Devt Psy - Doc Chris 1

Question 1

1. Maria lived in an area where poverty rate is very high. She grew up so skinny and did not have the opportunity to for quality education. What influence on development is being displayed in the situation?
   a) history-graded influences
   b) age-graded influences
   c) sociocultural-graded influences
   d) nonnormative life events

Answer 1

C) sociocultural-graded influences — Social class, ethnicity, and cultural context shape opportunities, nutrition, and schooling; poverty is a classic sociocultural-graded factor (Papalia; Santrock).

a) history-graded influences — Cohort effects tied to historical events (e.g., war, pandemic).
b) age-graded influences — Typical events tied to age (e.g., puberty).
d) nonnormative life events — Unique, idiosyncratic events (e.g., house fire).

Question 2

2. Which among the following conceptions of death is aligned with preschool-age children?
   a) They believe that death can’t happen to them yet.
   b) They believe that when someone dies, it’s like they’re just sleeping.
   c) They believe that they will die sometime.
   d) They believe that dying is unfair

Answer 2

B) They believe that when someone dies, it’s like they’re just sleeping — Preschoolers see death as temporary and reversible (Santrock).

a) Can’t happen to them — more typical of middle childhood denial.
c) Understanding death inevitability — develops in school age.
d) Dying is unfair — moral judgment seen in later childhood.

Question 3

3. Evaluate the following statements:
   1: The reflex used by researchers to conclude that hearing is fully developed at birth is moro reflex.
   2: Negative Babinski sign indicates normal development
   3: Smell and taste are not developed at birth.
   a) Only the first statement is correct
   b) Only the second statement is correct
   c) Only the third statement is correct
   d) All statements are correct

Answer 3

B) Only the second statement is correct — Negative Babinski indicates normal corticospinal tract development.

1 is false — hearing is measured by startle/orienting responses, not Moro reflex.
3 is false — newborns have functioning smell and taste (Papalia).

Question 4

4. What is Sigmund Freud’s view on attachment?
   a) Children’s attachment with their caregivers is due to their capacity to feed them.
   b) Children are attached to their caregivers because of the comfort they give them.
   c) Children are attached to their caregivers because of the protection they provide.
   d) Children are attached to their parents due to the authority they possess.

Answer 4

A) Children’s attachment with their caregivers is due to their capacity to feed them — Freud’s psychodynamic view emphasized oral gratification as basis for attachment.

b) Comfort — Harlow/Bowlby’s emphasis.
c) Protection — ethological view.
d) Authority — unrelated to attachment theory.

Question 5

5. Which of the correct order of Bowlby’s stages of separation anxiety?
   a) Protest-Detachment-Despair
   b) Detachment-Despair-Protest
   c) Protest-Despair-Detachment
   d) Despair-Protest-Detachment.

Answer 5

C) Protest-Despair-Detachment — Bowlby’s 3-stage model: initial protest (crying), despair (withdrawal), detachment (apathy).

a, b, d — incorrect sequences.

Question 6

6. These are unusual events that have a major impact on individual lives because they disturb the expected sequence of the life cycle.
   a) Nonnormative influences
   b) Normative age-graded
   c) Normative history-graded
   d) Nonnormative history-graded

Answer 6

A) Nonnormative influences — Unique, irregular events (e.g., winning lottery, sudden accident).

b) Age-graded — predictable milestones (puberty).
c) History-graded — events affecting cohort (pandemic).
d) Not a standard term.

Question 7

7. According to Erikson, when the toddler always hears ‘no’ from his/her caregiver, he will more likely:
   a) Have low self-esteem.
   b) Develop mistrust with the world.
   c) Will become isolated.
   d) Will be confused with his identity.

Answer 7

A) Have low self-esteem — Erikson’s autonomy vs. shame/doubt stage; excessive restriction leads to shame/doubt.

b) Mistrust — infancy stage.
c) Isolation — young adulthood stage.
d) Identity confusion — adolescence.

Question 8

8. Clarisse, an infant, is starting to show happiness, fear, and sadness. The emotions displayed by Clarisse are called:
   a) Self-conscious emotions
   b) Basic emotions
   c) Secondary emotions
   d) Important emotions.

Answer 8

B) Basic emotions — Present early (joy, fear, anger, sadness).

a) Self-conscious emotions — pride, shame (emerge later).
c) Secondary emotions — require social awareness.
d) Not a standard term.

Question 9

9. Angelo, an infant, displays an emotion of fear every time there is an unfamiliar person near him. This is what we call as:
   a) Separation anxiety
   b) Stranger wariness
   c) Reactive attachment
   d) Normal behavior

Answer 9

B) Stranger wariness — Fear response to unfamiliar person, peaks ~8–9 months.

a) Separation anxiety — distress when caregiver leaves.
c) Reactive attachment — clinical disorder.
d) Too vague.

Question 10

10. Who is the developmental theorist who most probably said this: ‘Give me a dozen healthy infants, well-formed, and my own specified world to bring them up in and I’ll guarantee to take any one at random and train him to become any type of specialist I might select…’?
    a) John Watson
    b) Erik Erikson
    c) John Bowlby
    d) Sigmund Freud

Answer 10

A) John Watson — Father of behaviorism, emphasized environment shaping behavior.

b) Erikson — psychosocial theory.
c) Bowlby — attachment theory.
d) Freud — psychosexual theory.

Question 11

11. Karen, despite being obese doesn’t believe that she’s one. Her parents also believe that Karen’s weight is considered normal. The behavior of Karen and her parents is called:
    a) Delusion
    b) Oblivobesity
    c) Hallucination
    d) Normal reaction

Answer 11

B) Oblivobesity — Failure to recognize obesity as a problem (term used in pediatric health).

a) Delusion — psychotic false belief.
c) Hallucination — false sensory perception.
d) Normal reaction — inaccurate here.

Question 12

12. Carlos now knows how to arrange his toys from smallest to the largest. This displays what characteristic of concrete operational thought?
    a) Seriation
    b) Classification
    c) Reversibility
    d) Conservation

Answer 12

A) Seriation — Ability to order objects along a dimension.

b) Classification — grouping by categories.
c) Reversibility — mental reversal of operations.
d) Conservation — understanding quantity constancy.

Question 13

13. Julius broke his pencil. Despite that he knows that he can still use it by just sharpening the area where it broke. That way, the pencil remains as it is. This is what characteristic of concrete operational thought?
    a) Seriation
    b) Identity
    c) Reversibility
    d) Conservation

Answer 13

B) Identity — Objects remain the same despite superficial changes.

a) Seriation — ordering.
c) Reversibility — mental undoing.
d) Conservation — quantity constancy.

Question 14

14. In cognitive development, this process emphasized the tendency of an individual to create categories/mental representations of the things around him/her.
    a) Adaptation
    b) Assimilation
    c) Accommodation
    d) Schema

Answer 14

D) Schema — Cognitive framework for organizing info (Piaget).

a) Adaptation — process of assimilation + accommodation.
b) Assimilation — fitting new info into existing schema.
c) Accommodation — modifying schema.

Question 15

15. Mary, a 7-year old girl always plays with her siblings when she’s at home. In school, she was awarded with a friendship award, because she has a very good interpersonal relationship with her classmates. Mary’s classmates and siblings form part her according to bioecological theory.
    a) Mesosystem
    b) Microsystem
    c) Her siblings are within her mesosystem, while her classmates are within her microsystem
    d) Her siblings are within her macrosystem, while her classmates are within her exosystem.

Answer 15

B) Microsystem — Immediate environment (family, peers).

a) Mesosystem — interconnections between microsystems.
c) Incorrect — siblings also part of microsystem.
d) Macrosystem/exosystem — broader culture/indirect contexts.

Question 16

16. John was a new-born baby, and her mother took care of him for a couple of months after his birth. This is because the government recognizes the importance of the presence of the mother to the infant after birth, thus providing options for maternity leave for women who just gave birth. This particular scenario surrounding John form part his according to bioecological theory.
    a) Microsystem
    b) Macrosystem
    c) Chronosystem
    d) Exosystem

Answer 16

D) Exosystem — Indirect influence (parental leave policy affects child).

a) Microsystem — direct setting (home).
b) Macrosystem — culture, laws broadly.
c) Chronosystem — time dimension.

Question 17

17. This type of research in developmental psychology aims to find positive or negative relationship between variables.
    a) Cross-sectional
    b) Experiment
    c) Correlational study
    d) Longitudinal

Answer 17

C) Correlational study — Examines relationship between variables without manipulation.

a) Cross-sectional — compares different ages at one time.
b) Experiment — manipulates variables.
d) Longitudinal — studies same group over time.

Question 18

18. Archie found out that the correlation coefficient of his study on self-esteem and academic performance is 0.93. What conclusion can we draw from it?
    a) The higher the self-esteem, the lower the academic performance.
    b) The higher the self-esteem, the higher the academic performance
    c) Self-esteem and academic performance are not related at all.
    d) The participants are intelligent people.

Answer 18

B) The higher the self-esteem, the higher the academic performance — r=+0.93 indicates strong positive correlation.

a) Negative correlation — opposite.
c) Not related — r≈0.
d) Intelligence irrelevant to correlation.

Question 19

19. Chris wanted to study on the development of religiosity across different cohorts at a single point in time. What research design would be most appropriate to use by Chris?
    a) Longitudinal
    b) Cross-sectional
    c) Correlational
    d) Descriptive

Answer 19

B) Cross-sectional — Compares cohorts at one point in time.

a) Longitudinal — same group over time.
c) Correlational — relationship focus, not cohort comparison.
d) Descriptive — general observation.

Question 20

20. This type of developmental research design combines two approaches (cross-sectional and longitudinal) to minimize the drawbacks of the separate approaches.
    a) Longitudinal
    b) Cross-sectional
    c) Experimental
    d) Sequential

Answer 20

D) Sequential — Combines cross-sectional and longitudinal features.

a, b — single designs.
c) Experimental — manipulates variables.

Question 21

21. Maricel was made to look at a beaker that contains 20ml liquid, and a graduated cylinder that also contains 20ml liquid. If Maricel is 5 years old, and would be asked which contains more liquid, she would answer:
    a) The graduated cylinder
    b) The beaker
    c) She would not answer
    d) They both have the same amount of liquid

Answer 21

A) The graduated cylinder — Preoperational child lacks conservation, thinks taller container has more liquid (Piaget).

d) Same amount — correct answer for concrete operational stage.

Question 22

22. During adolescence, boys may feel an internal pressure of liking sports since they are expected to be sporty. This illustrates what?
    a) gender role intensification
    b) personal fable
    c) imaginary friend
    d) imaginary audience

Answer 22

A) gender role intensification — Heightened adherence to gender roles during adolescence.

b) Personal fable — sense of uniqueness.
c) Imaginary friend — common in preschool.
d) Imaginary audience — belief everyone is watching them.

Question 23

23. One characteristic of adolescence is that they tend to engage in risky behaviors, and they are more focused on the reward, and may fail to think through consequences of their actions. In neuroscience, this can be explained by what?
    a) no available explanation for now
    b) prominence of limbic system functions and immature frontal lobes
    c) can be determined by the genetic make up they inherited from their parents
    d) decrease in dopamine activity in the dopamine receptors

Answer 23

B) prominence of limbic system functions and immature frontal lobes — Limbic system matures earlier than prefrontal cortex, leading to risk-taking (Santrock).

a) Outdated — neuroscience explains it.
c) Genes not sole factor.
d) Dopamine activity increases reward seeking.

Question 24

24. This perspective on lifespan development would see a person that’s overweight as somebody who does not value good nutrition.
    a) Behavioral
    b) Cognitive
    c) Humanistic
    d) Contextual

Answer 24

B) Cognitive — Focuses on thought processes (belief about nutrition).

a) Behavioral — reinforcement history.
c) Humanistic — self-actualization.
d) Contextual — culture/family factors.

Question 25

25. This concept in the relative contribution of genes and environment on development would explain why there are people who never get slim no matter how much they diet because they have a genotype that permits them to gain weight easily. a) Multifactorial transmission b) Preordained pattern c) Preformationism d) Epigenetic principle

Answer 25

A) Multifactorial transmission — Traits are product of genetic + environmental factors. b) Preordained pattern — outdated concept of fixed development. c) Preformationism — belief that organisms pre-exist fully formed. d) Epigenetic principle — Erikson’s psychosocial stages built on earlier outcomes.

Question 26

26. Which among the following is false about puberty in boys? a) At boy's spermarche, semen contains many sperm. b) Surge of production of hormones makes boys susceptible to feel anger and annoyance. c) Pubic hair begins to grow at around age 12. d) Boys' voices deepen due to enlarging larynx

Answer 26

A) At boy's spermarche, semen contains many sperm — Early semen may not yet contain mature sperm. b) True — hormonal surges affect mood. c) True — pubic hair growth starts ~11–12. d) True — voice deepens due to larynx growth.

Question 27

27. Which among the following is false about early maturation in boys? a) They tend to be more successful at sports. b) They tend to have a more positive self-concept. c) The changes in their body lead them to feel uncomfortable d) They are more likely to be involved in delinquency.

Answer 27

C) The changes in their body lead them to feel uncomfortable — This is typical of early-maturing girls, not boys. a) True — advantage in sports. b) True — better self-image. d) True — more risk-taking behaviors.

Question 28

28. Which of the following statements is true? a) Early-maturing girls are more likely to have depression and eating disorders. b) Early-maturing girls have higher self-esteem. c) Early-maturing girls are less likely to have early sexual experiences. d) Early-maturing girls are less likely to be teased by peers.

Answer 28

A) Early-maturing girls are more likely to have depression and eating disorders — They also face peer teasing and early sexual pressures. b, c, d — research shows opposite trends.

Question 29

29. John was told that he was not allowed to use his PSP after he was seen spilling his milk to the floor. This is an example of what? a) Positive reinforcement b) Negative reinforcement c) Positive punishment d) Negative punishment

Answer 29

D) Negative punishment — Removal of a desired stimulus to decrease behavior. a) Positive reinforcement — add pleasant stimulus. b) Negative reinforcement — remove unpleasant stimulus. c) Positive punishment — add unpleasant stimulus.

Question 30

30. In stage 1 of Erik Erikson's psychosocial stages of development, the infant's establishment of trust to the world is through his experience with his a) Mother b) Primary caregiver c) Nanny d) Sibling

Answer 30

B) Primary caregiver — Consistent caregiving builds trust (trust vs. mistrust stage). a) Mother — may not always be caregiver. c) Nanny — possible but less universal. d) Sibling — not primary attachment figure.

Question 31

31. This refers to effects of historical events taking place during data collection on research findings. a) age effects b) cohort effects c) time of measurement effects d) history-graded influences

Answer 31

C) time of measurement effects — Events occurring at time of measurement affect results. a) Age effects — biological/psychological changes due to age. b) Cohort effects — differences due to being born in a particular era. d) History-graded — shared historical experiences.

Question 32

32. Which of the following does not belong with the group following Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs? a) physiological needs b) safety needs c) belonging and love needs d) self-actualization needs

Answer 32

D) self-actualization needs — Growth need, not basic/deficiency need. The question likely groups the first three as lower-level needs. a) Physiological — basic survival. b) Safety — security/stability. c) Belonging/love — psychological need.

Question 33

33. Based on different issues in development, which among the following most likely describes Vygotsky's sociocultural theory? a) nature and nurture equally, active, continuous, context-specific b) more nurture, active, continuous, context-specific c) more nature, active, discontinuous, universal d) more nature, passive, discontinuous, universal

Answer 33

B) more nurture, active, continuous, context-specific — Vygotsky emphasized social/cultural influence and continuous learning. a) Equal nature/nurture — closer to Piaget. c, d — nature-biased, discontinuous (not Vygotsky).

Question 34

34. According to Marcia, it is important to note that adolescents are not necessarily stuck in one of the four categories. Some of them move back and forth between moratorium and identity achievement. This is called as: a) PAPA cycle b) MAMA cycle c) LOLA cycle d) LOLO cycle

Answer 34

B) MAMA cycle — Moratorium-Achievement-Moratorium-Achievement cycle (identity exploration). a, c, d — not psychological terms.

Question 35

35. According to the National Sleep Foundation, how many hours of sleep do adolescents need? a) 5-7 hours b) 7-9 hours c) 8-10 hours d) less than 6 hours

Answer 35

C) 8-10 hours — Recommended for optimal functioning. a, d — insufficient sleep. b) 7-9 — recommended for adults.

Question 36

36. Developmental issues typically fall under which of the ff. dimensions? a) Nature vs. Nurture b) Stability vs. Change c) Continuity vs. Discontinuity d) All of the above

Answer 36

D) All of the above — Three classic issues in developmental psychology. a, b, c — each only part of full picture.

Question 37

37. Adolescents are capable of inferring relationship among elements following a logical sequence. This characteristic of formal operational thought is called: a) transitivity b) transductive reasoning c) conservation d) seriation

Answer 37

A) transitivity — Ability to deduce relationship from others (if A > B, B > C, then A > C). b) Transductive reasoning — preoperational characteristic. c) Conservation — understanding constancy. d) Seriation — ordering objects.

Question 38

38. Harry and Margaret Harlow are well-known for what research? a) A model of stages of moral development b) A model of stages for cognitive development c) A model of stages of identity formation d) A monkey model of the role of comfort in development

Answer 38

D) A monkey model of the role of comfort in development — Cloth vs. wire mother study shows comfort > food. a) Kohlberg — moral stages. b) Piaget — cognitive stages. c) Marcia — identity statuses.

Question 39

39. Khendy was born in a family who's into taekwondo. Growing up, he was supported and guided by her parents into becoming a taekwondo player. What type of genotype-environment correlations is exhibited in the case of Khendy? a) Evocative b) Passive c) Active d) Reactive

Answer 39

B) Passive — Parents provide environment consistent with their genes. a) Evocative — child’s traits elicit responses. c) Active — child seeks environments. d) Reactive — outdated term.

Question 40

40. During prenatal development, a fertilized egg becomes a, then a and finally a a) Zygote, embryo, fetus b) Embryo, zygote, fetus c) Fetus, embryo, zygote d) Embryo, fetus, zygote

Answer 40

A) Zygote, embryo, fetus — Correct chronological order. b, c, d — incorrect sequencing.

Question 41

41. Which of the following reflects gender relations among adolescents? a) They engage in sex cleavage b) They view the opposite sex as annoying. c) They show greater interest in opposite sex d) Gender relations is not yet within focus of adolescents.

Answer 41

C) They show greater interest in opposite sex — Adolescents begin forming romantic relationships. a) Sex cleavage — middle childhood same-sex grouping. b) Annoyance — earlier stage. d) Incorrect — gender relations do become salient.

Question 42

42. Which of the following is TRUE about metacognition? a) It refers to the ability of a child to think about his/her own thinking. b) It refers to the ability of a child to solve conservation task. c) It refers to the ability of a child to focus attention. d) It refers to the ability of a child to perform seriation task.

Answer 42

A) It refers to the ability of a child to think about his/her own thinking — Thinking about thinking improves problem solving. b) Conservation — Piagetian task, not metacognition. c) Attention — cognitive control, separate skill. d) Seriation — concrete operational ability.

Question 43

43. Which of the following statements best explains the contextual perspective of development? a) Children are born as blank slates. b) All behavior is learned through reinforcement. c) Human development is affected by the physical, cognitive, personality, and social worlds. d) Development can be explained through biological processes only.

Answer 43

C) Human development is affected by the physical, cognitive, personality, and social worlds — Bronfenbrenner’s bioecological model. a) Tabula rasa — Locke/behaviorism. b) Reinforcement — behavioral view. d) Biological only — nature-only approach.

Question 44

44. In Piaget's stages of cognitive development, what stage is characterized by egocentric thought? a) Preoperational b) Concrete operational c) Formal operational d) Sensorimotor

Answer 44

A) Preoperational — Egocentrism, animism, centration are key features. b) Concrete — logical thought. c) Formal — abstract thinking. d) Sensorimotor — sensory-motor exploration.

Question 45

45. Which of the following is TRUE about the Apgar scale? a) It is a screening test for autism. b) It is used to determine the sex of the baby. c) It assesses the physical condition of a newborn. d) It is a screening tool for intelligence.

Answer 45

C) It assesses the physical condition of a newborn — Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respiration scored 0-2. a, b, d — incorrect purposes.

Question 46

46. According to Piaget, what is the primary characteristic of the sensorimotor stage? a) Infants learn through sensory and motor interactions with the environment. b) Infants use symbols to represent objects. c) Infants can think logically about concrete events. d) Infants can think hypothetically.

Answer 46

A) Infants learn through sensory and motor interactions with the environment — Object permanence develops here. b) Symbol use — preoperational. c) Logical concrete thought — concrete operational. d) Hypothetical thought — formal operational.

Question 47

47. Which of the following best describes the term 'habituation'? a) The reappearance of a response after it has been extinguished. b) The decrease in response to a stimulus after repeated exposure. c) The process of forming associations between stimuli. d) The process of pairing a neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus.

Answer 47

B) The decrease in response to a stimulus after repeated exposure — Habituation indicates learning/attention shift. a) Spontaneous recovery. c) Classical conditioning. d) Acquisition process.

Question 48

48. Which of the following best illustrates the concept of object permanence? a) A child cries when her mother leaves the room. b) A child searches for a toy that has been hidden under a blanket. c) A child imitates the facial expressions of an adult. d) A child repeats a behavior that was previously reinforced.

Answer 48

B) A child searches for a toy that has been hidden under a blanket — Classic test for object permanence in sensorimotor stage. a) Separation anxiety — emotional response, not cognitive milestone. c) Imitation — social learning. d) Operant conditioning — reinforcement-based.

Question 49

49. Which of the following is TRUE about temperament? a) It is completely shaped by the environment. b) It is largely influenced by heredity. c) It is unrelated to personality. d) It is stable across situations.

Answer 49

B) It is largely influenced by heredity — Temperament is biologically based but shaped by environment over time. a) Not purely environmental. c) Closely linked to personality outcomes. d) Somewhat stable but can change.

Question 50

50. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the cephalocaudal principle? a) Development proceeds from head to tail. b) Motor control of the head comes before control of the arms and trunk. c) Infants can walk before they can hold their head up. d) Physical growth follows a top-down pattern.

Answer 50

C) Infants can walk before they can hold their head up — False; head control develops first. a, b, d — correct aspects of cephalocaudal growth pattern.

Question 51

51. Which of the following refers to the principle that growth follows a pattern that begins with the head and upper body parts before the rest of the body? a) Proximodistal principle b) Cephalocaudal principle c) Principle of hierarchical integration d) Principle of independence of systems

Answer 51

B) Cephalocaudal principle — Development proceeds from head downward. a) Proximodistal — center of body outward. c) Hierarchical integration — simple skills integrated into complex ones. d) Independence of systems — different systems grow at different rates.

Question 52

52. Which of the following best describes the proximodistal principle? a) Development proceeds from the center of the body outward. b) Development proceeds from head to tail. c) Development occurs in stages. d) Development of one system is independent of the other systems.

Answer 52

A) Development proceeds from the center of the body outward — Infants gain control over trunk/arms before hands/fingers. b) Cephalocaudal — head to tail. c) Stages — refers to discontinuity. d) Independence of systems — different rates of growth.

Question 53

53. Which of the following refers to the process by which unused neurons are eliminated? a) Synaptic pruning b) Myelination c) Neural migration d) Neuroplasticity

Answer 53

A) Synaptic pruning — Eliminates unused connections, making brain more efficient. b) Myelination — fatty coating speeds transmission. c) Neural migration — movement of neurons prenatally. d) Neuroplasticity — brain's ability to change.

Question 54

54. The fatty substance that helps insulate neurons and speeds the transmission of nerve impulses is called: a) Synapse b) Dendrite c) Axon d) Myelin

Answer 54

D) Myelin — Protective sheath around axons. a) Synapse — junction between neurons. b) Dendrite — receives signals. c) Axon — transmits impulse but not the insulating material.

Question 55

55. The thick bundle of nerve fibers that connects the two hemispheres of the brain is called: a) Cerebellum b) Corpus callosum c) Hippocampus d) Hypothalamus

Answer 55

B) Corpus callosum — Integrates information between hemispheres. a) Cerebellum — motor coordination. c) Hippocampus — memory. d) Hypothalamus — homeostasis.

Question 56

56. The rapid increase in the size of the frontal lobe during adolescence is most closely associated with: a) Decrease in self-consciousness b) Increase in abstract reasoning and decision-making c) Decrease in emotional intensity d) Increase in reflexive behaviors

Answer 56

B) Increase in abstract reasoning and decision-making — Prefrontal cortex matures, improving executive function. a) Self-consciousness initially increases (imaginary audience). c) Emotional intensity increases due to limbic development. d) Reflexes decrease, not increase.

Question 57

57. The inability to recall memories from infancy is called: a) Infantile amnesia b) Retrograde amnesia c) Anterograde amnesia d) Dissociative amnesia

Answer 57

A) Infantile amnesia — Lack of autobiographical memory before ~3 years old. b) Retrograde — loss of past memories. c) Anterograde — inability to form new memories. d) Dissociative — trauma-related memory loss.

Question 58

58. Which of the following refers to the understanding that objects continue to exist even when they cannot be seen? a) Object permanence b) Conservation c) Symbolic function d) Deferred imitation

Answer 58

A) Object permanence — Key milestone of sensorimotor stage. b) Conservation — constancy of quantity. c) Symbolic function — use of symbols, emerges preoperational stage. d) Deferred imitation — later reproduction of observed act.

Question 59

59. Which of the following best describes the concept of conservation? a) The ability to recognize that quantity remains the same despite changes in shape or appearance. b) The ability to think abstractly. c) The ability to order items along a dimension. d) The ability to understand someone else's perspective.

Answer 59

A) The ability to recognize that quantity remains the same despite changes in shape or appearance — Achieved in concrete operational stage. b) Abstract thinking — formal operational. c) Seriation. d) Perspective taking — decentration.

Question 60

60. According to Piaget, which of the following is characteristic of preoperational thought? a) Egocentrism b) Hypothetical-deductive reasoning c) Logical reasoning about concrete events d) Understanding of object permanence

Answer 60

A) Egocentrism — Children unable to take others’ perspective. b) Hypothetical-deductive reasoning — formal operational. c) Logical reasoning — concrete operational. d) Object permanence — sensorimotor.

Question 61

61. Which of the following best describes Vygotsky's concept of the zone of proximal development (ZPD)? a) The range of tasks that a child can perform independently. b) The range of tasks that a child can perform with assistance but not yet independently. c) The range of tasks that are too difficult even with help. d) The tasks that a child has already mastered.

Answer 61

B) The range of tasks that a child can perform with assistance but not yet independently — ZPD defines area where scaffolding is effective. a) Already mastered tasks. c) Beyond reach tasks. d) Independent performance.

Question 62

62. According to Erikson, what is the primary psychosocial conflict of adolescence? a) Identity vs. role confusion b) Intimacy vs. isolation c) Industry vs. inferiority d) Autonomy vs. shame and doubt

Answer 62

A) Identity vs. role confusion — Adolescents seek coherent sense of self. b) Intimacy — young adulthood. c) Industry — middle/late childhood. d) Autonomy — toddlerhood.

Question 63

63. According to Erikson, what is the primary psychosocial conflict of middle adulthood? a) Intimacy vs. isolation b) Generativity vs. stagnation c) Integrity vs. despair d) Industry vs. inferiority

Answer 63

B) Generativity vs. stagnation — Concern for guiding next generation. a) Intimacy — young adult. c) Integrity — late adulthood. d) Industry — school-age.

Question 64

64. Which of the following best illustrates Piaget's concept of assimilation? a) A child learns that a zebra is not a horse and modifies her schema. b) A child calls all four-legged animals 'dog.' c) A child uses a ruler for the first time to measure length. d) A child learns a completely new concept in math.

Answer 64

B) A child calls all four-legged animals 'dog.' — Fitting new info into existing schema. a) Accommodation — modifying schema. c, d — examples of learning but not assimilation specifically.

Question 65

65. Which of the following is an example of primary circular reactions? a) An infant repeatedly shakes a rattle to hear the sound. b) An infant sucks his thumb and repeats the action because it is pleasurable. c) An infant drops a toy repeatedly to see it fall. d) An infant imitates facial expressions of an adult.

Answer 65

B) An infant sucks his thumb and repeats the action because it is pleasurable — Primary circular reactions center on own body (1-4 months). a) Secondary circular reactions — focused on environment. c) Tertiary — experimentation. d) Imitation — separate milestone.

Question 66

66. According to Kohlberg, which stage of moral development is characterized by obedience and punishment orientation? a) Conventional level, stage 3 b) Preconventional level, stage 1 c) Conventional level, stage 4 d) Postconventional level, stage 5

Answer 66

B) Preconventional level, stage 1 — Moral reasoning based on avoiding punishment. a) Stage 3 — good boy/girl. c) Stage 4 — law and order. d) Stage 5 — social contract.

Question 67

67. According to Kohlberg, which stage of moral development is characterized by law and order orientation? a) Conventional level, stage 3 b) Preconventional level, stage 2 c) Conventional level, stage 4 d) Postconventional level, stage 6

Answer 67

C) Conventional level, stage 4 — Upholding laws/rules to maintain social order. a) Stage 3 — interpersonal accord. b) Stage 2 — instrumental relativist. d) Stage 6 — universal ethical principles.

Question 68

68. Which of the following refers to the ability to control one's emotional responses? a) Emotional contagion b) Emotional regulation c) Temperament d) Goodness of fit

Answer 68

B) Emotional regulation — Adjusting emotions to meet goals/context. a) Emotional contagion — automatic 'catching' of emotions. c) Temperament — biologically based style. d) Goodness of fit — match between temperament and environment.

Question 69

69. Which of the following best describes the concept of scaffolding? a) The gradual removal of support as a child’s competence increases. b) The process of creating new schemas. c) The process of balancing assimilation and accommodation. d) The process of repeating pleasurable behaviors.

Answer 69

A) The gradual removal of support as a child’s competence increases — Key Vygotskian strategy. b) Schema creation — Piaget. c) Equilibration — Piaget. d) Primary circular reactions — infancy.

Question 70

70. Which of the following is an example of fine motor skill? a) Jumping rope b) Writing letters with a pencil c) Running d) Climbing stairs

Answer 70

B) Writing letters with a pencil — Requires finger dexterity. a, c, d — gross motor skills.

Question 71

71. According to Erikson, failure to establish a clear and stable sense of self during adolescence leads to: a) Role confusion b) Isolation c) Inferiority d) Stagnation

Answer 71

A) Role confusion — Results in identity crisis. b) Isolation — young adulthood. c) Inferiority — school-age. d) Stagnation — midlife.

Question 72

72. Which of the following is TRUE about teratogens? a) They are environmental agents that can cause harm to the developing fetus. b) They always result in birth defects. c) They only affect the mother, not the fetus. d) They have no effect if exposure happens during the embryonic period.

Answer 72

A) They are environmental agents that can cause harm to the developing fetus — Effects depend on timing, dose, and genetics. b) Not always — depends on factors. c) Affect fetus directly/indirectly. d) Embryonic period is most vulnerable.

Question 73

73. Which of the following is TRUE about the Apgar score range? a) 0–2 indicates excellent condition. b) 4–6 indicates severe distress. c) 7–10 indicates good to excellent condition. d) 3–5 indicates perfect condition.

Answer 73

C) 7–10 indicates good to excellent condition — Immediate postnatal well-being. a) 0–2 — critical condition. b) 4–6 — moderate distress. d) 3–5 — not perfect; indicates intervention needed.

Question 74

74. Which of the following best describes the concept of resilience? a) The ability to avoid negative emotions entirely. b) The ability to bounce back from adversity. c) The tendency to seek out stressful situations. d) The absence of stress in one’s life.

Answer 74

B) The ability to bounce back from adversity — Positive adaptation despite risks. a) Avoiding negative emotions is unrealistic. c) Seeking stress — sensation seeking, not resilience. d) Stress can exist but be managed.

Question 75

75. Which of the following is an example of tertiary circular reactions? a) An infant accidentally shakes a rattle and repeats the action. b) An infant drops different objects from high chair to see what happens. c) An infant cries to get attention. d) An infant smiles when seeing a familiar face.

Answer 75

B) An infant drops different objects from high chair to see what happens — Tertiary circular reactions involve experimentation (12–18 months). a) Secondary circular reactions — repeated accidental action. c) Crying — communication. d) Social smile — earlier milestone.

Question 76

76. A miscarriage that occurs after 20 weeks of gestation is generally characterized as a____. a) spontaneous abortion b) therapeutic abortion c) stillbirth d) misfortune

Answer 76

C) stillbirth — Fetal death after 20 weeks gestation. a) Spontaneous abortion — before 20 weeks. b) Therapeutic abortion — medically induced termination. d) Misfortune — non-medical term.

Question 77

77. Finishing touches such as fingernails, toenails, and eyelids continue to develop in what stage of prenatal development? a) Fetal b) Embryonic c) Germinal d) Zygotic

Answer 77

A) Fetal — Final growth, refinement of structures. b) Embryonic — organogenesis. c) Germinal — zygote implantation. d) Zygotic — not a standard stage term.

Question 78

78. Which of the following best describes the term 'age of viability'? a) The age at which the fetus can first survive outside the womb with medical assistance. b) The age at which the fetus begins to move. c) The age at which the fetus can first hear sounds. d) The age at which the fetus first shows reflexes.

Answer 78

A) The age at which the fetus can first survive outside the womb with medical assistance — Around 22–26 weeks gestation with NICU care. b) Quickening — felt ~16–20 weeks. c) Hearing develops ~24 weeks but viability refers to survival. d) Reflexes appear earlier.

Question 79

79. Which of the following best describes the term 'lanugo'? a) The soft hair that covers the fetus' body. b) The waxy substance that covers the skin of the fetus. c) The fine down hair that falls off before birth. d) The white coating found in the amniotic sac.

Answer 79

C) The fine down hair that falls off before birth — Lanugo covers fetus for warmth, sheds near birth. a) Soft hair — same idea but C highlights shedding. b) Vernix caseosa — waxy coating. d) Not a medical term.

Question 80

80. Which of the following is TRUE about teratogens? a) They have the same effect regardless of the timing of exposure. b) Their effects may depend on genetic susceptibility. c) They always result in structural defects. d) They never affect the central nervous system.

Answer 80

B) Their effects may depend on genetic susceptibility — Gene-teratogen interaction determines outcome. a) Timing matters — embryonic period most critical. c) Can also cause behavioral/functional issues. d) CNS is highly sensitive throughout gestation.

Question 81

81. Which of the following is a risk factor for low birth weight? a) Maternal smoking b) Adequate prenatal care c) Appropriate maternal weight gain d) Full-term pregnancy

Answer 81

A) Maternal smoking — Reduces oxygen, leads to intrauterine growth restriction. b, c, d — protective factors.

Question 82

82. Which of the following best describes the term 'kangaroo care'? a) Placing the newborn in an incubator to maintain body temperature. b) Placing the newborn skin-to-skin with the parent to promote bonding and regulate physiology. c) Wrapping the newborn tightly in a blanket to soothe crying. d) Using a mechanical device to monitor infant heart rate.

Answer 82

B) Placing the newborn skin-to-skin with the parent to promote bonding and regulate physiology — Improves weight gain, thermoregulation, bonding. a) Incubator — not kangaroo care. c) Swaddling — separate soothing practice. d) Monitoring — not caregiving technique.

Question 83

83. Which of the following is TRUE about SIDS (Sudden Infant Death Syndrome)? a) It is more common among infants who sleep on their backs. b) It is more common among infants who sleep on their stomachs. c) It has no known risk factors. d) It can be completely prevented.

Answer 83

B) It is more common among infants who sleep on their stomachs — Supine sleeping reduces risk. a) Back sleeping lowers risk. c) Risk factors known (smoke exposure, bedding). d) Can be reduced, not fully prevented.

Question 84

84. Which of the following best describes the concept of plasticity in development? a) The idea that development is fixed and unchangeable. b) The capacity for change in response to positive or negative life experiences. c) The genetic programming of development. d) The process by which unused neurons are eliminated.

Answer 84

B) The capacity for change in response to positive or negative life experiences — Brain and behavior adapt. a) Fixed — opposite of plasticity. c) Genetic programming — maturation. d) Synaptic pruning — separate process.

Question 85

85. Which of the following is TRUE about the Apgar score? a) It is measured only once after birth. b) It assesses cognitive functioning. c) It is measured at 1 and 5 minutes after birth. d) It predicts future intelligence.

Answer 85

C) It is measured at 1 and 5 minutes after birth — Evaluates immediate adaptation. a) Measured twice. b) Not cognitive test. d) Not IQ predictor.

Question 86

86. Which of the following best describes the concept of goodness of fit? a) The match between a child's temperament and the environmental demands. b) The degree of similarity between parent and child temperaments. c) The consistency of temperament over time. d) The predictability of a child’s behavior.

Answer 86

A) The match between a child's temperament and the environmental demands — Good fit leads to optimal development. b) Similarity is not required; responsiveness is key. c) Stability — different concept. d) Predictability — not definition.

Question 87

87. Which of the following is TRUE about proximodistal development? a) It refers to development that proceeds from head to tail. b) It refers to development that proceeds from the center outward. c) It refers to development that occurs from simple to complex. d) It refers to development that proceeds from feet to head.

Answer 87

B) It refers to development that proceeds from the center outward — Trunk → arms → fingers. a) Cephalocaudal. c) Hierarchical integration — simple → complex. d) Reverse cephalocaudal.

Question 88

88. Which of the following best illustrates classical conditioning? a) A baby learns to crawl after repeated practice. b) A baby blinks in response to a puff of air after it was repeatedly paired with a tone. c) A baby imitates the actions of an older sibling. d) A baby stops crying when picked up.

Answer 88

B) A baby blinks in response to a puff of air after it was repeatedly paired with a tone — Tone becomes conditioned stimulus. a) Crawling — motor learning. c) Imitation — observational learning. d) Negative reinforcement/comfort.

Question 89

89. Which of the following best illustrates operant conditioning? a) A baby salivates at the smell of milk. b) A baby increases babbling after being praised. c) A baby cries after hearing a loud sound. d) A baby flinches at a sudden bright light.

Answer 89

B) A baby increases babbling after being praised — Positive reinforcement increases behavior. a) Classical conditioning reflex. c, d) Startle reflex — unconditioned response.

Question 90

90. Which of the following best illustrates observational learning? a) A baby learns to associate a bell with feeding. b) A baby imitates clapping after watching someone clap. c) A baby cries when hearing a loud noise. d) A baby learns to roll over after several attempts.

Answer 90

B) A baby imitates clapping after watching someone clap — Modeling (Bandura). a) Classical conditioning. c) Startle reflex. d) Trial-and-error motor learning.

Question 91

91. Which of the following best describes temperament? a) The consistent behavioral style that is biologically based. b) The learned pattern of responding to environmental events. c) The personality trait that develops in adolescence. d) The cognitive ability to think logically.

Answer 91

A) The consistent behavioral style that is biologically based — Includes reactivity, activity level, emotional regulation. b) Learned behavior — not innate. c) Temperament is present early, not just adolescence. d) Logical thought — cognitive skill, not temperament.

Question 92

92. Which of the following is TRUE about brain development in early childhood? a) The brain reaches about 90% of its adult weight by age 5. b) The number of neurons increases rapidly after birth. c) The brain is fully mature by age 6. d) Synaptic pruning does not occur until adolescence.

Answer 92

A) The brain reaches about 90% of its adult weight by age 5 — Rapid synaptogenesis, myelination. b) Neurons mostly present at birth. c) Full maturity occurs in mid-20s. d) Pruning begins in infancy.

Question 93

93. Brandon is a skilled biker. His skills and awareness of using the bicycle is stored in what level of memory? a) sensory memory b) short term memory c) declarative memory d) nondeclarative memory

Answer 93

D) nondeclarative memory — Procedural/implicit memory stores motor skills. a, b — temporary stores. c) Declarative — facts/events.

Question 94

94. Ron asks his father why there are small dogs and big dogs. His father gave him an explanation. However, Ron's curiosity seems to be unsatisfied with the answer of his father. So, he generated his own assumptions of why there are small and big dogs. According to neo-Piagetians, this tendency of children is called? a) theory of mind b) theory-theory c) preformationism d) imagined play

Answer 94

B) theory-theory — Children construct their own theories about the world. a) Theory of mind — understanding others’ mental states. c) Preformationism — outdated biological concept. d) Imagined play — symbolic play.

Question 95

95. Luke sometimes talks to himself to better solve his problems. According to Vygotsky, this is a private speech. Piaget, however, called it as? a) free speech b) egocentric speech c) self talk d) none of the above

Answer 95

B) egocentric speech — Piaget saw it as nonsocial speech. a) Free speech — not term. c) Self-talk — descriptive term but not Piaget’s. d) Incorrect.

Question 96

96. According to Lev Vygotsky, this refers to the area with which children needed assistance to perform a certain task. a) ZPD b) CPD c) OPD d) OCD

Answer 96

A) ZPD — Zone of Proximal Development: tasks done with guidance. b, c — not developmental terms. d) OCD — clinical disorder.

Question 97

97. Carl's men memory of his 7th birthday, and his elementary graduation are stored in what level of memory? a) semantic memory b) episodic memory c) short term memory d) nondeclarative memory

Answer 97

B) episodic memory — Personal events. a) Semantic — facts/knowledge. c) Short term — limited capacity. d) Nondeclarative — skills.

Question 98

98. Kyla bumped into a cabinet in their living room. Kyla immediately thought that the cabinet is angry at her. What characteristic of preoperational thought was displayed by Kyla? a) animism b) artificialism c) pretend play d) centration

Answer 98

A) animism — Attributing life to inanimate objects. b) Artificialism — believing humans make natural phenomena. c) Pretend play — symbolic play. d) Centration — focus on one aspect.

Question 99

99. Greg punched Michael. The next day, Greg was absent due to fever. Michael thought that Greg was punished for punching him. What characteristic of preoperational thought was displayed by Michael? a) animism b) transductive reasoning c) egocentrism d) artificialism

Answer 99

B) transductive reasoning — Linking two unrelated events as cause-effect. a) Animism — life attribution. c) Egocentrism — perspective limitation. d) Artificialism — natural phenomena explanation.

Question 100

100. Alicia has just seen a maroon-painted wall as she rides in a car. Following the stages of memory consolidation, the color maroon will be stored first in what level of memory? a) sensory memory b) short term memory c) long term memory d) declarative memory

Answer 100

A) sensory memory — Immediate, brief storage of sensory information. b) Short term — temporary processing. c) Long term — later storage. d) Declarative — explicit memory system.