaneity, risk-taking, and less structure.
381
High extraversion
Sociability, outgoing behavior, and energetic engagement.
382
Introversion
Preference for solitude and quieter activities.
383
High agreeableness
Friendliness, compassion, trust, and cooperation.
384
Low agreeableness
Self-focus, competitiveness, and reduced concern for others’ feelings.
385
High neuroticism
Anxiety, emotional instability, and difficulty coping with stress.
386
Low neuroticism
Emotional stability and greater resilience to stress.
387
NEO-PI-3
Measuring the five personality factors to aid in client assessment and intervention planning.
388
Ego Development Theory
A theory proposing that personality develops through progressive stages of ego maturity, with potential fixation at any stage.
389
Presocial Stage
Babies begin to differentiate themselves from the external world.
390
Symbiotic Stage
Children further differentiate self from others.
391
Impulsive Stage
A stage where a child asserts identity and acts on impulses.
392
Self-Protective Stage
A stage involving rule-governed behavior and basic self-control.
393
Conformist Stage
Ego development focused on obeying rules and seeking acceptance from family/group.
394
Self-Awareness / Self-Conscious Stage
A stage focused on striving for stability, maturity, and greater self-understanding.
395
Conscientious Stage
A stage where internalized morality and personal responsibility deepen.
396
Individualistic Stage
A stage emphasizing individuality and awareness of internal conflict.
397
Autonomous Stage
A stage defined by striving for self-fulfillment and coping effectively with inner conflict.
398
Integrated Stage
The highest stage, marked by consolidated identity and full ego integration.
399
Humanistic Theory
A holistic theory viewing humans as inherently good and motivated by an innate drive toward self-actualization.
400
Physiological needs
Basic survival needs such as food, water, and rest.
401
Safety needs
Physical and emotional security, shelter, and stability.
402
Belongingness needs
Love, affiliation, and feeling connected to others.
403
Esteem needs
Needs for self-respect, competence, achievement, and confidence.
404
Self-actualization
The realization of one’s highest potential and purpose.
405
Self-actualization needs typically met
Often in middle adulthood or later (around age 60+), if ever.
406
Characteristics of self-actualized individuals
Acceptance of self and others, spontaneity, autonomy, creativity, resistance to enculturation, and deep appreciation of life.
407
Five Factor Model
A comprehensive, evidence-based model describing personality using five broad traits: openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism.
408
High openness
Imagination, emotional awareness, curiosity, and desire for new experiences.
409
Low openness
Conventional thinking and preference for routine.
410
High conscientiousness
Planning, responsibility, achievement striving, and behavioral self-regulation.
411
Low conscientiousness
Spontaneity, risk-taking, and less structure.
412
High extraversion
Sociability, outgoing behavior, and energetic engagement.
413
Introversion
Preference for solitude and quieter activities.
414
High agreeableness
Friendliness, compassion, trust, and cooperation.
415
Low agreeableness
Self-focus, competitiveness, and reduced concern for others’ feelings.
416
High neuroticism
Anxiety, emotional instability, and difficulty coping with stress.
417
Low neuroticism
Emotional stability and greater resilience to stress.
418
NEO-PI-3
Measuring the five personality factors to aid in client assessment and intervention planning.
419
In Erikson’s psychosocial theory, what is the theory itself?
A lifespan theory proposing that personality develops through eight psychosocial crises shaped by social interactions, with successful resolution leading to healthy ego development.
420
In Erikson’s psychosocial theory, how does Erikson differ from Freud?
Erikson believed development continues throughout the lifespan and that problems can be revisited and corrected later in life.
421
In Erikson’s psychosocial theory, what drives personality development?
Social interactions and the individual’s ability to resolve psychosocial crises at each stage.
422
In Erikson’s stage of Basic Trust vs. Mistrust, what is the central task?
Developing trust through consistent caregiving and nurturance.
423
In Erikson’s Basic Trust vs. Mistrust, what leads to mistrust?
Unpredictable, uncaring, or neglectful caregiving.
424
In Erikson’s Basic Trust vs. Mistrust, who are the key social figures?
Parents or primary caregivers.
425
In Erikson’s Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt stage, what is the developmental task?
Developing independence by using motor and cognitive abilities to make choices.
426
In Erikson’s Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt, what fosters autonomy?
Supportive caregiving that balances freedom with appropriate limits.
427
In Erikson’s Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt, what leads to shame and doubt?
Overly controlling caregivers who restrict independence.
428
In Erikson’s Initiative vs. Guilt stage, what is the central task?
Developing purpose by initiating activities, planning, and taking responsibility.
429
In Erikson’s Initiative vs. Guilt, what leads to guilt?
Excessive control or criticism that discourages initiative.
430
In Erikson’s Initiative vs. Guilt, what social relationships are most influential?
Family members (parents, siblings, extended family).
431
In Erikson’s Industry vs. Inferiority stage, what is the developmental task?
Building competence through mastering academic, social, and practical skills.
432
In Erikson’s Industry vs. Inferiority, what leads to inferiority?
Failure to develop skills or negative feedback from peers, teachers, or caregivers.
433
In Erikson’s Industry vs. Inferiority, what social settings matter most?
School, peers, and the neighborhood.
434
In Erikson’s Identity vs. Role Confusion stage, what is the central task?
Establishing a cohesive personal identity and sense of direction.
435
In Erikson’s Identity vs. Role Confusion, what leads to confusion?
Inability to choose values, goals, or a clear sense of self.
436
In Erikson’s Identity vs. Role Confusion, what group becomes most influential?
Peers.
437
In Erikson’s Intimacy vs. Isolation stage, what is the developmental task?
Forming intimate, loving relationships and meaningful friendships.
438
In Erikson’s Intimacy vs. Isolation, what leads to isolation?
Fear of commitment or inability to develop close relationships.
439
In Erikson’s Intimacy vs. Isolation, what social groups are central?
Romantic partners and close friends.
440
In Erikson’s Generativity vs. Stagnation stage, what is the central task?
Contributing to future generations through work, parenting, and mentoring.
441
In Erikson’s Generativity vs. Stagnation, what leads to stagnation?
Lack of accomplishment, productivity, or meaningful contribution.
442
In Erikson’s Generativity vs. Stagnation, what relationships are emphasized?
Family, partners, and close interpersonal relationships.
443
In Erikson’s Integrity vs. Despair stage, what is the developmental task?
Reflecting on life with acceptance, pride, and fulfillment.
444
In Erikson’s Integrity vs. Despair, what causes despair?
Regret, dissatisfaction, or fear when reflecting on one’s life.
445
In Erikson’s Integrity vs. Despair, what becomes the primary social focus?
All of humankind.
446
In critiques of Erikson’s psychosocial theory, what are major criticisms?
It is considered ethnocentric and gender-biased for emphasizing independence over community.
447
Ethological Theory (General)
A theory emphasizing instinctual, biological bases of behavior, proposing that humans are born with innate capacities shaped by evolution, observable through naturalistic observation.
448
In ethological theory, what role does evolution play?
It shapes inborn behaviors and capacities that affect learning and development.
449
Konrad Lorenz — Imprinting
The rapid, irreversible process by which a newborn animal (e.g., gosling) attaches to the first moving object it sees.
450
In Lorenz’s theory, what is a critical or sensitive period?
A limited time during which imprinting or certain developmental processes must occur.
451
John Bowlby — Attachment Theory
A theory proposing that infants are born with an innate capacity to form attachment bonds that support emotional security and exploration.
452
In Bowlby’s theory, what happens if attachment fails early in life?
It may impair trust, emotional security, and intimacy later in development.
453
In Bowlby’s attachment theory, what is the protest stage?
The infant refuses separation and cries intensely.
454
In Bowlby’s attachment theory, what is the despair stage?
The infant becomes quiet, inactive, and withdrawn after prolonged separation.
455
In Bowlby’s attachment theory, what is the detachment stage?
The infant appears to accept attention from others and may show indifference toward the returning caregiver.
456
Mary Ainsworth — Attachment Patterns
A theory describing different patterns of attachment based on infants’ responses to separation and reunion with caregivers.
457
In Ainsworth’s attachment patterns, what is secure attachment?
The child explores freely, protests separation, and is comforted at reunion.
458
In Ainsworth’s attachment patterns, what is avoidant attachment?
The child ignores the caregiver, shows little distress at separation, and avoids reunion.
459
In Ainsworth’s attachment patterns, what is ambivalent (resistant) attachment?
The child clings to the caregiver, refuses to explore, and protests separation strongly.
460
In Ainsworth’s attachment patterns, what is disorganized attachment?
The child shows little emotion at separation and confusion or contradictory behavior at reunion.
461
Harry Harlow — Contact Comfort Experiments
Infant monkeys preferred contact comfort (soft terrycloth mother) over food-providing wire mothers.
462
In Harlow’s research, what did contact comfort demonstrate?
Emotional warmth and physical comfort are essential components of attachment.
463
Normal Ethological Phenomena in Human Infants
A fear response to unfamiliar people emerging around 6 months of age.
464
In ethological theory, what contributes to stranger anxiety?
Improved visual acuity, object permanence, and heightened cognitive awareness.
465
In ethological theory, what is separation anxiety?
Distress shown by infants (typically 1–2 years old) when separated from a primary caregiver.
466
In ethological theory, how is normal separation anxiety different from Separation Anxiety Disorder?
Normal separation anxiety is short-lived and developmentally expected, whereas the disorder is excessive, impairing, and clinically significant.
467
In Erikson’s psychosocial theory, what is the identity vs. role diffusion stage?
The adolescent crisis in which individuals work to form a coherent, stable sense of self while avoiding confusion about roles and direction.
468
In Erikson’s identity theory, what is identity?
An understanding of oneself as a separate, unique individual created by synthesizing many past identifications into a coherent whole.
469
In Erikson’s identity theory, why do teens shift between many roles?
To evaluate different versions of the self (e.g., student, athlete, friend) and determine which roles fit them best.
470
In identity development theory, what is a normative identity?
An identity aligned with societal or cultural expectations (e.g., becoming a teacher, doctor, parent).
471
In identity development theory, what is a deviant identity?
An identity not supported by societal norms, such as involvement in criminal or addictive behaviors.
472
In identity development theory, what is an achieved identity?
One earned through effort, ability, and personal accomplishment.
473
In identity development theory, what is an ascribed identity?
An identity given by others or imposed through others’ achievements or expectations (e.g., “You’re just like your mother”).
474
In Marcia’s identity status theory, what is the theory itself?
A model expanding Erikson’s ideas, proposing four identity statuses based on exploration and commitment.
475
In Marcia’s Identity Status Theory, what is identity achievement?
The individual has explored options and made commitments to goals and values.
476
In Marcia’s Identity Status Theory, what is identity moratorium?
Active exploration is occurring, but no commitment to goals has yet been made.
477
In Marcia’s Identity Status Theory, what is identity foreclosure?
The individual adopts goals or values imposed by others (parents, peers) without meaningful exploration.
478
In Marcia’s Identity Status Theory, what is identity diffusion?
A lack of exploration and a lack of commitment; the teen avoids or procrastinates on identity-related decisions.
479
sexual identity
Biological identity determined by chromosomal and genetic features.
480
gender identity
Psychosocial awareness of being male or female, influenced by environment and culture; usually established by age 3.
481
gender roles
Socially defined behaviors and expectations associated with being male or female.
482
androgyny
Gender-neutral or flexible behaviors and traits not tied to traditional male/female expectations.
483
gender role conflict
Anxiety or dissonance experienced when societal gender expectations clash with changing roles or personal identity.
484
theory itself (social learning theory of gender role development)
Children learn gender roles through observation, imitation, and reinforcement of sex-typed behaviors.
485
influences gender roles (social learning theory - Bandura)
Same-sex models, caregivers, media, and reinforcement patterns.
486
theory itself (cognitive-developmental theory - Kohlberg)
Children’s gender understanding develops as cognitive abilities mature.
487
age gender identity typically recognized (Kohlberg’s gender development theory)
Around ages 2–3.
488
understand around age 7 (Kohlberg’s cognitive-developmental theory)
That gender is constant across situations and cannot change by altering appearance.
489
emphasized (biological theories of gender development)
The role of hormones such as testosterone in influencing behavior.
490
trend observed with aggression and testosterone (biological theory)
Higher testosterone levels are associated with more aggressive behavior.
491
shapes gender role identification (psychoanalytic theory of gender development - Freud)
Resolution of the Oedipus or Electra complex and identification with the same-sex parent.
492
how do parents influence gender roles (environmental gender role theory)
Through differential expectations, reinforcement, and toy/activity choices.
493
how may teachers reinforce gender differences (gender role development)
Through subtle stereotypes about behavior, ability, or occupational roles.
494
how do peers influence gendered behavior (gender role development)
Boys tend to engage in more active play; girls often engage in quieter or less physical activities.
495
how does media influence children’s gender roles (gender role development)
Media portrayals create stereotypes that can become deeply ingrained and resistant to change.
496
what role do peer groups play in childhood (social development theory)
They foster autonomy, competence, and social skill development.
497
what are rituals and routines (social development theory)
Expected patterns of interaction required for peer group acceptance.
498
what are dominance hierarchies (social development theory)
Natural leader–follower structures in peer groups, even among young children.
499
what is prosocial behavior (prosocial behavior theory)
Sensitivity to others’ needs; emerges early but is inconsistent until later childhood.
500
what is instrumental aggression (aggression theory)
Aggression used to obtain objects, territory, or rewards.
501
what is hostile aggression (aggression theory)
Aggression aimed at harming another person.
502
which group of children is generally more aggressive (social development theory)
Young boys, who often have more active and gross-motor play.
503
how are aggressive children typically raised (social development theory)
By aggressive parents.
504
what is nonsocial activity (Parten’s social play theory)
Children play alone or watch others without interacting.
505
what is parallel play (Parten’s theory)
Children play near each other, doing similar activities without interacting.
506
what is associative play (Parten’s theory)
Children engage in separate activities but exchange comments or share materials.
507
what is cooperative play (Parten’s theory)
Children play together to achieve a shared goal.
508
what is sociodramatic play (sociodramatic play theory)
Imitative, role-based play that supports advanced social interaction.
509
what is the general self-concept (self-concept theory)
A broad, stable belief about oneself that is resistant to change.
510
why is the general self-concept hard to change (self-concept theory)
People selectively focus on experiences that confirm their existing view of themselves.
511
why is focusing on specific self-concepts more helpful for change (self-concept theory)
Specific domains (academic, peer, family, emotional, physical) are more malleable and easier to improve.
512
how should counselors help children change self-concept (self-concept intervention theory)
Begin with concrete, achievable tasks, evaluate successes, and build upon them.
513
Successful Aging (General Theory)
Life satisfaction, social roles, financial security, autonomy, physical functioning, mental health, and a lifestyle consistent with one’s personality.
514
Disengagement Theory (Aging Theory)
A theory proposing that older adults naturally withdraw from the social system to reflect, focus on themselves, and reduce emotional connections.
515
In Disengagement Theory, why does withdrawal occur?
Due to decreased need for social interaction and increased desire for self-preoccupation and reflection.
516
Activity Theory (Aging Theory)
A theory proposing that older adults prefer to remain socially active to resist self-preoccupation and maintain strong social relationships.
517
According to Activity Theory, what promotes well-being in older adults?
Staying engaged with others, maintaining activities, and preserving social connections.
518
Atchley’s Four Stages of Retirement (Atchley, 1975)
The period when individuals make plans for retirement.
519
In Atchley’s retirement theory, what characterizes the “honeymoon” phase?
The immediate period after retirement when individuals enjoy newfound freedom and autonomy.
520
In Atchley’s retirement theory, what is the Disenchantment stage?
The phase when novelty fades and individuals may feel disappointed or realize their retirement plans were unrealistic.
521
In Atchley’s retirement theory, what is the Reorientation stage?
Creating a realistic, satisfying post-retirement lifestyle.
522
Kübler-Ross’s Stages of Grief (1969)
A model describing emotional stages experienced when facing death, loss, or major life transitions.
523
In Kübler-Ross’s stages of grief, what is Shock and Denial?
Disbelief or refusal to accept that the loss or event has occurred.
524
In Kübler-Ross’s stages, what is Anger?
A period of rage or frustration directed at oneself, others, or the situation.
525
In Kübler-Ross’s stages, what is Bargaining and Guilt?
Attempting to reverse the loss through bargaining and feeling guilt over perceived responsibility.
526
In Kübler-Ross’s stages, what is Hopelessness?
A stage marked by loneliness and depression that becomes uncomfortable enough to motivate change.
527
In Kübler-Ross’s stages, what is Acceptance?
Adjusting to the new reality and moving forward with life.
528
Grief Counseling Considerations (Thanatology)
Strength of the relationship, mode of loss, age and sex of the mourner.
529
In grief counseling theory, what are obstacles to grieving?
Sudden loss, lack of closure, absence of support, or ambiguous circumstances.
530
In grief counseling theory, what is complicated grief?
Prolonged, intense, or dysfunctional grieving that interferes with daily functioning.
531
What is thanatology?
The study of death, dying, and grief.
532
Successful Aging (General Theory)
Life satisfaction, social roles, financial security, autonomy, physical functioning, mental health, and a lifestyle consistent with one’s personality.
533
Disengagement Theory (Aging Theory)
A theory proposing that older adults naturally withdraw from the social system to reflect, focus on themselves, and reduce emotional connections.
534
In Disengagement Theory, why does withdrawal occur?
Due to decreased need for social interaction and increased desire for self-preoccupation and reflection.
535
Activity Theory (Aging Theory)
A theory proposing that older adults prefer to remain socially active to resist self-preoccupation and maintain strong social relationships.
536
According to Activity Theory, what promotes well-being in older adults?
Staying engaged with others, maintaining activities, and preserving social connections.
537
Atchley’s Four Stages of Retirement (Atchley, 1975)
The period when individuals make plans for retirement.
538
In Atchley’s retirement theory, what characterizes the “honeymoon” phase?
The immediate period after retirement when individuals enjoy newfound freedom and autonomy.
539
In Atchley’s retirement theory, what is the Disenchantment stage?
The phase when novelty fades and individuals may feel disappointed or realize their retirement plans were unrealistic.
540
In Atchley’s retirement theory, what is the Reorientation stage?
Creating a realistic, satisfying post-retirement lifestyle.
541
Kübler-Ross’s Stages of Grief (1969)
A model describing emotional stages experienced when facing death, loss, or major life transitions.
542
In Kübler-Ross’s stages of grief, what is Shock and Denial?
Disbelief or refusal to accept that the loss or event has occurred.
543
In Kübler-Ross’s stages, what is Anger?
A period of rage or frustration directed at oneself, others, or the situation.
544
In Kübler-Ross’s stages, what is Bargaining and Guilt?
Attempting to reverse the loss through bargaining and feeling guilt over perceived responsibility.
545
In Kübler-Ross’s stages, what is Hopelessness?
A stage marked by loneliness and depression that becomes uncomfortable enough to motivate change.
546
In Kübler-Ross’s stages, what is Acceptance?
Adjusting to the new reality and moving forward with life.
547
Grief Counseling Considerations (Thanatology)
Strength of the relationship, mode of loss, age and sex of the mourner.
548
In grief counseling theory, what are obstacles to grieving?
Sudden loss, lack of closure, absence of support, or ambiguous circumstances.
549
In grief counseling theory, what is complicated grief?
Prolonged, intense, or dysfunctional grieving that interferes with daily functioning.
550
What is thanatology?
The study of death, dying, and grief.
551
In moral development theory, what is moral development?
The growing ability to distinguish right from wrong and to act accordingly.
552
In moral development theory, who proposed the most influential model?
Lawrence Kohlberg.
553
In moral development theory, what criticism has been made of Kohlberg’s model?
It has been criticized as male-centered.
554
In moral development theory, which theorist emphasized women’s moral development?
Carol Gilligan.
555
In moral development theory, which other theorists also contribute smaller models?
Piaget (cognitive), Freud (psychoanalytic), behavioral theorists, and social learning theorists.
556
In Kohlberg’s moral development theory, what is the theory itself?
A cognitive developmental stage theory proposing that moral reasoning develops through three levels and six stages, influenced by cognitive maturity.
557
In Kohlberg’s theory, how consistent are stage ages?
Ages vary widely; not everyone reaches the highest level.
558
In Kohlberg’s research, what did he find regarding Stage 6?
Up to two-thirds of adults do not reach the postconventional level.
559
In Kohlberg’s theory, how does moral reasoning relate to moral behavior?
Knowing what is moral does not guarantee acting morally.
560
In Kohlberg’s research, what assessment tool did he use?
The Defining Issues Test, using moral dilemmas and multiple-choice responses aligned with his stages.
561
In Kohlberg’s Level I (Preconventional Level), what defines moral reasoning?
Focus on rewards, punishments, and self-interest; little awareness of societal standards.
562
In Kohlberg’s Stage 1 (Obedience and Punishment), how do individuals judge actions?
Based on avoiding punishment and pleasing stronger authority figures.
563
In Kohlberg’s Stage 1, what type of thinking dominates?
Egocentric thinking.
564
In Kohlberg’s Stage 2 (Instrumental Hedonism), what motivates moral action?
Self-interest and personal gain (“You do for me, I do for you”).
565
In Kohlberg’s Stage 2, how do individuals consider others’ perspectives?
Only as long as it helps achieve their own goals.
566
In Kohlberg’s Level II (Conventional Level), what defines moral reasoning?
Wanting to conform to rules, gain approval, and maintain social order.
567
In Kohlberg’s Stage 3 (“Good Boy, Good Girl”), what motivates correct action?
Desire to please others and gain approval.
568
In Kohlberg’s Stage 3, what developmental advances appear?
True empathy, reciprocal justice, and emerging equality.
569
In Kohlberg’s Stage 4 (Law and Order), how do individuals view rules?
As absolute and necessary for maintaining social order—rules must be followed for their own sake.
570
In Kohlberg’s Stage 4, what defines justice?
Reciprocity between individuals and the broader social system.
571
In Kohlberg’s Level III (Postconventional Level), what defines moral reasoning?
Evaluation and personal selection of moral principles that may differ from societal norms.
572
In Kohlberg’s Stage 5 (Social/Moral Contract), how is morality defined?
By societal agreements and individual rights, with the possibility of changing laws to benefit society.
573
In Kohlberg’s Stage 5, how are rules viewed?
As relative and subject to democratic revision.
574
In Kohlberg’s Stage 6 (Universal Ethical Principles), what guides moral behavior?
Self-chosen ethical principles based on justice, dignity, and equality.
575
In Kohlberg’s Stage 6, how are individuals treated under these principles?
As ends in themselves, deserving intrinsic respect.
576
In Arnold Gesell’s developmental milestone theory, what is the central idea?
That development unfolds according to genetically programmed maturation, with limited influence from the environment.
577
Who created the Gesell Scales and what do they measure?
Arnold Gesell; they measure developmental progress and produce a developmental quotient indicating normal developmental status.
578
In Gesell’s developmental milestones, what are physical/cognitive abilities from birth to 6 months?
Sucking reflex, organized sleep cycle, lifting head, rolling over, reaching for objects, developing hearing and depth perception, repeating pleasurable actions, early object permanence.
579
In Gesell’s milestones, what language and personal–social behaviors appear from birth to 6 months?
Differential crying, social smile, laughter, cooing, babbling, expressions of basic emotions, imitation of adult facial expressions.
580
In Gesell’s milestones, what physical/cognitive skills emerge from 7–12 months?
Sitting up, crawling, walking, pincer grasp, improved depth perception, goal-directed behavior, finding hidden objects, improved recall for people and places.
581
In Gesell’s milestones, what language/personal–social behaviors develop from 7–12 months?
Spoken language sounds, gestures like pointing, stranger anxiety, separation anxiety, strong attachment, more intense emotional expression.
582
In Gesell’s milestones, what physical/cognitive abilities develop from 13–18 months?
Coordinated walking, scribbling, stacking 2–3 cubes, trial-and-error learning, climbing stairs, throwing objects.
583
In Gesell’s milestones, what language/personal–social skills appear from 13–18 months?
Playing peek-a-boo and pat-a-cake, first words, pointing to desired objects, self-recognition, early empathy and compliance, vocabulary up to ~50 words.
584
In Gesell’s milestones, what physical/cognitive abilities develop from 19–24 months?
Running, jumping, climbing, building 4–5 block towers.
585
In Gesell’s milestones, what language/personal–social skills appear from 19–24 months?
Vocabulary around 200 words, 3–4 word sentences, parallel play, turn-taking, early cooperation, using language to regulate emotions, beginnings of self-control.
586
In Gesell’s milestones, what physical/cognitive skills develop from ages 3–5?
Improved running, jumping, climbing, throwing, catching; full toilet training; ability to stand on one foot.
587
In Gesell’s milestones, what language/personal–social advances occur from 3–5 years?
Make-believe play, vocabulary of thousands of words, developing gender identity and self-concept, emerging cooperative play.
588
In Gesell’s milestones, what are physical/cognitive skills from ages 6–11?
Slower growth, major improvements in coordination, more legible handwriting, faster reaction time, enhanced logical thinking, better focus, improved memory.
589
In Gesell’s milestones, what language/personal–social skills appear from ages 6–11?
Stable dominance hierarchies, improved vocabulary and grammar, understanding of double meanings, better humor and flexibility, emotional self-regulation, stronger friendships and peer groups.
590
In Gesell’s milestones, what physical/cognitive abilities develop in adolescence?
Pubertal growth spurt, sexual maturation, secondary sex characteristics, complex problem solving, formal operational reasoning.
591
In Gesell’s milestones, what language/personal–social changes occur in adolescence?
Abstract vocabulary, complex grammar and writing, increased peer involvement, intimate friendships, loyalty, peer pressure, cliques, identity formation, and exploration of sexuality.
592
In Havighurst’s Developmental Task Theory, what is the main idea?
Humans progress through stages of life by mastering age-related developmental tasks; success leads to self-esteem and competence, while failure leads to difficulty with later tasks.
593
According to Havighurst, what determines developmental tasks?
Early tasks are largely biological; later tasks are shaped more by social and cultural expectations.
594
In Havighurst’s theory, what physical tasks develop in infancy and early childhood?
Learning to walk, take solid foods, and control elimination of body wastes.
595
In Havighurst’s infancy/early childhood tasks, what language and cognitive tasks develop?
Learning to talk, forming concepts, and acquiring language to describe social and physical reality; preparing to read.
596
In Havighurst’s infancy/early childhood stage, what moral and social tasks emerge?
Learning sex differences and modesty, distinguishing right from wrong, and beginning to develop a conscience.
597
In Havighurst’s middle childhood stage, what physical task is emphasized?
Learning physical skills necessary for ordinary games.
598
In Havighurst’s middle childhood, what self-concept task develops?
Building wholesome attitudes toward oneself as a growing organism.
599
In Havighurst’s middle childhood, what social tasks are important?
Learning to get along with age-mates and adopting masculine or feminine social roles.
600
In Havighurst’s middle childhood, what academic tasks emerge?
Developing fundamental skills in reading, writing, and calculating, and developing concepts necessary for everyday living.
601
In Havighurst’s middle childhood, what moral task develops?
Developing conscience, morality, and a personal scale of values.
602
In Havighurst’s middle childhood, what tasks relate to independence and social awareness?
Achieving personal independence and forming attitudes toward social groups and institutions.
603
In Havighurst’s adolescence stage, what social relationship task is central?
Achieving mature relations with age-mates of both sexes.
604
In Havighurst’s adolescence tasks, what body/self task emerges?
Accepting one’s physique and using the body effectively.
605
In Havighurst’s adolescence stage, what independence task is required?
Achieving emotional independence from parents and other adults.
606
In Havighurst’s adolescence, what future-oriented tasks appear?
Preparing for marriage, family life, and an economic career.
607
In Havighurst’s adolescence tasks, what moral and civic tasks develop?
Acquiring a value system/ideology and developing socially responsible behavior.
608
In Havighurst’s early adulthood, what relationship tasks emerge?
Selecting a mate and learning to live with a marriage partner.
609
In Havighurst’s early adulthood, what family-task responsibilities arise?
Starting a family, rearing children, and managing a home.
610
In Havighurst’s early adulthood, what career and civic tasks develop?
Getting started in an occupation and taking on civic responsibility.
611
In Havighurst’s early adulthood, what social task is emphasized?
Finding a congenial social group.
612
In Havighurst’s middle age stage, what parenting task occurs?
Assisting teenage children to become responsible, happy adults.
613
In Havighurst’s middle age tasks, what occupational task is central?
Maintaining satisfactory performance in one’s career.
614
In Havighurst’s middle age tasks, what leisure task develops?
Developing adult leisure-time activities.
615
In Havighurst’s middle age tasks, what marital and physical adjustments occur?
Relating to one’s spouse as a person and adjusting to physiological changes of middle age.
616
In Havighurst’s late maturity stage, what physical adjustment is required?
Adjusting to decreasing physical strength and health.
617
In Havighurst’s late maturity, what lifestyle adjustment is necessary?
Adjusting to retirement and reduced income.
618
In Havighurst’s late maturity tasks, what emotional/social task may occur?
Adjusting to the death of a spouse.
619
In Havighurst’s late maturity, what social identity task develops?
Establishing affiliation with one’s age group.
620
In Havighurst’s late maturity, what role-related task develops?
Adopting and adapting social roles flexibly.
621
In Havighurst’s late maturity, what environmental task is emphasized?
Establishing a satisfactory physical living arrangement.
622
Roger Gould’s Adult Development Theory main idea
Adults progress by dismantling false assumptions—often tied to parental dependence—that limit growth; development occurs through resolving age-related tasks.
623
What restricts young and middle adult development according to Gould?
False assumptions or 'protective devices' related to dependence on parents.
624
Gould’s stage 'Leaving Our Parents’ World' (16–22) false assumption challenged
'Adults will always live with their parents.'
625
Gould’s stage 'I’m Nobody’s Baby Now' (22–28) false belief relinquished
'My parents will always rescue me when things go wrong.'
626
Gould’s stage 'Opening Up to What’s Inside' (29–early 30s) false idea confronted
'My parents can always provide simple solutions to complex personal problems.'
627
Gould’s midlife decade (35–45) false assumption 'Safety can last forever' refers to
The mistaken belief that stability is permanent and change isn’t inevitable.
628
Gould’s midlife decade false belief behind 'Death cannot happen to me or my loved ones'
A denial of mortality that limits emotional maturity and meaningful life planning.
629
Gould’s midlife decade false assumption 'It is impossible to live without a partner' challenges
The belief that one’s identity and functioning cannot exist independently.
630
Gould’s midlife decade false idea behind 'No life or change exists beyond the family'
The belief that growth and fulfillment cannot occur outside family roles.
631
Robert Peck’s Adult Development Theory main idea
Adult development includes psychological shifts that enhance wisdom, coping, and life meaning—expanding on Erikson’s final stages.
632
Peck’s phase Valuing Wisdom vs. Valuing Physical Powers developmental shift
Adults shift from physical abilities toward wisdom and good judgment as physical strength declines.
633
Peck’s phase Socializing vs. Sexualizing changes in relationships
Sexual relationships become less central, replaced by empathy, understanding, and companionship.
634
Peck’s phase Cathetic Flexibility vs. Cathetic Impoverishment skill adults must develop
The ability to redirect emotional energy to new people or activities after losses.
635
Peck’s phase Ego Differentiation vs. Work-Role Preoccupation adjustment required
Developing self-worth apart from one’s job; redefining identity beyond a career.
636
Peck’s phase Body Transcendence vs. Body Preoccupation ideal response to aging
Focusing on relationships and mental activity rather than obsessing over physical decline.
637
Peck’s phase Ego Transcendence vs. Ego Preoccupation developmental goal
Creating meaning that benefits future generations and reducing fear of death.
638
Daniel Levinson’s Adult Male Development Theory
Adult men alternate between stable “life structure” periods and transitional periods that promote growth and movement toward maturity.
639
In Levinson’s Early Adult Transition (17–22), what developmental task occurs?
Ending the adolescent life structure and preparing to function in the adult world by developing skills and commitments.
640
In Levinson’s Entering the Adult World (22–28), what happens?
Young adults test their initial life structure while comparing personal values to societal expectations.
641
In Levinson’s Age 30 Transition, what is the purpose of this period?
Reevaluate the young adult life structure and make necessary changes before full adulthood responsibilities set in.
642
In Levinson’s Early Settling Down, what is the main accomplishment?
Establishing a stable niche in society.
643
In Levinson’s BOOM Phase (Becoming One’s Own Man), what occurs?
Men work toward advancement, independence, and success in their chosen paths.
644
In Levinson’s Midlife Transition, what major developmental task occurs?
Men assess past successes and failures and become motivated to use their remaining years more purposefully.
645
In Levinson’s Entering Middle Adulthood, what are the key polarities?
Young–old, mortality–generativity, and masculine–feminine polarities.
646
In Levinson’s Age 50 Transition, what makes this phase challenging?
More individuation occurs, and lack of preparation can make the transition difficult.
647
In Levinson’s Second Middle Adult Structure, what characterizes this stage?
Growth toward new goals, rejuvenation, and life enrichment.
648
In Levinson’s Late Adult Transition, what challenges emerge?
Physical and mental decline, confronting mortality, and experiencing losses.
649
In Levinson’s Late Adulthood, what are typical developmental concerns?
Pursuing satisfying pastimes, preparing for death, and concern for the well-being of family and humanity.
650
Bronfenbrenner’s Ecological Systems Theory
Human development results from interactions between individuals and multiple layers of their environment.
651
In Bronfenbrenner’s theory, what is the microsystem?
Immediate environments such as family, school, and close relationships.
652
In Bronfenbrenner’s theory, what is the mesosystem?
Interactions between microsystems (e.g., family–school relationships, community links).
653
In Bronfenbrenner’s theory, what is the exosystem?
Systems that indirectly influence the individual, such as local and global economies or parental workplaces.
654
In Bronfenbrenner’s theory, what is the macrosystem?
Broader cultural, political, and societal values and structures.
655
In Bronfenbrenner’s theory, what is the chronosystem?
Historical events and time-related changes that influence development.
656
Women’s Development Theory
For being male-centric, gender-biased, and failing to reflect women’s lived experiences.
657
According to Carol Tavris’s perspective on women’s development, what societal problem exists?
Women are judged by how well they fit into male-defined norms, leading society to pathologize women.
658
In Gilligan’s work on women’s development, what major difference did she identify?
Women emphasize connectedness and care-oriented communication, unlike men who are socialized toward independence.
659
What did Gail Sheehy propose about women’s development?
That women experience predictable developmental crises during transitions, each bringing potential for constructive change.
660
In Generational Development Theory, what is a generation?
A cohort of individuals born within a specific time span whose shared historical and cultural experiences shape their peer personality.
661
In Generational Development Theory, what shared element shapes generational identity?
Common historical events, technological changes, and societal conditions experienced during formative years.
662
In Generational Development Theory, who belongs to the Silent Generation?
Individuals born before 1945.
663
In Silent Generation characteristics, what major event shaped their values?
The Great Depression, leading to strong desires for financial security, comfort, and feeling needed.
664
In Generational Development Theory, who are Baby Boomers?
Individuals born from 1946–1964.
665
What traits are associated with the Baby Boomer Generation?
Strong work ethic, competitiveness, resourcefulness, goal-centeredness, and self-assurance.
666
In Generational Development Theory, who belongs to Generation X?
Individuals born from 1965–1984.
667
What developmental context shaped Generation X?
Reduced adult supervision (“latchkey children”) and higher rates of parental divorce.
668
What traits characterize Generation X in adulthood?
They tend to seek work-life balance, and often describe themselves as active, happy, and less cynical than in their youth.
669
In Generational Development Theory, who are Millennials?
Individuals born from 1985–2004.
670
What major influences shaped Millennials?
Growing up in the digital age, exposure to terrorism and school shootings in media, and highly scheduled childhoods.
671
In Generational Development Theory, who are members of Generation Z?
Individuals born from 2005–2024.
672
What traits define Generation Z?
Tech-savvy, global, socially connected, visual learners, and may become the most educated and sophisticated generation yet.
673
Daniel Levinson’s Adult Male Development Theory
Adult men alternate between stable “life structure” periods and transitional periods that promote growth and movement toward maturity.
674
In Levinson’s Early Adult Transition (17–22), what developmental task occurs?
Ending the adolescent life structure and preparing to function in the adult world by developing skills and commitments.
675
In Levinson’s Entering the Adult World (22–28), what happens?
Young adults test their initial life structure while comparing personal values to societal expectations.
676
In Levinson’s Age 30 Transition, what is the purpose of this period?
Reevaluate the young adult life structure and make necessary changes before full adulthood responsibilities set in.
677
In Levinson’s Early Settling Down, what is the main accomplishment?
Establishing a stable niche in society.
678
In Levinson’s BOOM Phase (Becoming One’s Own Man), what occurs?
Men work toward advancement, independence, and success in their chosen paths.
679
In Levinson’s Midlife Transition, what major developmental task occurs?
Men assess past successes and failures and become motivated to use their remaining years more purposefully.
680
In Levinson’s Entering Middle Adulthood, what are the key polarities?
Young–old, mortality–generativity, and masculine–feminine polarities.
681
In Levinson’s Age 50 Transition, what makes this phase challenging?
More individuation occurs, and lack of preparation can make the transition difficult.
682
In Levinson’s Second Middle Adult Structure, what characterizes this stage?
Growth toward new goals, rejuvenation, and life enrichment.
683
In Levinson’s Late Adult Transition, what challenges emerge?
Physical and mental decline, confronting mortality, and experiencing losses.
684
In Levinson’s Late Adulthood, what are typical developmental concerns?
Pursuing satisfying pastimes, preparing for death, and concern for the well-being of family and humanity.
685
Bronfenbrenner’s Ecological Systems Theory
Human development results from interactions between individuals and multiple layers of their environment.
686
In Bronfenbrenner’s theory, what is the microsystem?
Immediate environments such as family, school, and close relationships.
687
In Bronfenbrenner’s theory, what is the mesosystem?
Interactions between microsystems (e.g., family–school relationships, community links).
688
In Bronfenbrenner’s theory, what is the exosystem?
Systems that indirectly influence the individual, such as local and global economies or parental workplaces.
689
In Bronfenbrenner’s theory, what is the macrosystem?
Broader cultural, political, and societal values and structures.
690
In Bronfenbrenner’s theory, what is the chronosystem?
Historical events and time-related changes that influence development.
691
Women’s Development Theory
For being male-centric, gender-biased, and failing to reflect women’s lived experiences.
692
According to Carol Tavris’s perspective on women’s development, what societal problem exists?
Women are judged by how well they fit into male-defined norms, leading society to pathologize women.
693
In Gilligan’s work on women’s development, what major difference did she identify?
Women emphasize connectedness and care-oriented communication, unlike men who are socialized toward independence.
694
What did Gail Sheehy propose about women’s development?
That women experience predictable developmental crises during transitions, each bringing potential for constructive change.
695
In Generational Development Theory, what is a generation?
A cohort of individuals born within a specific time span whose shared historical and cultural experiences shape their peer personality.
696
In Generational Development Theory, what shared element shapes generational identity?
Common historical events, technological changes, and societal conditions experienced during formative years.
697
In Generational Development Theory, who belongs to the Silent Generation?
Individuals born before 1945.
698
In Silent Generation characteristics, what major event shaped their values?
The Great Depression, leading to strong desires for financial security, comfort, and feeling needed.
699
In Generational Development Theory, who are Baby Boomers?
Individuals born from 1946–1964.
700
What traits are associated with the Baby Boomer Generation?
Strong work ethic, competitiveness, resourcefulness, goal-centeredness, and self-assurance.
701
In Generational Development Theory, who belongs to Generation X?
Individuals born from 1965–1984.
702
What developmental context shaped Generation X?
Reduced adult supervision (“latchkey children”) and higher rates of parental divorce.
703
What traits characterize Generation X in adulthood?
They tend to seek work-life balance, and often describe themselves as active, happy, and less cynical than in their youth.
704
In Generational Development Theory, who are Millennials?
Individuals born from 1985–2004.
705
What major influences shaped Millennials?
Growing up in the digital age, exposure to terrorism and school shootings in media, and highly scheduled childhoods.
706
In Generational Development Theory, who are members of Generation Z?
Individuals born from 2005–2024.
707
What traits define Generation Z?
Tech-savvy, global, socially connected, visual learners, and may become the most educated and sophisticated generation yet.
708
In Family Development Theory, what determines development across the lifespan?
Key life decisions and events that increase responsibility and reshape family roles (McGoldrick, Garcia-Pedro, & Carter).
709
In Family Development Theory, what is the main developmental task of the “Leaving Home” stage?
Young adults accept emotional and financial responsibility for themselves.
710
In the Leaving Home stage, what key developmental tasks occur?
Developing intimate peer relationships, differentiating from family of origin, and establishing an individual identity.
711
In Family Development Theory, why is the timing of the Leaving Home stage important?
It determines when and whether the person will marry, influencing all later family development stages.
712
In the Joining Families Through Marriage stage, what major transition occurs?
Two partners form a new family system, merging two previously independent families.
713
What key task marks Joining Families Through Marriage?
Realigning relationships to integrate the spouse into both extended families.
714
In the Welcoming Children stage, what is the central developmental shift?
Adjusting from a marital dyad to a family triad as children are added.
715
What tasks must couples accomplish in the Welcoming Children stage?
Sharing household, financial, and child-rearing responsibilities and integrating grandparents into new roles.
716
In the Raising Adolescents stage, how do family boundaries change?
They become more flexible to allow adolescents to move in and out of the family system.
717
What additional responsibilities arise during Raising Adolescents?
Caring for aging parents, addressing midlife marital issues, and navigating high divorce rates (about 50%).
718
In the Launching stage, what major family transition occurs?
Children exit the family system as adults, and new members (partners, in-laws, grandchildren) enter.
719
What tasks do couples face in the Launching stage?
Renegotiating the marital relationship, managing care for aging parents, and forming adult-to-adult relationships with their children.
720
What is the central task of Later Family Life in Family Development Theory?
Accepting new roles brought by generational shifts and increasing dependence on adult children.
721
What personal adjustments occur in Later Family Life?
Coping with physical decline, exploring new social roles, valuing wisdom of aging parents, and avoiding overfunctioning for them.
722
What major emotional experiences are common in Later Family Life?
Managing the loss of a spouse, siblings, peers, and preparing for one’s own death.
723
What is “separation” in the context of Family Development Theory?
A legal process allowing spouses to remain married while living separately.
724
What is divorce according to Family Development Theory?
The formal, legal termination of a marriage without death of either spouse.
725
What is an annulment in Family Development Theory?
A legal declaration that a marriage is void and invalid.
726
According to Family Systems and Divorce Research, what are common causes of divorce?
Infidelity, irreconcilable differences, abuse, money issues, mental health problems, constant fighting, poor communication, sexual incompatibility, personality clashes, and conflicting parenting or gender-role expectations.
727
According to Rich (2002), what is the first phase of divorce?
Shock and disbelief—counselors can help clients discuss issues and reality-test the situation.
728
What happens during the “Initial Adjustment” phase of divorce?
Individuals adjust to early changes—moving, legal action, altered family structure.
729
What occurs during the “Active Reorganization” phase of divorce?
Post-legal-finalization adaptation, including forming new social connections or romantic interests.
730
What is the “Life Reformation” phase of divorce?
Integrating one’s past life with the present to form a new identity.
731
What percentage of first marriages end in divorce?
About 50%.
732
What percentage of second and third marriages end in divorce?
~60% of second marriages; ~70% of third marriages.
733
How do men and women differ in divorce adjustment?
Women report more divorce-related stress but often adjust better psychologically than men.
734
What should counselors monitor in children following divorce?
Changes in sleep, eating, social interactions, anxiety, depression, suicidality, academic decline, and behavioral issues.
735
What does research show about children of divorce compared to children in high-conflict intact families?
Negative outcomes are similar—conflict may be more harmful than divorce itself.
736
What percentage of U.S. women in two-parent households work?
About 61%.
737
How does maternal employment affect mothers’ well-being?
Working mothers tend to have higher life satisfaction and lower stress/depression but increased worry about time away from family.
738
Does maternal employment affect marital satisfaction?
No major differences unless the spouse disapproves of maternal employment.
739
How does maternal employment affect children?
Quality childcare reduces negative outcomes; may enhance social and intellectual growth.
740
How does childbearing influence the gender wage gap?
Women without children tend to earn pay comparable to men, while mothers face wage disadvantages.
741
How is child abuse defined under CAPTA?
Harm to individuals under 18 caused by exploitation, neglect, or physical, sexual, or emotional abuse—including caregiver failure to act.
742
What is the definition of neglect in child abuse theory?
Failure to meet physical, medical, educational, or emotional needs. Distinct from families lacking financial means.
743
What constitutes physical abuse?
Any injury to a child—bruises, burns, fractures, shaking, or hitting—regardless of caregiver intent.
744
What behavior qualifies as sexual abuse in minors?
Any sexual activity with a child, including touching, exposure, pornography, intercourse, or exploitation.
745
What is sexual exploitation under abuse theory?
Forcing a child into prostitution or pornography.
746
Which age group is most affected by abuse?
About 55% of victims are under 8 years old.
747
What percentage of child abusers are parents?
Approximately 80%.
748
What is the counselor’s legal obligation regarding suspected child abuse?
Mandatory reporting to child protection authorities.
749
separation
A legal process allowing spouses to remain married while living separately.
750
divorce
The formal, legal termination of a marriage without death of either spouse.
751
annulment
A legal declaration that a marriage is void and invalid.
752
common causes of divorce
Infidelity, irreconcilable differences, abuse, money issues, mental health problems, constant fighting, poor communication, sexual incompatibility, personality clashes, and conflicting parenting or gender-role expectations.
753
first phase of divorce
Shock and disbelief—counselors can help clients discuss issues and reality-test the situation.
754
Initial Adjustment phase of divorce
Individuals adjust to early changes—moving, legal action, altered family structure.
755
Active Reorganization phase of divorce
Post-legal-finalization adaptation, including forming new social connections or romantic interests.
756
Life Reformation phase of divorce
Integrating one’s past life with the present to form a new identity.
757
percentage of first marriages end in divorce
About 50%.
758
percentage of second and third marriages end in divorce
~60% of second marriages; ~70% of third marriages.
759
men and women differ in divorce adjustment
Women report more divorce-related stress but often adjust better psychologically than men.
760
counselors monitor in children following divorce
Changes in sleep, eating, social interactions, anxiety, depression, suicidality, academic decline, and behavioral issues.
761
children of divorce compared to children in high-conflict intact families
Negative outcomes are similar—conflict may be more harmful than divorce itself.
762
percentage of U.S. women in two-parent households work
About 61%.
763
maternal employment affect mothers’ well-being
Working mothers tend to have higher life satisfaction and lower stress/depression but increased worry about time away from family.
764
maternal employment affect marital satisfaction
No major differences unless the spouse disapproves of maternal employment.
765
maternal employment affect children
Quality childcare reduces negative outcomes; may enhance social and intellectual growth.
766
childbearing influence the gender wage gap
Women without children tend to earn pay comparable to men, while mothers face wage disadvantages.
767
child abuse defined under CAPTA
Harm to individuals under 18 caused by exploitation, neglect, or physical, sexual, or emotional abuse—including caregiver failure to act.
768
neglect in child abuse theory
Failure to meet physical, medical, educational, or emotional needs. Distinct from families lacking financial means.
769
physical abuse
Any injury to a child—bruises, burns, fractures, shaking, or hitting—regardless of caregiver intent.
770
sexual abuse in minors
Any sexual activity with a child, including touching, exposure, pornography, intercourse, or exploitation.
771
sexual exploitation under abuse theory
Forcing a child into prostitution or pornography.
772
age group most affected by abuse
About 55% of victims are under 8 years old.
773
percentage of child abusers are parents
Approximately 80%.
774
counselor’s legal obligation regarding suspected child abuse
Mandatory reporting to child protection authorities.
775
Intimate Partner Violence (IPV)
IPV is any physically, emotionally, or sexually abusive behavior used to gain power and control over an intimate partner.
776
types of relationships can experience IPV
Marriages, dating couples, families, heterosexual couples, and same-sex couples.
777
who is more often the victim of IPV
Women.
778
three phases of the IPV cycle of violence
1. Tension buildup 2. Acute abusive incident 3. Honeymoon phase (which decreases over time)
779
tension-building phase in IPV
Stress and strain escalate; the survivor anticipates abuse and tries to placate the abuser.
780
acute abusive incident phase
The abuser commits a physically, sexually, or emotionally violent act.
781
honeymoon phase in IPV
The abuser apologizes, shows affection, or promises change—but this phase becomes shorter or disappears over time.
782
major risk factor for becoming an IPV survivor
Having experienced previous abuse, often during childhood.
783
individual characteristics increase risk for experiencing IPV
Low self-esteem, low education, social isolation, and lack of supportive relationships.
784
relationship characteristics commonly associated with IPV
• Relationship conflict • Dominant/controlling partner • Poor family functioning • Emotional dependence • Rigid gender roles • Need for control and authority
785
emotional and practical barriers may prevent someone from leaving an IPV situation
• Fear of losing children • Fear of retaliation • Intellectualizing/explaining away abuse • Concerns about employment • Financial insecurity • Lack of shelter or housing
786
common psychological consequences of IPV
Depression, anxiety, trauma symptoms, isolation, eating disorders.
787
risky behaviors may result from IPV
Unprotected sex, unwanted pregnancy, rape, substance abuse.
788
physical consequences may arise from IPV
Injuries such as bruises, fractures, chronic pain, and other harm.
789
how may IPV impact academic or occupational functioning
Survivors may experience absenteeism, impaired cognitive focus, decreased performance, or difficulty maintaining employment.
790
What Is a Crisis?
A time-limited period of disequilibrium caused by a stressor that overwhelms normal coping resources and temporarily prevents effective functioning.
791
Crisis Potential
Both negative outcomes (e.g., pathology) and positive growth.
792
Crisis vs Trauma
A crisis is short-term; trauma is long-term and unresolved, with no balance between stressors and coping resources.
793
Eric Lindemann
He pioneered crisis models after studying survivors of the Cocoanut Grove fire, noting that proper support and grieving prevent later psychological complications.
794
Gerard Caplan
He expanded Lindemann’s work using public health and preventive psychiatry principles to shape crisis intervention approaches.
795
Developmental Crisis
A crisis triggered by normal life transitions (e.g., birth of a child, career change).
796
Environmental Crisis
A crisis caused by natural disasters or human-caused events affecting groups (e.g., hurricanes, war).
797
Existential Crisis
A crisis involving questioning of purpose, identity, or meaning.
798
Situational Crisis
A crisis caused by unexpected traumatic events (e.g., rape, sudden death, accidents).
799
Psychiatric Crisis
A crisis caused by mental health or substance use disorders (e.g., psychosis, addiction).
800
Step 1: Define the Problem
Discover the client’s perception of the crisis and assess emotional state, seriousness, and safety concerns.
801
Step 2: Ensure Client Safety
Assessing risk to self or others, collaborating with emergency services, and following mandatory reporting laws.
802
Step 3: Provide Support
Empathy, unconditional positive regard, presence, and validation.
803
Step 4: Examine Alternatives
Helping the client identify possible actions and empowering them to choose appropriate solutions.
804
Step 5: Make Plans
Establishing a support system, coping strategies, and steps for regaining control.
805
Step 6: Obtain Commitment
To ensure the client agrees to follow the plan and take steps toward stabilization.
806
Letter A
The provoking stressor/event.
807
Letter B
Family resources available to cope.
808
Letter C
The meaning the family attaches to the stressor.
809
Letter X
The crisis, i.e., the family’s disequilibrium level.
810
Transcrisis
When unresolved crisis reactions resurface during later similar stressors.
811
Burnout
Emotional exhaustion, depersonalization, and reduced accomplishment due to prolonged stress.
812
Compassion Fatigue
Secondary traumatic stress resulting from exposure to others’ suffering.
813
Vicarious Trauma
Long-term changes in worldview and sense of self due to exposure to client trauma.
814
What Is Suicide in Crisis Work?
A critical crisis requiring immediate assessment and intervention.
815
Standard of Care
Completing thorough, appropriate assessments and interventions based on foreseeable risk.
816
IS PATH WARM (Warning Signs)
Ideation, Substance abuse, Purposelessness, Anxiety, Trapped, Hopelessness, Withdrawal, Anger, Recklessness, Mood changes.
817
SLAP (Risk Assessment)
Specificity, Lethality, Availability, Proximity to help.
818
Age & Suicide
Individuals under 35 and over 65.
819
Gender Differences
Men complete suicide 4× more often; women attempt more often.
820
Ethnic/Racial Risk
Whites and Native Americans.
821
Immediate Danger
Arrange immediate hospitalization (voluntary or involuntary).
822
Removing Means
It reduces immediate risk and increases survivor safety.
823
Safety Measures
Safety planning, check-in systems with supports, crisis hotline information, and possibly a no-suicide contract (only with capable clients).
824
When Not to Use a No-Suicide Contract
When clients lack understanding, impulse control, honesty, or ability to follow through.
825
What is a Crisis?
Any event that disrupts previously effective coping mechanisms, overwhelming an individual’s ability to function.
826
Individual Trauma
One person’s personal ability or inability to cope with a crisis.
827
Collective Trauma
A crisis that affects an entire community, leading to broad psychological reactions.
828
Crisis Team
A group of trained professionals (e.g., counselors, medical staff) who respond to individuals and communities during a crisis.
829
What is Psychological First Aid?
A crisis intervention method that first stabilizes basic survival needs and then addresses psychological needs using counseling skills.
830
Step 1 of PFA
Essential survival needs: food, water, shelter, and safety.
831
Step 2 of PFA
Using core counseling skills (active listening, empathy, reflecting) to support psychological needs.
832
Step 3 of PFA
Helping clients reconnect with family and friends to reduce isolation and increase support.
833
What Is the Stafford Act?
Mobilize federal resources, including mental health support, during natural disasters.
834
What Is the CCP?
A federally authorized program that trains counselors to help victims stabilize, adjust, and access resources after disasters.
835
Counselor Role in CCP
• Identify problems • Inventory available resources • Reduce confusion • Adjust to new life situations • Receive emotional support • Learn about normal and atypical crisis reactions
836
Client-Centered Approach
It provides unconditional positive regard, empathy, and presence, which help stabilize emotional reactions.
837
Existential Approach
Helps clients confront meaning, purpose, mortality, and freedom, often shaken during crises.
838
CBT in Crisis Intervention
It helps clients restructure distorted thoughts, manage anxiety, and regain a sense of control.
839
Play Therapy for Children
Children often communicate distress through symbolic play, making it an effective method for expression and processing trauma.
840
Early Intervention
Early intervention, regardless of the particular therapeutic model.
841
Counselor’s Role in Crisis Response
To provide immediate psychological stabilization, connect clients with support, and guide them toward adaptive coping.
842
Crisis Effects on Functioning
It decreases, making counselor support essential in the aftermath.
843
Crisis Team Composition
Crises affect medical, psychological, and environmental needs simultaneously, requiring multiple professional areas of expertise.
844
Difference Between Crisis and Regular Counseling
Crisis counseling focuses on immediate stabilization, safety, and coping, rather than long-term personality or behavioral change.
845
What is Trauma?
An overwhelming event (single or prolonged) that steals a person’s power and control, resulting in helplessness and loss of purpose.
846
PTSD Symptoms (DSM-5)
Hypervigilance, flashbacks, intrusive thoughts, avoidance, sleep changes, numbness, mood disturbance, difficulty focusing, and symptoms lasting over 1 month.
847
Primary vs. Secondary Victims (PTSD Theory)
• Primary victims: directly experience the trauma • Secondary victims: experience trauma vicariously as bystanders or caregivers
848
Phase 1: Establishment of Safety (Herman)
To restore control, empowerment, physical safety, symptom stabilization, and reduce isolation. Includes assessing past vs. ongoing threat.
849
Complex PTSD (Herman)
Trauma rooted in long-term or repeated harm, with symptoms like eating disorders, insomnia, mood disturbance, substance abuse, and interpersonal difficulty.
850
Phase 2: Remembrance and Mourning (Herman)
The survivor tells the trauma story, processes emotions, mourns losses, and shifts focus away from the perpetrator.
851
Phase 3: Reconnection (Herman)
Survivors regain purpose, re-enter ordinary life, form meaningful relationships, and may join support groups or advocacy roles.
852
Mind–Body Impact of Trauma
Behavioral, cognitive, physical, emotional, social, and spiritual functioning.
853
Safety Planning (Trauma Counseling)
Because survivors must determine whether the threat is past or ongoing, restoring a sense of security and control.
854
What is Conflict Resolution?
The process of negotiating, mediating, or arbitrating to resolve interpersonal differences and prevent violence, aiming for a win–win outcome.
855
Negotiation (General)
A method in which involved individuals compromise to resolve a dispute.
856
Power Negotiations
Attempts to control the outcome using influence, pressure, or deceit, such as false information or manipulation.
857
Rights Negotiations
Using rules, laws, norms, and policies to determine what is “right.”
858
Interest-Based Negotiations
Identifying shared interests and finding mutual benefits.
859
Transformation-Based Negotiations
Negotiations focused on empowerment (increasing personal agency) and recognition (accurately understanding and validating others).
860
Mediation
An objective third party helps disputants determine solutions; voluntary or court-mandated.
861
Facilitation
Using group-based counseling skills to analyze conflict, generate solutions, and build commitment.
862
Arbitration
A third party makes a binding or nonbinding decision to resolve a conflict.
863
Med-Arb
A hybrid in which the neutral party first mediates, then arbitrates if mediation fails (common in custody or divorce cases).
864
Counselor Role in Conflict Resolution
To select appropriate techniques, reduce hostility, promote understanding, and support safe, collaborative outcomes tailored to each client.
865
What Is Peer Mediation?
A process in which a neutral student mediator helps peers negotiate, compromise, and problem-solve conflict, with the goal of improving students’ conflict resolution skills.
866
Peer Mediation Stages
1. Operational decisions 2. Introducing the program to stakeholders 3. Obtaining support from staff and the school community
867
Step 1 of Peer Mediation
Provide a safe environment for each party to share their perception of the issue.
868
Step 2 of Peer Mediation
Identifying each person’s view of the main problem and seeking areas of commonality.
869
Step 3 of Peer Mediation
Collaboratively develop several possible solutions and clarify why each is needed.
870
Step 4 of Peer Mediation
Helping individuals understand each other’s perspectives.
871
Step 5 of Peer Mediation
Reach a compromise solution and obtain commitment from all parties to follow through.
872
What Is Aggression?
Any action intended to inflict harm, including verbal, physical, or relational behaviors.
873
Relational Aggression
Harm inflicted within a social context, such as gossiping, exclusion, and bullying.
874
Microaggressions
A subtle, often unintentional but harmful act toward a minority group, leading to feelings of exclusion and not belonging.
875
Violence (Definition)
Violence is intentional, focused harm, either premeditated or impulsive, often stemming from shame and humiliation.
876
Warning Signs of Violence
Rejection, past victimization, disciplinary issues, fear of ridicule, academic problems, violent artwork/writing, serious threats, intolerance, gang involvement, substance abuse, and access to weapons.
877
What Is Wellness?
A holistic integration of mind, body, and spirit, promoting balanced, healthy functioning.
878
Indivisible Self Wellness Model (Myers & Sweeney)
An evidence-based model describing wellness as five interconnected dimensions: Physical, Essential, Social, Coping, and Creative.
879
Physical Self (Indivisible Self)
Exercise and nutrition.
880
Essential Self (Indivisible Self)
Spirituality, gender identity, cultural identity, and self-care.
881
Social Self (Indivisible Self)
Friendship and love.
882
Coping Self (Indivisible Self)
Leisure, stress management, self-worth, and realistic beliefs.
883
Creative Self (Indivisible Self)
Thinking, emotions, control, work, and positive humor.
884
Why Is Self-Care Essential?
To prevent burnout, maintain effectiveness, and meet clients’ needs safely and competently.
885
Time Management
It reduces stress and ensures counselors maintain balance between work and personal life.
886
Enjoyable Activities
They promote restoration, joy, and emotional rejuvenation.
887
Social Connections
They provide emotional support, reducing isolation and burnout risk.
888
Professional Development
It strengthens competence, reduces stress, and promotes career satisfaction.
889
Monitoring Health
It allows early detection and management of burnout, stress, or health issues.
890
Seeking Support
To maintain ethical functioning, prevent impairment, and model healthy coping.
NCE
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