Devt Psy - Ms Bianca 1 Flashcards

Question

25) When Ynnos’ mother returned, he showed fear and tried to obtain comfort from a stranger. What attachment does Ynnos most likely have? a) ambivalent b) secured c) disorganized d) avoidant

Answer 1

C) Disorganized — Characterized by contradictory, fearful, and confused behavior toward caregiver upon reunion (Barlow). a) Ambivalent — Seeks comfort but is angry/resistant. b) Secured — Comforted quickly by caregiver. d) Avoidant — Avoids caregiver upon return.

Answer 2

B) Those with early secure attachment will likely show the same attachment pattern — Longitudinal research shows continuity of attachment style into later relationships (Santrock). a) Affects only up to adolescence — Research shows it can affect adulthood. c) Guarantee of disorders — Too deterministic. d) Not relevant — False.

Answer 3

A) Normal autism — First stage (0–2 months) where infant is self-absorbed and oblivious to outside world (Mahler). b) Normal symbiosis — Next stage (2–5 months), awareness of caregiver. c) Rapprochement — Subphase of separation-individuation. d) Object constancy — Final stage, internal representation of caregiver.

Answer 4

C) Rapprochement — Characterized by wanting closeness after practicing independence, leading to ambivalence. a) Differentiation — Earliest subphase, recognizing separation. b) Practicing — Exploring physical world. d) Object constancy — Stable mental representation of caregiver.

Answer 5

A) Psychological birth — Term Mahler used to describe separation-individuation process. b) Individuation — Part of the process but not the overall term. c) Symbiosis — Precedes separation. d) Separation — Physical distinction but psychological birth encompasses individuation too.

Answer 6

D) All of the above — Commitment can occur after crisis (achievement), after consideration (moratorium to achievement), or without thought (foreclosure). a) After crisis — Identity achievement. b) After consideration — Also achievement. c) Without thought — Identity foreclosure.

Answer 7

B) Identity diffusion — Little exploration, little commitment; common in early childhood. a) Foreclosure — Premature commitment without exploration. c) Moratorium — Actively exploring. d) Achievement — Commitment after exploration.

Answer 8

B) Identity diffusion — Shows no exploration and no commitment to political identity. a) Foreclosure — Would show commitment to stance w/o exploration. c) Moratorium — Would explore but not yet commit. d) Achievement — Commitment after crisis.

Answer 9

B) They are always unhappy about their commitment — Not necessarily true; foreclosed individuals can be content with commitments. a) Uncritical acceptance — Hallmark of foreclosure. c) Dogmatic — Foreclosed individuals often rigid. d) None — Incorrect because b is false.

Answer 10

D) Reactive and continuous — Behaviorists see humans as reactive to environment and development as gradual/continuous. a) Active/discontinuous — Constructivist view (Piaget). b) Reactive/discontinuous — Stage theorists but not behaviorists. c) Active/continuous — Social learning/cognitive theories.

Answer 11

B) Classical conditioning — Anxiety (CR) paired with school environment (CS) after embarrassing events (US). a) Operant conditioning — Based on reinforcement/punishment, not association. c) Social cognitive theory — Emphasizes modeling, not conditioning. d) Higher-order conditioning — Conditioning based on second CS, not first pairing.

Answer 12

D) Second-order conditioning — Blanket (new CS) acquires association with safety because paired with parents (original CS). a) Operant — Not about reinforcement here. b) Classical conditioning — First-order conditioning only. c) Social cognitive — Observational learning.

Answer 13

B) Shaping — Reinforcing successive approximations of the target behavior (Skinner). a) Operant conditioning — Broad category but shaping is more specific. c) Classical conditioning — Learning through association. d) Reward approximations — Not a formal term.

Answer 14

C) Negative reinforcement — Avoidance removes anxiety (aversive stimulus), thus behavior is strengthened. a) Classical conditioning — Explains fear acquisition, not maintenance. b) Positive reinforcement — Adding pleasant stimulus. d) Higher-order reinforcement — Not applicable here.

Answer 15

D) Provide random reinforcements — Variable reinforcement schedules produce most persistent behavior (Skinner). a) Positive punishment — Produces suppression, not learning. b) Continuous reinforcement — Extinguishes quickly when stopped. c) Negative punishment — Works but less effective for long-term motivation.

Answer 16

B) Warmth — Primary reinforcer, not conditioned. a) Money — Conditioned reinforcer. c) Praise — Secondary reinforcer. d) Grades — Learned/conditioned reinforcer.

Answer 17

C) Both a & b are correct — Extinction requires withholding reinforcement and is hard in naturalistic settings due to intermittent reinforcement. a) Statement a — True. b) Statement b — True. d) None — Incorrect.

Answer 18

D) All of the above — Skinner acknowledged selection by consequences at three levels: phylogeny, ontogeny, and culture. a) Natural selection — Evolutionary level. b) Reinforcement history — Individual level. c) Cultural practices — Group level shaping behavior.

Answer 19

D) Two options are correct — Bandura emphasized learning through direct experience and vicarious observation. a) Direct experience — Part of social learning. b) Vicarious learning — Modeling. c) Association — Classical conditioning, not Bandura focus.

Answer 20

D) All of the above — Modeling more effective when model is competent and observer is motivated/novice/child (Bandura). a) Competent model — Increases attention/retention. b) Novice — More likely to learn. c) Child — High modeling tendency.

Answer 21

C) Both a & b — Environment influences behavior through reinforcements and punishments. a) Reinforcement — Environmental consequence. b) Punishment — Environmental consequence. d) None — Incorrect.

Answer 22

C) Both statements are correct — Core of agentic perspective: humans proactive and self-regulating (Bandura). a) First only — Incomplete. b) Second only — Misses proactivity. d) Both incorrect — False.

Answer 23

D) More than one option is correct — Mastery experience, verbal persuasion, and emotional regulation all increase self-efficacy (Bandura). a) Practice — Mastery experience. b) Social support — Verbal persuasion. c) Moderate anxiety — Optimal arousal for efficacy.

Answer 24

D) None of the above — All listed are considered evolved cognitive adaptations. a) Mate preference — Evolutionary mechanism. b) Baby schema — Adaptive to ensure caregiving. c) Intelligence — Evolved for survival/problem solving.

Answer 25

D) All of the above — Ontogenetic adaptations are traits serving a purpose at a certain age (Bjorklund). a) Pubertal timing — Adaptive reproduction timing. b) Egocentricity — Helps develop perspective-taking later. c) Social play — Prepares for social roles.

Answer 26

B) Evolutionary psychology — Focuses on human-specific evolution without cross-species. a) Ethology — Often uses animal behavior comparisons. c) Both — Overinclusive. d) None — Incorrect.

Answer 27

D) All of the above — Evolutionary psychology recognizes genetic determinism but also considers environment shaping gene expression (Bjorklund). a) Deterministic approach — True but not absolute. b) Biology/genetics explain behavior — True. c) Environment also influences — True.

Answer 28

C) Assimilation, accommodation, equilibration — Piaget proposed these as mechanisms driving cognitive change. a) Organization/adaptation/equilibration — Adaptation is general term. b) Organization/assimilation/accommodation — Missing equilibration. d) Disequilibrium — Precursor but not process itself.

Answer 29

B) Assimilation — Child fits new object (airplane) into existing schema for “bird.” a) Accommodation — Would require schema change. c) Equilibration — Balancing assimilation and accommodation. d) Organization — Internal process structuring knowledge.

Answer 30

A) Primary circular reaction — Repetition of self-focused actions (1–4 months). b) Secondary — External objects focus (4–8 months). c) Coordination — Intentional behavior (8–12 months). d) Tertiary — Experimentation (12–18 months).

Answer 31

D) Tertiary circular reaction — Systematic experimentation with variations (12–18 months). a) Primary — Earlier, body-focused. b) Secondary — Repeating actions on objects. c) Coordination — Combining schemes to solve problems.

Answer 32

D) None of the above — All listed abilities are possible by 24 months (deferred imitation, object permanence, categorization). a) Deferred imitation — Present. b) Object permanence — Achieved. c) Categorization — Emerging.

Answer 33

C) Centration — Cognitive limitation (focus on one aspect), not an advance. a) Theory of mind — Emerging in late preoperational. b) Categorization — Improves during this stage. d) Using maps — Early spatial representation skill.

Answer 34

A) Understand that surroundings are not pink — Preoperational child is perceptually bound, fails appearance–reality distinction. b) Imagine feelings — Possible (empathy emerging). c) Counting — By 4 many can count. d) Categorization — Able to group objects.

Answer 35

D) Two options are correct — By age 3: magical thinking common, may attempt deception though ToM still limited. a) Deception — Present in simple form. b) Magical thinking — Common. c) False-belief understanding — Emerges around 4–5.

Answer 36

D) Gelu, a 7-year-old kid — Transitive inference appears in concrete operational stage (around 7 years). a) 4-year-old — Preoperational, lacks logical transitivity. b) 5-year-old — Still preoperational. c) 6-year-old — Beginning transition but not yet solid.

Answer 37

C) Dio, a 7-year-old kid — Concrete operational children can use mental representations like maps effectively. a) 5-year-old — Preoperational, difficulty with spatial maps. b) 6-year-old — Emerging ability but still developing. d) 8-year-old — Can do but ability appears earlier.

Answer 38

D) All of the above — Formal operations allow abstract, logical, and hypothetical reasoning. a) Transitive inference — Continues from concrete operations. b) Inductive reasoning — Strengthens. c) Hypothetical-deductive — Key feature of formal stage.

Answer 39

D) Imaginary audience — Belief that others are watching and judging her constantly (Elkind). a) Imaginary fable — Not a concept (likely meant personal fable). b) Personal fable — Belief in uniqueness. c) Perceived invulnerability — Risk-taking belief.

Answer 40

C) Postformal thought stage — Characterized by relativistic, dialectical thinking; accepting multiple perspectives. a) Formal operational — Logical reasoning, not relativism. b) Reflective thought — Part of postformal but narrower. d) No stage — Postformal is proposed extension.

Answer 41

B) 50% — Mendelian cross: Bb × bb → 50% bb (red hair), 50% Bb (brown carrier). a) 25% — For Bb × Bb cross. c) 65% — Not valid ratio. d) 75% — Not possible with Bb × bb.

Answer 42

B) It only affects males — Incorrect; females can be affected if homozygous recessive. a) Located on X — True. c) Females carriers — True. d) None — Incorrect because b is false.

Answer 43

C) Small tongue — DS associated with protruding large tongue (macroglossia). a) Palmar crease — Common. b) Flat nose bridge — Common. d) Microgenia (small jaw) — Common.

Answer 44

B) Reaction range — Range of phenotypic expression depending on environment. a) Canalization — Traits highly resistant to environmental influence. c) Range of restriction — Not standard term. d) Epigenetics — Gene expression regulation.

Answer 45

A) Walking — Emerges in nearly all healthy infants under a range of environments (Papalia). b) Cognition — More environment-sensitive. c) Personality — Influenced by genetics and environment. d) Reading — Requires cultural instruction.

Answer 46

C) Passive — Parents provide environment that matches their own genotype and child’s inherited traits. a) Active — Child seeks environment. b) Proactive — Not standard term. d) Evocative — Child elicits response from environment.

Answer 47

D) Evocative — Child’s genetic tendency elicits response (parents enroll him). a) Active — Child would seek clinic on own. b) Proactive — Not formal term. c) Passive — Would be if parents were athletic.

Answer 48

D) None of the above — All listed (parents, friends, classmates) can contribute to non-shared environment if siblings experience them differently (e.g., differential treatment by parents). a) Parents — Non-shared if treated differently. b) Friends — Unique per sibling. c) Classmates — Varies per sibling group.

Answer 49

A) Gestation — Prenatal period. b) Neonatal — Birth to 1 month. c) Infancy — Birth to 2 years. d) Postnatal — After birth.

Answer 50

B) Embryonic stage — Organogenesis critical; teratogens have most severe effects. a) Germinal — Usually leads to miscarriage if damage. c) Fetal — Effects less severe, more functional defects. d) All — Overinclusive.

Answer 51

C) Become irritable as a newborn — Maternal stress/depression linked to newborn irritability, difficult temperament (Santrock). a) Intellectual deficits — Not direct outcome. b) Developmental delay — Not guaranteed. d) Miscarriage — More linked to severe stress/illness.

Answer 52

D) All of the above — Prenatal smoking linked to miscarriage, SIDS, and infant colic (Papalia/Santrock). a) Miscarriage — Risk increases. b) SIDS — Strong correlation. c) Colic — Higher prevalence.

Answer 53

C) Vernix caseosa — Waxy coating protecting infant’s skin and providing antibacterial protection. a) Fontanel — Soft spot on skull. b) Lanugo — Fine prenatal hair. d) Meconium — First stool.

Answer 54

D) 2 weeks after the due date — Postmaturity defined as >42 weeks gestation. a) 3 days — Still term. b) 5 days — Still term. c) 1 week — Still term (post-dates but not postmature).

Answer 55

C) SIDS — Sudden Infant Death Syndrome: unexplained death <1 year, often during sleep. a) Stillborn — Death before birth. b) Spontaneous abortion — Miscarriage. d) Colic — Excessive crying, not death.

Answer 56

B) Landau reflex — Postural reflex appearing later (3–4 months), not primitive. a) Darwinian — Palmar grasp, primitive. c) Tonic neck — Primitive fencing reflex. d) Rooting — Primitive reflex aiding feeding.

Answer 57

B) Sight — Visual acuity least mature at birth, improves over months. a) Hearing — Fairly well developed. c) Touch — Present prenatally. d) Smell — Functional at birth.

Answer 58

B) Telegraphic speech — Two-word combinations, omit nonessential words. a) Holophrase — One-word to express whole idea. c) Overextension — Using word too broadly. d) Underextension — Using word too narrowly.

Answer 59

C) Overregularization — Applying regular grammar rules to irregular verbs (spoke → speaked). a) Overextension — Semantic error, not grammar. b) Underextension — Too narrow use. d) Underregularization — Not standard term.

Answer 60

B) Middle childhood — Increased participation in team sports, rule-based play (Papalia). a) Early childhood — Parallel play more common. c) Adolescence — Competitive sports but participation begins earlier. d) Emerging adulthood — Few new entrants.

Answer 61

C) Adolescence — Pubertal changes heighten body-image concerns. a) Early childhood — Egocentrism, less self-conscious. b) Middle childhood — Some concern but less intense. d) Emerging adulthood — More stable self-image.

Answer 62

C) Coregulation — Parents exercise general oversight while children regulate moment-to-moment behavior (Santrock). a) Social referencing — Looking to others for emotional cues. b) Mutual regulation — Early infancy synchrony. d) Recentering — Transition to adulthood.

Answer 63

C) Instrumental aggression — Used to obtain desired object/goal, common in preschool years. a) Relational — Increases in middle childhood. b) Direct — General term. d) Indirect — More covert, develops later.

Answer 64

C) Early Childhood — Emotional regulation improves via prefrontal cortex development. a) Infancy — Basic emotional expression only. b) Toddlerhood — Beginnings of regulation but still limited. d) Middle childhood — Further refinement.

Answer 65

C) 18 months — Self-conscious emotions (pride, shame, guilt) develop after self-recognition, around 18–24 months (Lewis). a) 6 months — Only basic emotions. b) 12 months — Beginning of stranger anxiety/social referencing. d) 24 months — Already fully present.

Answer 66

C) Self-evaluative emotions — Pride, shame, guilt appear once self-awareness + standards internalized. a) True emotions — Broad term. b) Self-conscious — Appear earlier (12–18 months). d) Self-reflective — Later adolescence.

Answer 67

B) Stage 2 — Individual physically separate but still dependent emotionally/financially. a) Stage 1 — Embedded in family. c) Stage 3 — Independence with adult commitments. d) Stage 4 — Not a stage (recentering has 3 stages).

Answer 68

B) Socioemotional selectivity theory — Older adults prioritize emotionally meaningful relationships (Carstensen). a) Social convoy — Support network concept. c) Disengagement — Withdrawal from roles (outdated theory). d) Continuity — Maintaining consistent patterns.

Answer 69

D) Affect the couple’s marriage depending on its quality — Outcome varies; high-quality marriages improve, troubled marriages worsen. a) Better marriage — True for some. b) Cause problems — For troubled marriages. c) Harder for unresolved conflict couples — True subset.

Answer 70

A) Presbycusis due to senescence — Primary aging refers to normal age-related changes. b) Neurocognitive disease — Secondary aging (pathological). c) Chemotherapy hair loss — Secondary (environmental). d) None — Incorrect.

Answer 71

D) Rate of living theory — Links metabolic rate to longevity. a) Wear-and-tear — Cellular damage over time. b) Hayflick limit — Cellular division limit. c) Free-radical — Oxidative damage theory.

Answer 72

B) Hayflick limit — Cells divide ~50 times before senescence (Hayflick). a) Wear-and-tear — General damage model. c) Free-radical — Oxidative damage. d) Rate of living — Metabolic rate theory.

Answer 73

C) Procedural — Skills/habits are most resistant to decline. a) Episodic — Declines with age. b) Semantic — Some decline but less. d) None — Incorrect because procedural least affected.

Answer 74

B) Emotion-focused coping — Shift toward regulating emotional response rather than changing situation. a) Problem-focused — More common in younger adults. c) Cognitive-focused — Not primary classification. d) None — Incorrect.

Answer 75

C) Continuity theory — Personality and behavior remain consistent with earlier life patterns. a) Activity theory — Stresses high activity levels for satisfaction. b) Disengagement — Advocates withdrawal. d) Social convoy — Focuses on social support network.

Answer 76

B) Passive euthanasia — Withholding/withdrawing life-sustaining treatment allowing natural death. a) Mercy killing — Euphemism for active euthanasia. c) Active euthanasia — Direct action to cause death. d) Evocative — Not a term.

Devt Psy - Ms Bianca 1 Flashcards

(100 cards)