Devt Psy - Ms Jhen 1 Flashcards

(100 cards)

1
Q

1) This is the scientific study of ways in which people change,
as well as stay the same, from conception to death.
a) Human Development
b) Lifespan Development
c) Developmental Psychology
d) All of the above

A

D) All of the above — All three terms describe the field that studies systematic changes and stabilities across the lifespan. (Papalia)

a) Human Development — General term for development study.
b) Lifespan Development — Emphasizes conception-to-death scope.
c) Developmental Psychology — Scientific discipline studying human growth.

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2
Q

2) A nativist account of development would argue that
a) The processes of an organism are acquired by interaction with the environment.
b) The processes of an organism are innate.
c) Language is learned through interaction with the community.
d) While the structure of particular muscles develop in the same way across environments, the strength of each individual’s muscle is significantly related to experience.

A

B) The processes of an organism are innate — Nativism stresses inborn structures and biological determinism. (Papalia/Sigelman)

a) Acquired by interaction — Empiricism/behaviorism.
c) Language through community — Sociocultural/learning view.
d) Muscle strength by experience — Experience-dependent, not strict nativism.

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3
Q

3) While in the zoo, a child saw a horse for the first time and referred to it as a dog. The child demonstrated which of the following?
a) Assimilation
b) Accommodation
c) Schematization
d) Learning

A

A) Assimilation — Fitting new information (horse) into an existing schema (dog). (Piaget, Papalia)

b) Accommodation — Adjusting schemas to fit new information.
c) Schematization — General process of schema formation.
d) Learning — Too broad, not the specific Piagetian process.

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4
Q

4) Which of the following statements are true according to Rousseau?
a) The environment is especially powerful in the child’s early life because the mind is the most pliable then.
b) Children develop according to a natural plan based on their inner biological timetable.
c) Development unfolded in fixed sequences and was activated by genes.
d) Personality is formed during the first few years of life.

A

B) Children develop according to a natural plan based on their inner biological timetable — Rousseau emphasized maturation and natural unfolding.

a) Early environment powerful — Closer to Locke’s view.
c) Fixed genetic activation — Modern maturationism, not Rousseau’s words.
d) Personality formed in early years — Freud’s emphasis.

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5
Q

5) This theory suggests that there is interplay between our personality and the ways we interpret events and how they influence us.
a) Jean Piaget’s theory
b) Psychosocial Theory
c) Social Learning Theory
d) Sociocultural Theory

A

C) Social Learning Theory — Bandura: reciprocal determinism (personality ↔ environment ↔ behavior).

a) Piaget — Cognitive developmental stages.
b) Psychosocial — Erikson’s crises.
d) Sociocultural — Vygotsky’s social learning.

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6
Q

6) Who among the following reiterated the importance of physical closeness and touching, not mere feeding, as a foundation for attachment?
a) Freud
b) Harlow
c) Bowlby
d) Piaget

A

B) Harlow — Demonstrated contact comfort through rhesus monkey studies.

a) Freud — Drive-reduction theory of attachment.
c) Bowlby — Ethological theory, evolutionary bonds.
d) Piaget — Cognitive stages, not attachment.

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7
Q

7) According to Erikson, this is the cornerstone of a healthy personality.
a) Trust
b) Hope
c) Wisdom
d) Will

A

A) Trust — Basic trust vs. mistrust (first psychosocial stage) is foundational.

b) Hope — Strength from successful resolution of infancy.
c) Wisdom — Virtue of late adulthood.
d) Will — Strength of autonomy vs. shame/doubt.

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8
Q

8) Inborn traits or characteristics inherited from biological parents are referred to as _____.
a) Nurture
b) Maturation
c) Heredity
d) Environment

A

Correct answer: C) Heredity — because heredity refers to the transmission of genetic traits from parents to offspring.

a) Nurture — environmental influences after conception.
b) Maturation — unfolding of biological growth processes.
d) Environment — external conditions and influences.

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9
Q

9) Mariposa abhors lying and not telling the truth because according to her only a bad person lies. She is in what stage of moral development?
a) Pre-conventional morality
b) Post-conventional morality
c) Conventional morality
d) Unconventional morality

A

C) Conventional morality — Guided by social rules and being seen as a “good” person. (Kohlberg)

a) Pre-conventional — Motivated by punishment/reward.
b) Post-conventional — Based on abstract ethical principles.
d) Unconventional — Not in Kohlberg’s stages.

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10
Q

10) Which of the following is the leading cause of death in infants one to 12 months old?
a) Unknown cause
b) Sudden Infant Death Syndrome
c) Accidental Suffocation
d) Strangulation in Bed

A

B) Sudden Infant Death Syndrome — Sudden unexplained death during sleep, leading infant mortality cause.

a) Unknown cause — Too vague.
c) Accidental suffocation — Lower than SIDS.
d) Strangulation in bed — Subtype of accidents.

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11
Q

11) Paolo, a married man and OFW, found himself slowly falling in love with Yan, his co-worker in London. Paolo could not help but be attracted since they are always together. Paolo is attracted to Yan based on:
a) Similarity
b) Self-disclosure
c) Proximity
d) Disparity

A

C) Proximity — Closeness increases attraction through repeated exposure.

a) Similarity — Shared traits, not emphasized here.
b) Self-disclosure — Intimate sharing, not mentioned.
d) Disparity — Dissimilarity, opposite of attraction.

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12
Q

12) When it comes to aging, the following statements are true except
a) Getting out of shape is an inevitable part of aging.
b) Aging due to biological factors is called primary aging.
c) Aging due to controllable factors is called secondary aging.
d) None of the above.

A

A) Getting out of shape is an inevitable part of aging — False; lifestyle factors matter. (Santrock)

b) Primary aging — Natural, unavoidable biological changes.
c) Secondary aging — Influenced by health, environment, habits.
d) None — Incorrect since (a) is false.

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13
Q

13) Which theorist believes that a child only forms attachment with one figure, and that this relationship will act as a prototype for all future relations?
a) Sigmund Freud
b) Melanie Klein
c) John Bowlby
d) Heinz Kohut

A

C) John Bowlby — Monotropy: one primary attachment sets model for later relationships.

a) Freud — Early relationships important, but not monotropy.
b) Klein — Multiple internal objects.
d) Kohut — Self-psychology focus.

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14
Q

14) To fall within the zone of proximal development, which of the following is true?
a) This is the highest level of understanding that a child can achieve.
b) This is the minimal level of understanding a child can achieve.
c) The lesson must be more advanced than the child could achieve on his own, yet close to his current abilities.
d) None of the above

A

C) The lesson must be more advanced but still attainable with help — Definition of ZPD (Vygotsky).

a) Highest level — Misinterpretation.
b) Minimal level — Too basic.
d) None — Wrong because ZPD is real.

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15
Q

15) In middle adulthood, this type of person is more prone to develop heart problems.
a) Type A
b) Type B
c) Type C
d) Type D

A

A) Type A — Characterized by competitiveness, impatience, hostility, linked to heart disease.

b) Type B — Relaxed, low stress.
c) Type C — Suppressive, associated with cancer risk.
d) Type D — Distressed, negative affectivity.

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16
Q

16) According to Erikson, the most important activity in adulthood is
a) Intimacy and romantic relationships
b) The ability to settle in a school or occupational identity
c) Procreation
d) To bring productive situation to completion

A

C) Procreation — Generativity through child-rearing and productivity. (Erikson’s middle adulthood stage)

a) Intimacy — Young adulthood stage.
b) School/occupation — Identity formation.
d) Productivity completion — Not Erikson’s phrasing.

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17
Q

17) Freud placed extraordinary emphasis on which act of an infant?
a) Thumb-sucking
b) Toilet training
c) Breastfeeding
d) Non-nutritive sucking

A

C) Breastfeeding — Central to Freud’s oral stage, gratification through mouth.

a) Thumb-sucking — Related, but secondary.
b) Toilet training — Anal stage.
d) Non-nutritive sucking — Comfort behavior, not Freud’s main focus.

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18
Q

18) Young adults who left home to live independently and later came back are referred to as:
a) Empty nesters
b) Boomerang kids
c) Kinkeeper
d) Sandwich generation

A

B) Boomerang kids — Young adults returning to parental home.

a) Empty nesters — Parents left after children move out.
c) Kinkeeper — Maintains family bonds.
d) Sandwich generation — Middle-aged caring for both kids and parents.

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19
Q

19) Sugar obeys traffic lights and crosses only when allowed because it is the law. She is in what stage of moral development?
a) Pre-conventional morality
b) Conventional morality
c) Post-conventional morality
d) Unconventional morality

A

B) Conventional morality — Following laws and social order. (Kohlberg)

a) Pre-conventional — Punishment/reward focus.
c) Post-conventional — Guided by principles.
d) Unconventional — Not in Kohlberg’s levels.

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20
Q

20) When an adult still has manifestations of Babinski reflex, the person could have:
a) Early onset neurocognitive disorder
b) Gene for Down Syndrome
c) Autism-spectrum disorder
d) Central nervous system disorder

A

D) Central nervous system disorder — Persistence of primitive reflex signals neurological damage.

a) Early onset neurocognitive disorder — Not specific.
b) Down syndrome gene — Unrelated.
c) Autism — Not reflex-based.

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21
Q

21) Which of the following is not true about life expectancy?
a) Females live longer than males.
b) Males have an advantage by selecting the better X chromosome.
c) Males are heterogametic.
d) None of the above

A

B) Males have an advantage by selecting the better X chromosome — False, they inherit only one X (from mother).

a) Females live longer — True.
c) Males are heterogametic (XY).
d) None — Incorrect since (b) is false.

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22
Q

22) He is known as the Father of Object-Relations Theory.
a) Jean Piaget
b) John Bowlby
c) Heinz Kohut
d) Sigmund Freud

A

D) Sigmund Freud — His psychoanalytic framework seeded later object-relations.

a) Piaget — Cognitive development.
b) Bowlby — Attachment theory.
c) Kohut — Self-psychology.

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23
Q

23) Lola Dionisia just turned 76 years old. She belongs in what category in late adulthood?
a) Young-old
b) Old-old
c) Oldest-old
d) Centenarians

A

B) Old-old — Typically ages 75–84.

a) Young-old — 65–74.
c) Oldest-old — 85+.
d) Centenarians — 100+ years.

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24
Q

24) The following statements are true, except
a) Sarcopenia is the loss of muscle tissue as a natural part of aging.
b) The Hormonal Stress Theory suggests aging reduces hormonal regulation leading to metabolic problems.
c) Only Asians tend to become shorter with age.
d) None of the above

A

C) Only Asians tend to become shorter — False; height loss is common in all populations.

a) Sarcopenia — True.
b) Hormonal Stress Theory — True.
d) None — Incorrect, since (c) is false.

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25
25) In attention and problem solving, the following statements are false, except a) Even with sufficient time, older adults cannot perform as competently as young adults. b) Even when speed is not necessary, older adults still decline. c) Younger adults use more effective strategies in social-emotional problems. d) None of the above
D) None of the above — Each of a–c contains inaccuracies; older adults often compensate and show strengths depending on context. (Papalia/Santrock) a) Cannot perform as competently — Too absolute. b) Declines even without speed — Oversimplified. c) Younger use more effective strategies — Not always true; older show socioemotional selectivity.
26
26) When it comes to retirement by young adulthood, the following statements are true except a) Some workers may choose encore careers similar to their previous one. b) Retirement is a process, not a one-time event. c) Most workers transition to bridge jobs. d) None of the above
A) Some workers may choose encore careers — False; encore careers are often different, socially meaningful roles, not the same as the prior one. b) Retirement as process — True. c) Bridge jobs — Common in transition. d) None — Incorrect since (a) is false.
27
27) Carl, a lawyer who became a partner, dreams of carpentry, archery, soap making, horse breeding, and bird-watching as hobbies in the future. He looks forward to a quiet life. Carl is in what stage of retirement? a) Remote pre-retirement phase b) Honeymoon phase c) Disenchantment phase d) Reorientation phase
A) Remote pre-retirement — Fantasizing about retirement while still working. b) Honeymoon — Excitement after actual retirement. c) Disenchantment — Disappointment stage. d) Reorientation — Adjusting routines later.
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28) Based on Piaget’s Moral Reasoning, children in this stage ignore intentions and focus on consequences. a) Premoral Development b) Autonomous Stage c) Heteronomous Stage d) Conventional morality
C) Heteronomous Stage — Morality of constraint, rules are absolute, outcomes matter more than intentions. a) Premoral — Little concern for rules. b) Autonomous — Morality of cooperation, intentions matter. d) Conventional — Kohlberg’s stage, not Piaget’s.
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29) Which developmental period starts at 18 until 25 years old? a) Early adulthood b) Adolescence c) Middle adulthood d) Emerging adulthood
D) Emerging adulthood — 18–25 years, transition between adolescence and adulthood. (Arnett, Papalia) a) Early adulthood — 20s–40s. b) Adolescence — Puberty to ~18. c) Middle adulthood — 40s–60s.
30
30) This psychosocial stage includes finding meaning in life and accepting accomplishments, while also acknowledging regrets. a) Identity vs. Role Confusion b) Intimacy vs. Isolation c) Generativity vs. Stagnation d) Integrity vs. Despair
D) Integrity vs. Despair — Late adulthood; life review with acceptance or regret. a) Identity — Adolescence. b) Intimacy — Young adulthood. c) Generativity — Middle adulthood.
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31) Based on studies, which is false? a) Widow/widower faces higher risk of death after spouse’s death. b) Widowhood increases mortality risk across causes. c) Mortality higher if spouse’s death was prepared for. d) Men show higher mortality if health problems are high.
C) Mortality higher if prepared — False; sudden/unexpected loss usually raises risk more. a) Higher risk of death — True. b) Widowhood mortality — True. d) Men with poor health higher risk — True.
32
32) Fear of one’s own death, loss of self-sufficiency, partners, and friends. a) Stagnation b) Thanatos c) Necrophilia d) Despair
D) Despair — Erikson’s late stage involves fear of death and regret. a) Stagnation — Midlife focus on self. b) Thanatos — Freud’s death instinct, not fear. c) Necrophilia — Pathological attraction, not fear.
33
33) Which type of elder abuse is most common? a) Abuse and neglect b) Psychological and emotional abuse c) Financial abuse d) Physical abuse
B) Psychological/emotional abuse — Most common form documented in elder abuse studies. a) Neglect — Also frequent but slightly lower. c) Financial abuse — Rising, but not highest. d) Physical abuse — Less frequent than psychological.
34
34) Which statements refer to social death? a) Occurs when others dehumanize and withdraw from terminally ill. b) Occurs when a terminally ill patient ignores others. c) Only happens to elderly. d) All of the above
A) Others dehumanize/withdraw — Correct definition. b) Patient ignores others — Not the construct. c) Only elderly — False; applies broadly. d) All — Wrong, since only (a) is right.
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35) Reflex when infants get agitated due to sudden noises or movements. a) Rooting b) Moro c) Righting d) Withdrawal
B) Moro reflex — Startle reflex, arms flail and then contract. a) Rooting — Turning toward touch for feeding. c) Righting — Postural adjustment. d) Withdrawal — Pulling away from stimuli.
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36) Who believed children of different ages interpret the world in different ways? a) Vygotsky b) Piaget c) Bronfenbrenner d) Skinner
B) Piaget — Stages of cognitive development show qualitative differences in thought. a) Vygotsky — Social interaction focus. c) Bronfenbrenner — Contextual systems. d) Skinner — Behaviorist learning.
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37) Which is true about perceptions of death? a) Infants cannot react to separation. b) Middle adults fear death more due to caretaking roles. c) Adolescents believe death is reversible. d) None of the above
B) Middle adults fear death more — True, linked to responsibilities. a) Infants do react (separation distress). c) Adolescents know permanence, but often deny vulnerability. d) None — Wrong because (b) is true.
38
38) At about 4 months, an infant can: a) Palmar grasp b) Pincer grasp c) Picking small objects into containers d) Sitting
A) Palmar grasp — Voluntary grasping emerges ~4 months. b) Pincer grasp — 9–12 months. c) Picking small objects — Requires pincer grasp. d) Sitting — Around 6 months.
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39) At this stage, a child understands death is final but may believe people die because of wrongdoings. a) Early childhood b) Middle childhood c) Late childhood d) Adolescence
C) Late childhood — Understand finality, but may link death to punishment. a) Early childhood — Magical thinking. b) Middle childhood — Gradual understanding. d) Adolescence — Abstract understanding.
40
40) In birth order, Adler believed neurotics, perverts, criminals are often: a) First-borns b) Youngest children c) Second-borns d) Only child
A) First-borns — Adler linked first-borns to neurosis if dethroned, prone to problems. b) Youngest — Pampered, dependent. c) Second-borns — Competitive, striving. d) Only child — Pampered, may struggle socially.
41
41) Grief without social support or formal mourning practices is: a) Complicated grief b) Disenfranchised grief c) Anticipatory grief d) Enfranchised grief
B) Disenfranchised grief — Grief not socially recognized or supported. a) Complicated — Prolonged/intense. c) Anticipatory — Before death occurs. d) Enfranchised — Opposite of disenfranchised.
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42) Example of preconventional morality: a) Nami: father can steal, people will see him as good. b) Robin: father can steal, life > property. c) Luffy: don’t steal, you might get punched. d) All of the above
C) Luffy — Avoiding punishment = preconventional stage (Kohlberg). a) Nami — “Good person” thinking, conventional. b) Robin — Principle of life over property, postconventional. d) All — Wrong, only (c) fits preconventional.
43
43) Which is false about Kübler-Ross’ stages of grief? a) Not always in order or experienced once. b) Stages occur with same intensity. c) Influenced by belief system. d) None of the above
B) Same intensity — False; individuals vary in experience. a) Not sequential — Correct. c) Belief system influences process — True. d) None — Wrong, since (b) is false.
44
44) Carl retires, travels, birdwatches, skis, and enjoys culture. He is in what stage of retirement? a) Immediate pre-retirement b) Actual retirement c) Honeymoon phase d) Reorientation phase
C) Honeymoon phase — Active excitement stage after retiring. a) Immediate pre-retirement — Just before retiring. b) Actual retirement — Broad term. d) Reorientation — Later adjustment.
45
45) Which is true based on Bandura? a) He criticized Skinner for ignoring social context, emphasized interaction. b) He denied personality as inner cause; saw empty organism. c) He said people function like scientists. d) All of the above
A) Criticized Skinner, emphasized social learning — Core Bandura view. b) Empty organism — Skinner’s radical behaviorism, not Bandura. c) People as scientists — Kelly’s personal construct theory. d) All — Wrong since only (a) applies.
46
46) According to Erikson’s theory, which is false? a) Ego must incorporate only adaptive ways of coping. b) If conflict at any stage unresolved, harder to adapt later. c) Strengths are interdependent. d) None of the above
A) Ego must incorporate only adaptive ways — False; ego integrates adaptive + maladaptive tendencies. b) Unresolved conflict hinders future — True. c) Strengths interdependent — True. d) None — Incorrect since (a) is false.
47
47) Which statement is true? a) Biological age = years since birth. b) Social age = cultural norms and expectations. c) Chronological age fully captures age. d) All of the above
B) Social age — Based on social roles/expectations, true. a) Biological age — Actually physiological functioning, not birth years. c) Chronological age — Only numeric, incomplete. d) All — Wrong since only (b) is fully accurate.
48
48) Who argued that environment is not the most significant factor in personality development? a) John Locke b) Galton c) Watson d) All of the above
B) Galton — Advocated heredity/innate factors over environment. a) Locke — Tabula rasa (environment). c) Watson — Behaviorism (environment). d) All — Incorrect.
49
49) According to Code of Ethics, which is false? a) Participants cannot withdraw consent once given. b) Parental consent required for infants/children. c) Longitudinal research may ask consent more than once. d) Guardian often present in child experiments.
A) Cannot withdraw consent — False; participants always retain right to withdraw. b) Parental consent — True. c) Longitudinal may ask consent multiple times — True. d) Guardian present in minors’ studies — True.
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50) Which is not true? a) Infants ready to respond to any language, but later prefer native. b) Infants below 5 months perceive color, but only weak pastel shades. c) A newborn is sensitive to touch and temperature. d) Newborns prefer sweet flavors.
B) Perceive only pastel shades — False; infants perceive a wide color range, though acuity is limited. a) Language readiness then narrowing — True. c) Sensitive to touch/temp — True. d) Preference for sweet — True.
51
51) An infant's characteristic disposition or style of approaching and reacting to situations is their a) Personality b) Temperament c) Mood d) Attachment
B) Temperament — Biologically based individual differences in reactivity and self-regulation that show relative stability over time. a) Personality — Broader pattern of traits/behaviors shaped by biology and experience. c) Mood — Transient affective state. d) Attachment — Emotional bond to caregiver.
52
52) The appropriateness of environmental demands and constraints to a child's temperament is known as _____. a) Goodness of fit b) Match-mismatch c) Bidirectionality d) Reciprocal determinism
A) Goodness of fit — Compatibility between child’s temperament and environment. (Thomas & Chess) b) Match-mismatch — Informal term, not theory. c) Bidirectionality — Two-way influence in relationships. d) Reciprocal determinism — Bandura’s person-behavior-environment model.
53
53) According to Erikson, the first stage in psychosocial development, in which infants develop a sense of the reliability of people and objects, is _____. a) Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt b) Initiative vs. Guilt c) Industry vs. Inferiority d) Trust vs. Mistrust
D) Trust vs. Mistrust — Infancy; consistent, sensitive care fosters basic trust in people and things. a) Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt — Toddlerhood; develops self-control. b) Initiative vs. Guilt — Early childhood; purpose and goal pursuit. c) Industry vs. Inferiority — Middle childhood; competence at valued skills.
54
54) A laboratory technique used to study infant attachment is the _____. a) Strange Situation b) Visual cliff c) A-not-B task d) Three-mountain task
A) Strange Situation — Ainsworth’s structured separations/reunions to classify attachment patterns. b) Visual cliff — Depth perception. c) A-not-B task — Object permanence error. d) Three-mountain task — Egocentrism measure.
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55) In the Strange Situation, a pattern in which an infant becomes anxious before the primary caregiver leaves and both seeks and resists contact on their return is _____ attachment. a) Secure b) Avoidant c) Ambivalent (resistant) d) Disorganized-disoriented
C) Ambivalent (resistant) — Clingy/distressed, then angry/resistant on reunion. a) Secure — Uses caregiver as base; is soothed on return. b) Avoidant — Little distress; avoids caregiver on return. d) Disorganized-disoriented — Confused, contradictory behaviors.
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56) The process by which an infant and caregiver communicate emotional states to each other and respond appropriately is _____. a) Social referencing b) Mutual regulation c) Attachment d) Scaffolding
B) Mutual regulation — Dyadic emotional attunement and reciprocal adjustment. a) Social referencing — Using another’s cues to guide behavior. c) Attachment — Enduring emotional bond. d) Scaffolding — Guided support for learning.
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57) The development of habits, skills, values, and motives shared by responsible members of a society is _____. a) Socialization b) Internalization c) Acculturation d) Enculturation
A) Socialization — Learning societal roles, norms, and behaviors. b) Internalization — Taking values as one’s own (a mechanism within socialization). c) Acculturation — Adapting to a different culture. d) Enculturation — Learning one’s native culture.
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58) Repeated urination in clothing or in bed is called _____. a) Encopresis b) Enuresis c) Somnambulism d) Pavor nocturnus
B) Enuresis — Repeated involuntary urination after the age when control is expected. a) Encopresis — Repeated fecal soiling. c) Somnambulism — Sleepwalking. d) Pavor nocturnus — Night terrors.
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59) The preference for using a particular hand is known as _____. a) Laterality b) Dominance c) Handedness d) Preference
C) Handedness — Tendency to prefer one hand for skilled tasks. a) Laterality — Sidedness of brain/body. b) Dominance — Broader concept, includes eye/foot preference. d) Preference — General liking, too vague.
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60) In Piaget's theory, the second major stage of cognitive development, characterized by the expansion of symbolic thought, is the _____ stage. a) Sensorimotor b) Preoperational c) Concrete operational d) Formal operational
B) Preoperational — ~2–7 years; symbolic play, language growth, egocentrism. a) Sensorimotor — Birth–2; learning through action and sensation. c) Concrete operational — 7–11; logical operations on concrete material. d) Formal operational — 11+; abstract/hypothetical reasoning.
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61) Play involving imaginary people and situations is called _____. a) Functional play b) Constructive play c) Formal play d) Pretend play
D) Pretend play — Symbolic/imaginative role play and scenarios. a) Functional play — Simple, repetitive muscle movements. b) Constructive play — Building/creating with materials. c) Formal play — Games with rules.
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62) The tendency of preoperational children to focus on one aspect of a situation and neglect others is known as _____. a) Egocentrism b) Conservation c) Centration d) Irreversibility
C) Centration — Narrow focus on one salient feature (e.g., height of liquid). a) Egocentrism — Difficulty seeing others’ perspectives. b) Conservation — Understanding quantity constancy despite appearance. d) Irreversibility — Not mentally reversing a transformation.
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63) Piaget's term for the inability to consider another person's point of view is _____. a) Centration b) Conservation c) Animism d) Egocentrism
D) Egocentrism — Self-centered perspective taking typical of preoperational thought. a) Centration — Focusing on one aspect. b) Conservation — Quantity constancy. c) Animism — Attributing life to inanimate objects.
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64) The awareness and understanding of mental processes is called _____. a) Metacognition b) Metamemory c) Theory of mind d) Executive function
C) Theory of mind — Knowing others have thoughts, beliefs, desires that may differ from one’s own. a) Metacognition — Awareness/monitoring of one’s own thinking. b) Metamemory — Insight into one’s memory processes. d) Executive function — Control processes (inhibition, shifting, working memory).
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65) Memory that produces scripts of familiar routines to guide behavior is _____ memory. a) Episodic b) Autobiographical c) Generic d) Semantic
C) Generic — Script-like memory for repeated events (e.g., “what happens at bedtime”). a) Episodic — Specific event memory. b) Autobiographical — Personal life story (emerges later). d) Semantic — Facts and concepts.
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66) Vygotsky's term for the difference between what a child can do alone and what the child can do with help is the _____. a) Zone of proximal development (ZPD) b) Scaffolding c) Guided participation d) Private speech
A) Zone of proximal development (ZPD) — The range where guidance enables higher performance. b) Scaffolding — Tailored support within the ZPD. c) Guided participation — Shared activity with more skilled partners. d) Private speech — Self-guiding talk aiding regulation.
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67) The process by which a child absorbs the meaning of a new word after hearing it once or twice in conversation is _____. a) Syntactic bootstrapping b) Fast mapping c) Overextension d) Underextension
B) Fast mapping — Rapid word–meaning linkage from minimal exposure. a) Syntactic bootstrapping — Using grammar cues to infer meaning. c) Overextension — Using a word too broadly. d) Underextension — Using a word too narrowly.
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68) The judgment a person makes about his or her own self-worth is their _____. a) Self-concept b) Self-definition c) Self-esteem d) Real self
C) Self-esteem — Global evaluative sense of worth. a) Self-concept — Descriptive knowledge about the self. b) Self-definition — Specific self-descriptors. d) Real self — One’s actual attributes (not an evaluative construct).
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69) Erikson's third stage in psychosocial development, in which children balance the urge to pursue goals with reservations about doing so, is _____. a) Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt b) Trust vs. Mistrust c) Initiative vs. Guilt d) Industry vs. Inferiority
C) Initiative vs. Guilt — Early childhood; purpose emerges as children plan/act. a) Autonomy vs. Shame — Toddlerhood self-control. b) Trust vs. Mistrust — Infancy security. d) Industry vs. Inferiority — Competence in middle childhood.
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70) Behaviors, interests, attitudes, and skills that a culture considers appropriate for each sex are _____. a) Gender roles b) Gender identity c) Gender stereotypes d) Gender typing
A) Gender roles — Cultural prescriptions/proscriptions for sex-typed behavior. b) Gender identity — One’s sense of being male/female. c) Gender stereotypes — Overgeneralized beliefs about genders. d) Gender typing — Process of adopting gendered behaviors.
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71) Preconceived generalizations about male or female role behavior are _____. a) Gender roles b) Gender stereotypes c) Gender identity d) Gender typing
B) Gender stereotypes — Fixed, often oversimplified beliefs about gender traits/behaviors. a) Gender roles — Expected behaviors by culture. c) Gender identity — Inner sense of gender. d) Gender typing — Acquisition of gendered patterns.
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72) According to Kohlberg, the awareness that one will always be male or female is called _____. a) Gender identity b) Gender stability c) Gender consistency d) Gender constancy
B) Gender stability — Recognition of permanence of sex over time. a) Gender identity — Initial labeling. c) Gender consistency — Understanding outward changes don’t alter sex. d) Gender constancy — Full understanding integrating identity + stability + consistency.
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73) According to Parten's categories of play, the type of play in which children play independently beside, rather than with, other children is _____ play. a) Solitary b) Onlooker c) Parallel d) Associative
C) Parallel — Playing side-by-side without interaction/coordination. a) Solitary — Playing alone. b) Onlooker — Watching others play. d) Associative — Sharing materials with minimal organization.
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74) The use of physical force with the intention of causing pain but not injury so as to correct or control behavior is _____. a) Physical abuse b) Power assertion c) Corporal punishment d) Inductive discipline
C) Corporal punishment — Intentional infliction of pain for discipline. a) Physical abuse — Harmful/injurious acts. b) Power assertion — Enforcing authority without explanation. d) Inductive discipline — Explaining effects on others.
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75) In Baumrind's terminology, the parenting style blending respect for a child's individuality with an effort to instill social values is _____. a) Authoritarian b) Permissive c) Authoritative d) Neglectful
C) Authoritative — High warmth, high control, fosters independence and responsibility. a) Authoritarian — High control, low warmth. b) Permissive — High warmth, low control. d) Neglectful — Low warmth, low control.
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76) Aggressive behavior used as a means of achieving a goal is _____ aggression. a) Overt b) Relational c) Hostile d) Instrumental
D) Instrumental — Goal-directed aggression to obtain something (e.g., toy, status). a) Overt — Visible, direct aggression (a form, not a motive). b) Relational — Harming social relationships. c) Hostile — Harm for its own sake.
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77) Vigorous play involving wrestling, hitting, and chasing, often accompanied by laughing and screaming, is _____ play. a) Aggressive b) Hostile c) Rough-and-tumble d) Instrumental
C) Rough-and-tumble — Playful physical activity with positive affect, not true aggression. a) Aggressive — Intent to harm. b) Hostile — Aggression for harm’s sake. d) Instrumental — Aggression used as a means to an end.
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78) A descriptive and evaluative belief about one's appearance is _____. a) Self-concept b) Self-esteem c) Body image d) Self-definition
C) Body image — Beliefs and feelings about appearance. a) Self-concept — Overall sense of self. b) Self-esteem — Self-worth. d) Self-definition — Specific traits.
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79) A chronic respiratory disease characterized by sudden attacks of coughing, wheezing, and difficulty in breathing is _____. a) Bronchitis b) Pneumonia c) Asthma d) Emphysema
C) Asthma — Recurrent airway inflammation with episodic wheeze/cough/dyspnea. a) Bronchitis — Bronchial inflammation (often infectious). b) Pneumonia — Lung parenchyma infection. d) Emphysema — Alveolar destruction (COPD).
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80) Piaget's third stage of cognitive development, during which children develop logical but not abstract thinking, is the _____ stage. a) Sensorimotor b) Preoperational c) Concrete operational d) Formal operational
C) Concrete operational — 7–11 years; logic with concrete objects/events. a) Sensorimotor — Birth–2. b) Preoperational — Symbolic thought, egocentrism. d) Formal operational — Abstract/hypothetical.
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81) The ability to order items along a dimension is known as _____. a) Transitive inference b) Class inclusion c) Seriation d) Conservation
C) Seriation — Ordering items along a quantitative dimension. a) Transitive inference — Deduce relationships indirectly. b) Class inclusion — Understanding categories/subcategories. d) Conservation — Understanding quantity constancy.
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82) Understanding the relationship between a whole and its parts is _____. a) Seriation b) Transitive inference c) Class inclusion d) Conservation
C) Class inclusion — Recognizing a subclass belongs to the larger class. a) Seriation — Ordering items by a dimension. b) Transitive inference — Inferring A>B, B>C ⇒ A>C. d) Conservation — Quantity constancy.
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83) Thinking that produces a variety of fresh, diverse possibilities is _____ thinking. a) Convergent b) Divergent c) Creative d) Critical
B) Divergent — Generating multiple novel responses/ideas. a) Convergent — Narrowing to the single best answer. c) Creative — Broader construct often involving divergent + originality + usefulness. d) Critical — Evaluative/logical appraisal.
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84) The practical knowledge needed to use language for communicative purposes is _____. a) Syntax b) Semantics c) Phonology d) Pragmatics
D) Pragmatics — Social/contextual rules for effective language use. a) Syntax — Grammar structure. b) Semantics — Word/meaning system. c) Phonology — Sound patterns.
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85) Erikson's fourth stage of psychosocial development, in which children must learn the productive skills their culture requires or else face feelings of inferiority, is _____. a) Initiative vs. Guilt b) Industry vs. Inferiority c) Identity vs. Identity Confusion d) Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
B) Industry vs. Inferiority — Mastery and competence in valued skills. a) Initiative vs. Guilt — Purposeful goal pursuit. c) Identity vs. Identity Confusion — Adolescent identity work. d) Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt — Early self-control.
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86) A transitional stage in the control of behavior in which parents exercise general supervision and children exercise moment-to-moment self-regulation is _____. a) Coregulation b) Scaffolding c) Guided participation d) Self-efficacy
A) Coregulation — Shared control shifting toward child’s self-management. b) Scaffolding — Instructional support. c) Guided participation — Shared activity in learning. d) Self-efficacy — Belief in one’s capability.
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87) Behaviors by which a child acts out emotional difficulties, such as aggression or hostility, are _____ behaviors. a) Internalizing b) Externalizing c) Prosocial d) Antisocial
B) Externalizing — Outwardly directed problems (aggression, defiance). a) Internalizing — Anxiety, depression, withdrawal. c) Prosocial — Helping, sharing. d) Antisocial — Disregard for others’ rights; a broader pattern/diagnostic term.
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88) An unfavorable attitude toward members of certain groups outside one's own is _____. a) Discrimination b) Stereotyping c) Prejudice d) Bigotry
C) Prejudice — Negative evaluative attitude toward a group. a) Discrimination — Unequal treatment/behavior. b) Stereotyping — Overgeneralized cognitive beliefs. d) Bigotry — Intolerant expression of prejudice.
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89) Aggression deliberately and persistently directed against a particular target or victim is _____. a) Hostile aggression b) Instrumental aggression c) Bullying d) Overt aggression
C) Bullying — Repeated, targeted aggression with power imbalance. a) Hostile — Harm for its own sake (not necessarily repeated/targeted). b) Instrumental — Goal-oriented aggression. d) Overt — Visible/direct aggression (form, not function).
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90) A pattern of behavior, persisting into middle childhood, marked by negativity, hostility, and defiance is _____. a) Conduct disorder (CD) b) Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) c) Generalized anxiety disorder d) Social phobia
B) Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) — Persistent angry/irritable mood and argumentative/defiant behavior. a) Conduct disorder — More severe rule/rights violations. c) GAD — Excessive worry/anxiety. d) Social phobia — Fear of scrutiny.
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91) Children who weather adverse circumstances, function well despite challenges, or bounce back from traumatic events are _____ children. a) Resilient b) Invulnerable c) Hardy d) Ego-resilient
A) Resilient — Able to adapt and recover positively. b) Invulnerable — Outdated term, implies no effect. c) Hardy — Personality trait of resilience. d) Ego-resilient — Adaptive personality style.
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92) The developmental transition between childhood and adulthood entailing major physical, cognitive, and psychosocial changes is _____. a) Puberty b) Adolescence c) Emerging adulthood d) Young adulthood
B) Adolescence — Broad developmental period encompassing puberty and psychosocial reorganization. a) Puberty — Biological maturation only. c) Emerging adulthood — 18–25 transition phase. d) Young adulthood — Early adult years.
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93) The process by which a person attains sexual maturity and the ability to reproduce is _____. a) Adolescence b) Menarche c) Spermarche d) Puberty
D) Puberty — Process of physical sexual maturation. a) Adolescence — Broader developmental stage. b) Menarche — First menstruation. c) Spermarche — First ejaculation.
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94) Physiological signs of sexual maturation that do not directly involve the sex organs are _____ sex characteristics. a) Primary b) Secondary c) Tertiary d) Ancillary
B) Secondary — E.g., body hair, breast development, voice change. a) Primary — Gonads and reproductive structures. c) Tertiary — Not a standard category. d) Ancillary — Not a standard category.
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95) A sharp increase in height and weight that precedes sexual maturity is the _____. a) Growth spurt b) Adolescent growth spurt c) Pubertal growth spurt d) Maturational growth spurt
C) Pubertal growth spurt — Rapid height/weight gain during puberty. a) Growth spurt — General term. b) Adolescent growth spurt — Similar but less precise. d) Maturational growth spurt — Not standard.
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96) Piaget's final stage of cognitive development, characterized by the ability to think abstractly, is _____. a) Concrete operations b) Formal operations c) Postformal thought d) Reflective thinking
B) Formal operations — 11+, abstract and hypothetical reasoning. a) Concrete operations — Logic about tangible events. c) Postformal — Adult extension, beyond Piaget. d) Reflective thinking — Not Piaget’s stage.
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97) The ability to develop, consider, and test hypotheses is called _____. a) Inductive reasoning b) Deductive reasoning c) Hypothetical-deductive reasoning d) Transductive reasoning
C) Hypothetical-deductive reasoning — Hallmark of formal operations: generating/testing hypotheses. a) Inductive — From specifics to general. b) Deductive — From general to specific. d) Transductive — Preoperational illogical links.
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98) The first level of Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning in which control is external and rules are obeyed to gain rewards or avoid punishment is _____ morality. a) Preconventional b) Conventional c) Postconventional d) Principled
A) Preconventional — Obedience/egoistic orientation driven by punishment/reward. b) Conventional — Conformity to social rules/law-and-order. c) Postconventional — Abstract principles/rights. d) Principled — Informal synonym sometimes used for postconventional.
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99) According to Erikson, a coherent conception of the self, made up of goals, values, and beliefs to which a person is solidly committed, is _____. a) Self-concept b) Self-esteem c) Identity d) Individuation
C) Identity — Core task of adolescence, commitment to values/goals. a) Self-concept — Broader sense of self. b) Self-esteem — Evaluation of self-worth. d) Individuation — Becoming autonomous from parents.
100
100) Erikson's fifth stage of psychosocial development, in which an adolescent seeks to develop a coherent sense of self, is _____. a) Intimacy vs. Isolation b) Identity vs. Identity Confusion c) Generativity vs. Stagnation d) Integrity vs. Despair
B) Identity vs. Identity Confusion — Adolescence; consolidation of self via commitments to roles/values. a) Intimacy vs. Isolation — Young adulthood. c) Generativity vs. Stagnation — Midlife. d) Integrity vs. Despair — Late adulthood.