GI 1 Flashcards

(42 cards)

1
Q

What is the most important part of the GI workup?

A

A thorough history

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2
Q

What is the difference between dietary indiscretion and dietary intolerance?

A

Dietary indiscretion:
- Recent and sudden diet change

  • Feeding a low-quality poorly digestible diet
  • Usually acute

Dietary intolerance:
- Considered an “allergy”

  • Inability to digest or difficult digestion
  • Usually chronic
  • Usually no urgency markers
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3
Q

What is the most common cause of dysphagia?

A

Oral, laryngeal, or upper esophageal disease

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4
Q

What is considered acute GIT upset?

A

Persistent for several days (often self-limiting)

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5
Q

What is considered chronic GIT upset?

A

Lasting more than 2-3 weeks

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6
Q

Name seven differentials for regurgitation

A
  • Megaesophagus
  • Esophagitis
  • Hiatal hernia
  • Ring anomalies
  • GERD
  • Neoplasia
  • Foreign body
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7
Q

List eight primary GIT conditions

A
  • Dietary indiscretion
  • Dietary allergy
  • Foreign body
  • Anaphylaxis (dogs)
  • Chronic enteropathy (IBD)
  • Infectious (Campylobacter, Clostridium, Salmonella, Helicobacter, parvovirus)
  • HGE
  • Neoplasia
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8
Q

List eight secondary GIT conditions

A
  • Acute or chronic pancreatitis (dogs)
  • Addison’s (especially poodles)
  • GDV or other torsions (colic, mesentery)
  • Peritonitis (bile vs. uroabdomen vs. GI perf/septic)
  • Hyperthyroidism
  • DKA
  • Prostatitis or pyometra
  • Hepatic encephalopathy
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9
Q

True or False: GI ulcers are common in dogs and cats

A

False

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10
Q

When can you consider a therapeutic trial for cases of vomiting, diarrhea, and anorexia?

A

If there are no GI urgency markers

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11
Q

Name the 8 GI urgency markers that would warrant diagnostics

A
  • Unstable patient (hypovolemia, hypotension, hypoperfusion)
  • Marked or rapid weight loss
  • Abdominal pain
  • Hypoproteinemia
  • Abdominal effusion
  • Prolonged anorexia (> 1-2 days in cats)
  • Intractable (uncontrollable) vomiting
  • Age (not absolute but may be more urgent in geriatric patient)

If you have one or more of the following - work up the patient

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12
Q

Name three markers that are not necessarily indicative of an urgent GI workup

A
  • Chronic vomiting
  • Chronic diarrhea
  • Acute hematochezia
    If no other urgency markers are present, therapeutic trials can be considered
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13
Q

What is the most common cause of vomiting and diarrhea in cats and dogs?

A

Due to something they eat!

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14
Q

What are the six steps of therapeutic treatment for acute GIT disorders?

A
  1. Check for urgency markers
  2. Eliminate simple diseases (ex. parasitic)
  3. Eliminate dietary factors (try a diet trial)
  4. Treat symptoms/consequences (nausea, dysbiosis)
  5. Hydration (stable patients with no urgency markers are allowed to be dehydrated)
  6. Follow up with more diagnostics if this does not resolve
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15
Q

When should you use a GIT diet versus an elimination diet?

A
  • GIT is for acute conditions (bland diets, GI LF)
  • Elimination diet (ex. HA, d/d) is for chronic conditions
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16
Q

True or False: The efficacy of metronidazole in the use of acute diarrhea has never been proven

A

True

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17
Q

Which medication should be used for anti-parasite treatment for young cats and dogs?

A

Fenbendazole (treats roundworms, hookworms, whipworms, and Giardia)

18
Q

When can you use an NPO trial?

A

Only for cases of acute vomiting that have no GI urgency markers

NOT for acute diarrhea

19
Q

What are the steps to an NPO trial?

A

Goal is to “reset” the GIT

  1. NPO for 12 hours (no food or water)
  2. Give SMALL amounts of water every 2 hours for 6 hours
  3. Give SMALL amounts (meatballs, teaspoons) of GI diet in 4-6 meals per day for 2-3 days
  4. If desired, reintroduce old diet gradually over several days

If there is vomiting at any point over the NPO trial, do further diagnostics

20
Q

True or False: Sucralfate and antacids are almost never a good use for GIT symptoms

A

True. There is almost never a use for antacids or sucralfate for GIT conditions. These are for the treatment of GI ulcers which animals rarely get.

21
Q

What conditions are the exception to using antacids for?

A
  • Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
  • Esophagitis
  • GI ulceration
22
Q

Which commonly prescribed medications for GIT conditions have no actual proof of efficacy?

A

Famotidine and sucralfate (plus it makes cats vomit)

23
Q

When can you consider sending a patient home with SQ fluids?

A

If patient is ≤ 5% dehydrated or ≤ 25 kg

24
Q

What should you do if a therapeutic trial fails?

A
  1. Consider medical imaging (radiographs or ultrasound)
  2. Consider a CBC/Chem/urinalysis panel
  3. Consider GI panel and endocrine testing
25
What are the four main causes of dysphagia?
- Severe periodontal disease (usually with abscessation) - Oral/pharyngeal masses - Congenital disease (cricopharyngeal dysphagia or megaesophagus) - Neurologic diseases (botulism)
26
What are the natural protective mechanisms dogs and cats have against reflux (five)?
- LES - Gravity - Esophageal motility - Bicarbonate in saliva - Mucous layer (locally produced)
27
What is gastric reflux?
The backflow of gastric acid into the esophagus
28
What can gastric reflux lead to?
Esophagitis
29
What are the general risk factors for gastric reflux (four)?
- Anesthetic agents (anticholinergics, acepromazine, diazepam, narcotics) - Certain drugs (tetracyclines and clindamycin in cats) - Changes in barrier between esophagus and stomach (ex. LES issue, hiatal hernia, GERD, vomiting) - Prolonged fasting (> 24 hours)
30
What are the clinical signs of esophagitis?
- Anorexia - Ptyalism - Regurgitation - Retching - Repeated swallowing motion/gagging/gulping - Coughing/aspiration pneumonia - Lethargy - Weight loss - Cats vocalizing loudly after eating
31
What can esophagitis lead to?
Esophageal dilation (not the same as megaesophagus) or strictures
32
How can esophagitis be treated?
- Proton pump inhibitors (omeprazole or pantoprazole) - Cisapride (prokinetic) - Liquid sucralfate - Metoclopramide
33
What is a hiatal hernia?
The repeated protrusion of abdominal contents into the thorax through the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm
34
Which breed has a congenital component of hiatal hernias?
Bulldogs and other brachycephalic dogs
35
What main effect does a hiatal hernia cause?
Reduced LES tone
36
How can hiatal hernias be treated (five)?
- Surgical treatment (hiatal plication) - PPIs - Low fat diet (quicker GI emptying) - Prokinetics (ranitidine, erythromycin, cisapride, metoclopramide) - LES tone modification (cisapride)
37
What indicates a poorer prognosis of hiatal hernias?
Repeated aspiration pneumonia
38
What is the most common cause of regurgitation in dogs?
Megaesophagus
39
What are some causes of secondary acquired megaesophagus?
- Myasthenia gravis (25% of secondary cases) - Addison’s - Hypothyroidism - Chronic esophagitis - Neoplasia
40
How can megaesophagus be treated?
- Raised feedings - Encourage esophageal emptying (maintain elevation for 10 minutes after eating) - Prevention of weight loss (feed smaller multiple meals, feed GI diets) - +/- broad-spectrum antibiotics and oygen if aspiration pneumonia is present
41
True or False: Prokinetics should be used in the treatment of megaesophagus
False. There is no proven benefit to prokinetic drugs like metoclopramide and cisapride since they are smooth muscle prokinetics and the canine esophagus is made of striated muscle. This may work in cats though as their esophagus is made of some smooth muscle.
42
What indicates a poorer prognosis of megaesophagus?
Acquired idiopathic megaesophagus due to repeated episodes of aspiration pneumonia