1
Q
What are the different types of chemical agents?
A
- Nerve
- Blister
- Blood
- Choking
These agents are classified based on their effects on the human body.
2
Q
What detects the presence of liquid chemical agents?
A
M9 chemical agent detector paper
This paper changes color to indicate the presence of chemical agents.
3
Q
What color does M9 chemical agent detector paper turn?
A
Red or reddish color
This color change signals the presence of chemical agents.
4
Q
What is used for nerve agent casualties?
A
Atropine/2-PAM-chloride Auto Injector
This auto-injector is a critical treatment for nerve agent exposure.
5
Q
When is the MMP prepared and distributed?
A
25th of each month at O-Level and 1st of the month for I-Level
MMP stands for Monthly Maintenance Plan.
6
Q
What is the aircraft logbook?
A
A hard bound record of equipment, inspections, scheduled removal items, and installed equipment
This logbook is essential for tracking aircraft maintenance.
7
Q
What is recorded in the aircraft logbook?
A
- rework
- major repairs
- flight and operational data
- record of maintenance directives affecting aircraft, its components, and accessories
These records ensure compliance and safety in aircraft operations.
8
Q
Where is re-work maintenance performed?
A
D-Level
D-Level maintenance is typically performed at depot level.
9
Q
Where is maintenance control and where is production control performed?
A
O-level is maintenance and I-level is production
This distinction helps in organizing maintenance operations.
10
Q
Who has the overall responsibility to provide the aircrew with the best product available?
A
The person certifying a safe for flight condition
This individual ensures that all safety standards are met.
11
Q
What is the purpose of the MMP?
A
It is to provide scheduled control of the predictable maintenance workload
The Monthly Maintenance Plan helps in planning maintenance activities.
12
Q
What is conditional inspection?
A
Unscheduled events required as the result of a specific overlimit condition, or as a result of circumstances or events which create an administrative requirement for an inspection
This type of inspection is critical for safety.
13
Q
What is Phase?
A
This inspection divides the total scheduled maintenance requirement into smaller packages, or phases of the same work content
Phases are done sequentially and at specified intervals.
14
Q
What is Acceptance?
A
Performed at the time a reporting custodian accepts a newly assigned aircraft or support equipment from any source and on return of an aircraft from SDLM or other major depot level maintenance
This ensures that all equipment meets safety standards.
15
Q
What is transfer?
A
Performed at the time a reporting custodian transfers an aircraft or SE
This process is important for maintaining accurate records.
16
Q
What is turnaround maintenance?
A
Conducted between flights to ensure the integrity of the aircraft, good for 24 hours provided that no flight occurs during this period and no maintenance other than servicing was performed
This maintenance is crucial for flight safety.
17
Q
What is daily maintenance?
A
Conducted to inspect for defects to a greater depth than the turnaround, good for 72 hours provided that it is not flown for 24 hours or more
This maintenance ensures aircraft reliability.
18
Q
What is special maintenance?
A
Scheduled inspection with a prescribed interval other than daily or phase
The intervals are specified in the applicable PMS publication.
19
Q
What is upkeep maintenance?
A
Preventive, restorative, or additive work performed on aircraft, equipment, and SE by operating units and aircraft SE activities
This maintenance helps in prolonging the life of the equipment.
20
Q
List some upkeep maintenance inspections.
A
- turnaround
- daily
- special
- conditional
- phase
- acceptance
- transfer
These inspections are vital for ongoing aircraft safety.
21
Q
What maintenance is performed by an operating unit on a day to day basis in support of its own operation?
A
O-Level
O-Level maintenance is essential for routine operations.
22
Q
This maintenance is performed at or by FRC sites?
A
D-Level
D-Level maintenance is typically more extensive.
23
Q
What are the types of maintenance described in NAMP?
A
- rework
- upkeep
NAMP stands for Naval Aviation Maintenance Program.
24
Q
What is rework maintenance?
A
The restorative or additive work
This maintenance is crucial for returning equipment to operational status.
25
How many sections are in the **aircraft logbook**?
14
## Footnote
Each section serves a specific purpose in tracking aircraft history.
26
What are the sections in the **aircraft logbook**?
* non-aging record
* flight time
* inspection records
* repair/rework
* technical directive
* miscellaneous history
* preservation and de-preservation record
* installed explosive devices
* inventory record
* assembly service record
* equipment history record
* scheduled removal components cards
* aviation life support system records
* aeronautical equipment service records
## Footnote
These sections ensure comprehensive documentation of aircraft maintenance.
27
What is the concept of **quality assurance**?
Prevention of the occurrence of defects
## Footnote
QA is essential for maintaining high standards in aviation.
28
What does the achievement of **QA** depend upon?
* Prevention
* Knowledge
* Special Skills
## Footnote
These factors are critical for effective quality assurance.
29
What are the different levels of inspectors in **QA**?
* QAR – Quality Assurance Representative
* CDQAR – Collateral Duty QAR
* CDI – Collateral Duty Inspector
## Footnote
Each level has specific responsibilities in quality assurance.
30
What are the programs managed by **QA**?
* CTPL – Central Technical Publications Library
* Maintenance Department/Division Safety
## Footnote
These programs support the overall quality assurance efforts.
31
How many types of **audits** does QA perform?
3
## Footnote
Audits are essential for maintaining compliance and safety.
32
What are the **audits** QA performs?
* Special – upon request or when a new workcenter supervisor is assigned
* Workcenter – Semi-annually
* Program - annually
## Footnote
These audits help ensure ongoing compliance.
33
When did the first Navy jet make its first **carrier landing**?
10 March 1948
## Footnote
This event marked a significant milestone in naval aviation.
34
What type of jet made the first **carrier landing**?
FJ-1 Fury
## Footnote
This jet was part of the early Navy jet fleet.
35
On which **carrier** did the first jet make its landing?
USS BOXER (CV 21)
## Footnote
This carrier was significant in naval aviation history.
36
What is the significance of the **battle of Coral Sea**?
* First battle between carriers on 7-8 May 1942
* Japan vs US
* Lost the LEXINGTON
* Tactical victory for Japan but strategic loss as it never again threatened Australia
## Footnote
This battle was pivotal in the Pacific Theater.
37
What is the **birthday of Naval Aviation**?
8 May 1911
## Footnote
This date marks the establishment of naval aviation.
38
Who was the first **fatality of Naval Aviation**?
Ensign William D. Billingsley, piloting the B-2 at 1,600 feet over water near Annapolis, MD on 20 June 1913
## Footnote
His death highlighted the risks of early aviation.
39
Where was the first **Ground School program**?
MIT on 22 Oct 1917
## Footnote
This program was essential for training early aviators.
40
What was the first **carrier**?
The Jupiter, a former collier, was recommissioned after conversion as the USS LANGLEY (CV-1) on 20 March 1922
## Footnote
This carrier was the first to serve in the U.S. Navy.
41
When was the first **take-off from a ship**?
14 Nov 1910
## Footnote
This event marked a significant advancement in naval aviation.
42
Who was the **pilot** of the first take-off from a ship?
Eugene Ely, a civilian pilot
## Footnote
His pioneering flight demonstrated the potential of naval aviation.
43
What was his **aircraft**?
50-hp Curtiss plane
## Footnote
This aircraft was used for the historic flight.
44
What ship did he take off from?
USS BIRMINGHAM (CL 2) anchored in Hampton Roads, VA
## Footnote
This event was a landmark in aviation history.
45
What is a **“warning”**?
An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in injury or death if not carefully observed or followed
## Footnote
Warnings are crucial for safety.
46
What is a **“caution”**?
An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed
## Footnote
Cautions help prevent equipment failure.
47
What is a **“note”**?
An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that must be emphasized
## Footnote
Notes provide important information for safe operations.
48
Where are **aircraft markings** placed for identification?
The vertical stabilizer
## Footnote
This location is standard for aircraft identification.
49
What does **NATOPS** stand for?
Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization
## Footnote
NATOPS is essential for standardizing naval aviation procedures.
50
When was **NATOPS** established?
1961
## Footnote
This program has been crucial for naval aviation safety.
51
What does **NAMP** stand for?
Naval Aviation Maintenance Program
## Footnote
NAMP is vital for maintaining naval aviation standards.
52
When was **NAMP** started?
1959
## Footnote
This program laid the foundation for modern naval aviation maintenance.
53
What does **FRS** stand for?
Fleet Replacement Squadron
## Footnote
FRS is important for training new pilots.
54
When was the **FRS** started?
1961
## Footnote
This program has been essential for pilot training.
55
What is **ACSP**?
Aircraft Confined Space Program – ensure a safe environment is maintained when working on aeronautical equipment fuel cells and tanks
## Footnote
This program is crucial for safety during maintenance.
56
What does **NAMDRP** stand for?
Naval Aviation Maintenance Reporting Program
## Footnote
QA maintains the binder and assists with reporting substandard workmanship.
57
List **DEFCON levels** from least ready to maximum force readiness?
* 5
* 4
* 3
* 2
* 1
## Footnote
DEFCON levels indicate the readiness of U.S. military forces.
58
What does **NAMP** stand for?
Naval Aviation Maintenance Program
## Footnote
This program is essential for maintaining aviation standards.
59
Who is in charge of **NAMP**?
The CNO
## Footnote
The Chief of Naval Operations oversees the program.
60
How many levels of **NAMP** are there?
3
## Footnote
The levels include O-level, I-level, and D-level.
61
What are the **levels of NAMP**?
* O-level
* I-level
* D-level
## Footnote
Each level has specific responsibilities in maintenance.
62
What are the **FPCON levels**?
* FPCON NORMAL
* ALPHA
* BRAVO
* CHARLIE
* DELTA
## Footnote
FPCON levels indicate the security posture of military installations.
63
What FPCON level is applied when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating some form of terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely?
Charlie
## Footnote
This level indicates a heightened security threat.
64
How many **DEFCON levels** are there?
5
## Footnote
DEFCON levels indicate military readiness.
65
The personnel assigned to the **move crew** are?
* move director
* brake rider
* chock walker
* safety observers
* tractor driver
## Footnote
These roles are essential for safe aircraft movement.
66
What are a series of measures designed to increase the level of a unit’s defense against terrorist attacks?
FPCONs
## Footnote
These measures help protect military personnel and facilities.
67
How many **FPCON levels** are there?
5
## Footnote
Each level corresponds to a different threat level.
68
What is the **overrun area**?
Paved or un-paved section on the ends of the runways that provide a reasonably effective deceleration area for aborting or overshooting aircraft
## Footnote
This area is critical for aircraft safety.
69
What is the **MA-1 series overrun barrier**?
Designed to stop tricycle landing gear equipped aircraft not equipped with tail hooks
## Footnote
This barrier is always in standby status for emergencies.
70
What is **emergency shore based recovery equipment**?
Used during in-flight emergencies that require stopping the aircraft during landing in the shortest distance possible to minimize the chance of injury to pilot or aircrew and damage to the aircraft
## Footnote
This equipment is vital for safety.
71
What is the required **safety equipment** for working on the flight line?
* Flight deck safety shoes
* cranial impact helmet
* protective eye goggles
* leather gloves
## Footnote
This equipment is necessary for personal safety.
72
What is a **runway**?
Paved area that are used for aircraft takeoff and landing
## Footnote
Runways are critical for flight operations.
73
What are **threshold markings**?
Parallel stripes on the ends of the runways, 12 feet wide by 150 long, designating the landing area
## Footnote
These markings help pilots identify the landing zone.
74
How many **classes of fire** are there?
4
## Footnote
Each class requires different firefighting techniques.
75
What are the **classes of fire**?
* Alpha – combustible materials that produce an ash. Effective agents are water or AFFF
* Bravo – flammable liquid. Effective agents are AFFF, Halon 1211, Purple K Powder, and CO2
* Charlie – electrical fire. Effective agents are CO2, Halon, PKP, and H2O in fog patterns
* Delta – combustible metals. Effective agents is H2O in large quantities in high velocity fog from a distance behind shelter
## Footnote
Understanding fire classes is essential for effective firefighting.
76
How many **MOPP levels** are there?
5
## Footnote
MOPP levels indicate the level of protective measures taken.
77
What are the **MOPP Levels**?
* MOPP level 0 – Issue IPE within 5 minutes
* MOPP level 1 – IPE readily accessible
* MOPP level 2 – Mask carried, decon supplies staged
* MOPP level 3 – GQ, install filters, don over-boots
* MOPP level 4 – Don mask/hood, gloves, Circle William and countermeasure washdown
## Footnote
These levels help ensure personnel safety in hazardous environments.
78
What are the 4 elements required for a **fire**?
* fuel
* oxygen
* temperature
* chemical chain reaction
## Footnote
Removing any of these elements can extinguish a fire.
79
What are the types of **nuclear explosions**?
* high altitude air burst in excess of 100,000 feet
* air burst where fireball does not reach the surface
* surface burst (has worst fallout)
* shallow underwater burst
* deep underwater burst
## Footnote
Understanding these types is crucial for military preparedness.
80
What are the types of **shipboard shielding stations**?
* Ready shelter
* Deep shelter
## Footnote
These stations provide protection during nuclear events.
81
What does **MOPP** stand for?
Mission Oriented Protective Posture
## Footnote
MOPP is essential for ensuring personnel safety in hazardous environments.
82
What is **biological warfare**?
Use of agents to cause disease, sickness, or death to reduce the effectiveness of opposing combatant forces
## Footnote
This form of warfare poses significant ethical and strategic challenges.
83
What is **IPE**?
Individual Protective Equipment
## Footnote
IPE is essential for personnel safety in hazardous environments.
84
What are the types of **IPE**?
* MCU-2P Protective mask with components
* Advanced chemical protective garment
* chemical protective gloves and liners
* chemical protective overboots and laces
* skin decontamination kit
## Footnote
These items are crucial for protection against chemical agents.
85
What are **taxiways**?
Paved areas for aircraft to move between parking aprons, runways, and airfield services
## Footnote
Taxiways are essential for aircraft movement on the ground.
86
What are **parking aprons**?
Open paved areas adjacent to hangers, fuel, services often called the flight line. Used for parking, servicing, and loading aircraft; they are connected to the runways by taxiways
## Footnote
Parking aprons are critical for aircraft operations.
87
What is the **compass calibration pad (compass rose)**?
A paved area in a magnetically quiet area where the aircraft compass is calibrated
## Footnote
This area is essential for ensuring accurate navigation.
88
What is the **airfield rotating beacon**?
When the airport is below VFR weather conditions, day or night, the airport rotating beacon is used to identify the airport’s location
## Footnote
This beacon is crucial for pilot navigation.
89
What is the **runway numbering system**?
Runways are normally numbered in relation to their magnetic heading rounded off to the nearest 10 degrees
## Footnote
This system helps pilots identify runways.
90
To work on the flight deck of a carrier, what is the **minimum required PPE**?
* Flight deck safety shoes
* protective jersey
* cranial impact helmet
* protective eye goggles
* leather gloves
## Footnote
PPE is essential for safety on the flight deck.
91
How many different colored **jerseys** are there?
7
## Footnote
Each color represents different roles on the flight deck.
92
What are the different colored **jerseys** and what do they represent?
* Yellow – aircraft handling officer, flight deck officer, catapult officer, air bos’n, arresting gear officer and plane directors
* White – safety department, air transport officer, landing signal officer, squadron plane inspectors and medical
* Brown – Plane captains
* Blue – aircraft handling and chock crewman, and elevator operators
* Green – catapult and arresting gear personnel, squadron aircraft maintenance personnel, helicopter landing signal enlisted and photographers
* Red – crash and salvage, EOD, and ordnance handling personnel
* Purple – aviation fuel crew
## Footnote
These colors help identify roles and responsibilities on the flight deck.
93
What is the only mandatory signal for **fixed wing aircraft** regardless of type?
emergency stop
## Footnote
This signal is crucial for ensuring safety during operations.
94
What is the only mandatory signal for **rotary wing aircraft**?
* wave-off
* hold
## Footnote
These signals are essential for safe operations.
95
What is the maximum **towing speed**?
5 MPH or the speed of the slowest walker
## Footnote
This speed limit ensures safety during towing operations.
96
How many team members are required for **towing an aircraft**?
6 to 10
## Footnote
This team size is necessary for safe towing operations.
97
What is **heavy weather wind speeds**?
Above 60 knots
## Footnote
These conditions require special precautions for aircraft safety.
98
How many **chains** are required for heavy weather?
20
## Footnote
This number ensures aircraft stability in adverse conditions.
99
What are the parts of a **tie down chain**?
* S-hook
* Oversize link
* Larger radiused end
* tension bar
* tensioning unit
* release lever
## Footnote
These components are essential for securing aircraft.
100
How many chains are required for **initial tie down**?
6
## Footnote
This number is necessary for securing aircraft immediately after landing.
101
How many chains are used for **normal weather tie down**?
9
## Footnote
This ensures aircraft stability in typical weather conditions.
102
What is the wind speed for **normal weather tie down**?
Up to 45 knots
## Footnote
This threshold helps determine tie down requirements.
103
What is the wind speed for **moderate weather**?
46 to 60 knots
## Footnote
This range requires additional precautions for aircraft safety.
104
How many chains are used for **moderate weather**?
14
## Footnote
This number ensures aircraft stability in challenging conditions.
105
What is the procedure for **grounding an aircraft**?
Hook up a grounding strap to a certified statics ground then hook to the aircraft grounding receptacle
## Footnote
This procedure prevents static discharge hazards.
106
Why is **windshield static grounding** necessary?
During flight a high voltage (100,000 volts) static charge may build up and be stored in the windshield
## Footnote
Grounding prevents electrical hazards.
107
When are **initial tie down procedures** used?
Immediately prior to, in between, or immediately after flight in winds up to 45 knots
## Footnote
This procedure is critical for ensuring aircraft safety.
108
Name some **danger areas in aviation**?
* intakes
* exhaust
* flight controls
* compressed gases
* cryogenics
* explosives
* hazardous materials
* eye
* hearing
## Footnote
Awareness of these areas is crucial for safety.
109
What is **PPE**?
Personal Protective Equipment
## Footnote
PPE is essential for safety in aviation environments.
110
Types of **PPE** in aviation?
* Cranials
* Eye protection
* Hearing protection
* Impact protection
* Gloves
* Foot protection
## Footnote
These items are crucial for personnel safety.
111
What does **CBR** stand for?
Chemical, Biological and Radiological Warfare
## Footnote
CBR poses significant risks in military operations.
112
What is the significance of the **Battle of Midway**?
* Fought 3-5 Jun 1942
* Turning point of the Pacific war
* Americans had broken the code and used the HORNET, ENTERPRISE and YORKTOWN to surprise the Japanese
## Footnote
This battle was pivotal in changing the course of the war.
113
What is the significance of **Guadalcanal**?
* 13-15 November 1942, first aggression by allies in Pacific
* loss of five Sullivan brothers from Waterloo, Iowa onboard USS JUNEAU
## Footnote
This battle marked a significant shift in the Pacific Theater.
114
What are the three types of **motion** pertaining to flight?
* Acceleration – rate of change of speed/velocity
* Speed – rate of movement in terms of distance measured in allotted time
* Velocity – quickness or speed in a given time and direction
## Footnote
Understanding these concepts is essential for flight dynamics.
115
What is **Bernoulli’s principle**?
When a fluid flowing through a tube reaches a constriction or narrowing of the tube, the speed of the fluid passing through increases
## Footnote
This principle is fundamental to understanding lift in aviation.
116
What date did the **Guadalcanal** aggression by allies occur?
13-15 November 1942
## Footnote
This marked the first aggression by allies in the Pacific.
117
What was the significant loss during the **Guadalcanal** operation?
Loss of five Sullivan brothers from Waterloo, Iowa onboard USS JUNEAU
## Footnote
This incident highlighted the personal toll of war on families.
118
What are the **three types of motion** pertaining to flight?
* Acceleration
* Speed
* Velocity
## Footnote
These concepts are fundamental to understanding flight dynamics.
119
What is **Bernoulli’s principle**?
When a fluid flowing through a tube reaches a constriction, its speed increases and pressure decreases
## Footnote
This principle is crucial for understanding how lift is generated in flight.
120
What is **lift**?
The force that acts, in an upward direction, to support the aircraft in the air
## Footnote
Lift is essential for an aircraft to ascend and remain airborne.
121
What is **weight** in the context of flight?
The force of gravity acting downward on the aircraft and everything on the aircraft
## Footnote
Weight counteracts lift and is a critical factor in flight dynamics.
122
What are the **hangar fire protection requirements**?
* Low level AFFF system
* Closed head water only sprinkler system
* Optical detection system to activate AFFF
* Appropriate drainage
* Draft curtains to prevent cooling of sprinkler heads
## Footnote
These requirements ensure safety in hangar operations.
123
What is the size of **CVN hangars**?
* 110 ft wide
* 685 ft long
* 25 ft overhead clearance
## Footnote
These dimensions accommodate large naval aircraft.
124
How many different **mishap classes** are there?
3
## Footnote
Mishap classes categorize incidents based on severity and cost.
125
What defines a **class A mishap**?
Resulting total cost is $2,000,000 or more, or an injury results in a fatality or permanent disability
## Footnote
Class A mishaps are the most severe and costly.
126
What defines a **class B mishap**?
Resulting total cost is $500,000 or more but less than $2 million, or an injury results in permanent partial disability or three or more personnel are inpatient hospitalized
## Footnote
Class B mishaps indicate significant incidents but less severe than Class A.
127
What defines a **class C mishap**?
Cost is $50,000 or more but less than $500,000, a non-fatal injury causing loss of time beyond the day or shift, or a non-fatal illness causing loss of time from work
## Footnote
Class C mishaps are less severe but still significant.
128
What does **ORM** stand for?
Operational Risk Management
## Footnote
ORM is a systematic approach to managing risks in naval operations.
129
Define **ORM**.
Systematic, decision-making process used to identify and manage hazards that endanger naval resources
## Footnote
ORM helps in minimizing risks in naval operations.
130
How many steps are there in the **ORM process**?
5
## Footnote
The steps guide the risk management process effectively.
131
What are the **five steps in ORM**?
* Identify hazards
* Assess hazards
* Make risk decisions
* Implement controls
* Supervise
## Footnote
These steps form the foundation of effective risk management.
132
What is **Newton’s First Law**?
An object at rest will remain at rest, or an object in motion will continue in motion until acted upon by an outside force
## Footnote
This law describes the principle of inertia.
133
What is **Newton’s Second Law**?
The change of motion, or acceleration, will be directly proportional to the amount of force and inversely proportional to the mass of the object being moved
## Footnote
This law relates force, mass, and acceleration.
134
What is **Newton’s Third Law**?
For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction
## Footnote
This law explains the interaction of forces.
135
What is **deep frostbite**?
Develops when ice crystals are forming in the deeper tissues after exposure to a temperature of 32 degrees or lower
## Footnote
Deep frostbite can cause severe tissue damage.
136
What is **shock**?
A life-threatening medical condition whereby the body suffers from insufficient blood flow due to severe injury or illness
## Footnote
Shock requires immediate medical attention.
137
What are the different types of **shock**?
* Septic shock
* Anaphylactic shock
* Cardiogenic shock
* Hypovolemic shock
* Neurogenic shock
## Footnote
Each type of shock has distinct causes and treatments.
138
What three types of **cold weather injuries** are there?
* Hypothermia
* Superficial frostbite
* Deep frostbite
## Footnote
Understanding these injuries is crucial for prevention and treatment.
139
What is **hypothermia**?
A general cooling of the whole body caused by exposure to low or rapidly falling temperature, cold moisture, snow, or ice
## Footnote
Victims may appear pale or unconscious.
140
What is **superficial frostbite**?
When ice crystals are forming in the upper skin layers after exposure to a temperature of 32 degrees or lower
## Footnote
This condition affects only the skin's surface.
141
What are the two types of **heat injuries**?
* Heat exhaustion
* Heat stroke
## Footnote
Both conditions require prompt treatment to prevent serious complications.
142
What is **heat exhaustion**?
A serious disturbance of blood flow to the brain, heart, and lungs, with cool, moist skin and profuse sweating
## Footnote
It can lead to heat stroke if not treated.
143
What is **heat stroke**?
A very serious condition caused by a breakdown of the sweating mechanism, leading to an inability to eliminate body heat
## Footnote
Symptoms may include hot, dry skin and a weak, rapid pulse.
144
How many different **classifications of burns** are there?
3
## Footnote
Understanding burn classifications is essential for appropriate treatment.
145
What are the **three different classifications of burns**?
* First degree – Produces redness, warmth, and mild pain
* Second degree – Causes red, blistered skin and severe pain
* Third degree – Destroys tissue, skin, and bone; severe pain may be absent
## Footnote
Each classification requires different treatment approaches.
146
How many different types of **fractures** are there?
2
## Footnote
Fractures can be classified as closed/simple or open/compound.
147
What are the **3 objectives of first aid**?
* Prevent further injury
* Prevent infection
* Prevent loss of life
## Footnote
These objectives guide first aid practices.
148
What are the **4 methods of controlling bleeding**?
* Direct pressure
* Elevation
* Pressure points
* Tourniquet
## Footnote
These methods are critical in managing bleeding emergencies.
149
What are the **six categories of HAZMAT**?
* Flammable or combustible materials
* Aerosol containers
* Toxic materials
* Corrosive materials
* Oxidizing materials
* Compressed gases
## Footnote
Understanding HAZMAT categories is essential for safety and compliance.
150
What are the different types of **hangars used in Naval aviation**?
* Type I – Primarily for carrier aircraft
* Type II – US Marine Corps Aviation
* Type III – Land-based patrol and transport
## Footnote
Each hangar type serves specific operational needs.
151
What does **CPR** stand for?
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
## Footnote
CPR is a lifesaving technique used in emergencies.
152
What are the steps of **CPR**?
* C/A/B or circulation/airway/breathing
## Footnote
These steps are crucial for effective resuscitation.
153
What are the steps of the **survival chain for cardiac arrest**?
* Recognition/activation of CPR
* Chest compressions
* AED/defibrillator
* Rapid defibrillation
* Effective advanced life support
* Integrated post-cardiac arrest care
## Footnote
Each step is vital for improving survival rates.
154
What does **Patrol (VP)** refer to?
Fixed wing land-based squadrons that perform anti-submarine warfare, anti-surface warfare, reconnaissance, and mining
## Footnote
These squadrons play a key role in naval operations.
155
What does **Fleet Air Reconnaissance (VQ)** involve?
Fixed wing squadrons that provide electronic warfare support, including search, interception, recording, and analysis of radiated electromagnetic energy
## Footnote
These operations are critical for intelligence gathering.
156
What does **Aircraft Logistics Support (VR)** entail?
Fixed wing squadrons for the transport of personnel and supplies
## Footnote
These squadrons ensure logistical support for naval operations.
157
What does **Carrier Logistics Support (VRC)** involve?
Fixed wing squadrons that transport personnel and supplies for carrier onboard delivery
## Footnote
This support is essential for carrier operations.
158
What is **drag**?
The force that tends to hold an aircraft back
## Footnote
Understanding drag is important for aircraft design and performance.
159
What is **thrust**?
The force developed by the aircraft’s engine, acting in the forward direction
## Footnote
Thrust is necessary for an aircraft to move forward.
160
How many **axes** does a plane have?
3
## Footnote
The axes are crucial for understanding aircraft movement.
161
What are the three axes of a plane?
* Vertical – Yaw
* Longitudinal – Roll
* Lateral - Pitch
## Footnote
Each axis corresponds to a specific type of movement.
162
On a fixed wing, what movable surfaces cause and control movement or rotation about the three axes?
* Ailerons – Roll
* Elevators – Pitch
* Rudder – Yaw
## Footnote
These surfaces are essential for controlling flight.
163
On a rotary wing, what movable surfaces cause and control movement or rotation about the three axes?
* Cyclic Stick – Roll and Pitch
* Tail rotor – Yaw
## Footnote
These controls are vital for helicopter maneuverability.
164
Name some **non-axis affecting flight controls**.
* Flap – Extra lift
* Spoiler – Spoils wing lift
* Speed brakes – Reduces speed of aircraft
* Slants – Increases lateral control handling
## Footnote
These controls enhance aircraft performance.
165
What does **collective** mean in aviation?
The main rotor of a helicopter consists of two or more rotor blades; lift may be changed by collectively increasing the angle of attack or pitch of the rotor blades
## Footnote
Collective control is crucial for helicopter flight.
166
What is **Angle of Attack**?
The angle at which the airfoil or fuselage meets a flow of air
## Footnote
This angle is critical for lift generation.
167
What is **autorotation**?
A method of allowing a helicopter to land safely from altitude without using engine power
## Footnote
Autorotation is a key emergency procedure for helicopters.
168
What absorbs the shock that otherwise would be sustained by the airframe?
Shock Strut Assembly
## Footnote
This component is essential for aircraft landing gear.
169
What is used to slow and stop the aircraft, and also to prevent the aircraft from rolling while parked?
Wheel Brake Assembly
## Footnote
Effective braking systems are critical for aircraft safety.
170
What does **NALCOMIS** stand for?
Naval aviation logistics command management information system
## Footnote
NALCOMIS is vital for managing naval aviation logistics.
171
What does **OOMA** stand for?
Optimized organizational maintenance activity
## Footnote
OOMA is essential for maintenance management in naval aviation.
172
What are the **modules on the OOMA server**?
* Maintenance
* Material
* Flight
* Platform software interface
* CM/Logs and records
## Footnote
These modules support various aspects of naval aviation operations.
173
What does **Air Test and Evaluation (VX/VXE)** involve?
Fixed wing squadrons that test and evaluate the operational capabilities of new aircraft and equipment in an operational environment
## Footnote
This process ensures that new technologies meet operational standards.
174
How often are **HAZMAT storage locations** inspected?
Weekly and quarterly
## Footnote
Regular inspections are crucial for safety and compliance.
175
What is the **MSDS**?
Material Safety Data Sheet
## Footnote
MSDS provides essential information about hazardous materials.
176
How many categories of **HAZMAT** are there?
Six
## Footnote
Understanding these categories is essential for safety and compliance.
177
What is prefilled based on the type of **WO** selected?
Type maintenance
## Footnote
This ensures that the correct maintenance procedures are followed.
178
What is a two character code that describes the type of **maintenance** to be performed?
Type WO
## Footnote
This code is essential for tracking maintenance activities.
179
What is the **history of the WO** from start to finish?
Accumulated Job Status History
## Footnote
This history is important for accountability and tracking.
180
What do **Worker Hours** include?
* Workers name
* Tools used
* QA/CDI inspected them
* And hours worked
## Footnote
This information is critical for maintenance records.
181
What does **Tactical Electronic Warfare (VAQ)** involve?
Fixed wing squadrons that tactically exploit, suppress, degrade, and deceive enemy electromagnetic defensive and offensive systems
## Footnote
This capability is crucial for modern warfare.
182
What does **Carrier Airborne Early Warning (VAW)** provide?
Fixed wing carrier-based squadrons that provide early warning against weather, missiles, shipping, and aircraft
## Footnote
Early warning systems are vital for naval operations.
183
What does **Fleet Composite (VC)** entail?
Fixed wing utility squadrons providing air services for the fleet such as simulations and target towing
## Footnote
These squadrons support various fleet operations.
184
What does **Strike fighter (VFA)** refer to?
Fixed wing squadrons employed for both fighter and attack missions
## Footnote
VFA squadrons are versatile in combat roles.
185
What does **OOMA** track?
* NMCS/PMCS status
* Flyable discrepancies
* Non-aircraft related discrepancies
* ALSS status
* SE status
* Mission Mounted Equipment (MME) status
## Footnote
Tracking these statuses is essential for operational readiness.
186
What is the **9 character alphanumeric code** that is the basis for data collection?
JCN
## Footnote
This code is crucial for identifying work orders.
187
What is a numeric or alpha-numeric code that identifies the **system or subsystem** of the malfunction?
Work Unit Code
## Footnote
This code helps in diagnosing and tracking issues.
188
What are the **core capabilities of Naval Aviation**?
* Forward presence
* Deterrence
* Sea Control
* Power Projection
* Maritime Security
* Humanitarian Assistance/Disaster Relief
## Footnote
These capabilities define the strategic role of naval aviation.
189
What is the primary mission of **Helicopter Sea Combat (HSC)**?
Perform rescue, logistics, mine countermeasures, and combat search and rescue
## Footnote
HSC squadrons are critical for various operational missions.
190
What is the primary mission of **Helicopter Maritime Strike (HSM)**?
Antisubmarine and anti-surface warfare, with secondary roles of logistics and rescue
## Footnote
HSM squadrons play a vital role in maritime security.
191
What is the primary mission of **Helicopter Training (HT)**?
Basic and advanced training of student Naval Aviators in rotary wing
## Footnote
Training is essential for developing skilled aviators.
EAWS
flashcards
Decks in class (22)
# Cards
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EAWS191
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MH60-R 1-9134
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CC BLOCK 118
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CC BLOCK 2 & 317
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CC BLOCK 1-19153
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CC BLOCK 46
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CC BLOCK 511
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CC BLOCK 613
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CC BLOCK 711
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CC BLOCK 815
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CC BLOCK 914
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CC BLOCK 1016
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CC BLOCK 1112
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CC BLOCK 1213
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CC BLOCK 136
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CC BLOCK 1415
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CC BLOCK 1511
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CC BLOCK 1613
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CC BLOCK 175
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CC BLOCK 189
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CC BLOCK 1914
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Board146
