1
Q
What will you be able to do with an Instrument rating?
*reference FAR: 61.133 Privileges and limitations
A
- The ability to fly in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC) as well as LIFR.
- Fly solely by reference to instruments for maneuvers and navigation.
*operate in class A airspace, operate below VFR minimums, and the ability to file an IFR flight plan.
*cannot carry passengers for hire on cross country flights for over 50 NM or carry passengers at night in IFR conditions.
2
Q
What constitutes VFR, MVFR, IFR, and LIFR conditions?
A
VFR: Ceiling greater than 3,000’ and or visibility greater than 5 SM.
MVFR: Ceiling 1,000’ - 3,000’ and or visibility greater than 3-5 miles.
IFR: Ceiling 500’ - 1,000’ and or visibility of 1 - 3 miles.
LIFR: Ceiling of below 500’ and or visibility of less than 1 mile.
3
Q
What is the instrument cert/rating eligibility FAR?
*the four pillars are written within it.
A
61.65
4
Q
What FAR will you reference for logging instrument time?
A
61.51
5
Q
Flight time needs to be logged when?
A
Any flight time that is flown which will be considered as required towards a cert, recency, or an add on.
6
Q
What is the medical cert FAR?
A
61.23
7
Q
When is a third class required?
A
To exercise the privileges of a student, recreational, or private pilot.
8
Q
When is a second class required?
A
To exercise the privileges of a commercial pilot certification.
9
Q
When is a First class required?
A
To exercise the privileges of an airline pilot.
10
Q
Med durations for First, Second, and Third class. (Under 40)
A
First class:
- Valid for 12 months as 1st and 2nd class.
- Valid for 60 months as a third class.
Second Class:
- Valid for 12 months as a 2nd class.
- Valid for 60 months as a 3rd class.
Third Class:
- Valid for 60 months
11
Q
Med durations for First, Second, and Third class. (Over 40)
A
First Class:
- Valid for 1st class for 6 months.
- Valid for 2nd class for 12 months.
- Valid for 3rd class for 24 months.
Second Class:
- Valid for 2nd class for 12 months.
-Valid for 3rd class for 24 months.
Third Class:
- Valid for 3rd class for 24 months.
12
Q
When was basic med established?
A
July of 2016
13
Q
What is the Basic Med AC?
A
AC-68-1
14
Q
What are the limitations of a Basic Med pilot?
A
- No plane that weighs over 12,500 pounds.
- Carry 7 occupants in total. 6 passengers and one pilot.
- Fly below 18,000’ MSL.
- 250 kts and below
- No flights for compensation or hire.
15
Q
Instrument experience to act as pilot in command FAR?
A
61.57
16
Q
What recency items must a pilot have done within the last 6 calendar months to act as PIC of an instrument flight.
A
- Six instrument approaches
- Six holding procedures and tasks
- Six intercepts and tracking of courses through the use of navigational and tracking courses.
17
Q
Can recency requirements be accomplished in a qualified flight sim?
A
Yes
18
Q
What is the grace period for recency?
A
6 calendar months
- you have 6 months and then an additional 6 calendar months before you will need to complete and instrument check to re-qualify
19
Q
What is an aircraft category?
A
Airplane, rotorcraft, powered lift, glider, lighter than air, etc.
20
Q
What is the AC for flying in icing conditions?
A
AC-91-74
21
Q
What is one of the greatest hazards in flight?
A
Icing or Wind Shear
22
Q
What is ice that forms on the exterior of the aircraft called?
A
Structural icing
23
Q
Will the wings or the tail section accumulate ice first?
A
Tail section
24
Q
Ice will form on the small narrow parts of the aircraft first. True or false?
A
True
25
What is ice called that forms in the intake or on the inside of the engine called?
Induction icing.
26
Carb icing is caused by what type of icing?
Induction icing
27
Icing can occur in temps as high as?
70 degrees fahrenheit
28
What are the three types of icing?
Rime: Rough, milky, opaque. Instant freezing of supercooled droplets.
*low temps, less liquid, low speed
Clear: slow freezing of a supercooled droplet. Dense, hard, transparent.
*temps close to freezing, large amounts of water, high speeds, large droplets
Mixed: combination of both rime and clear.
29
What are the different icing reporting intensities?
Trace: 1/4 inch accumulation an hour.
Light: 1/4 - 1 inch accumulation an hour.
Moderate: 1 - 3 inch accumulation an hour.
Severe: anything over 3 inches of ice accumulation per hour.
30
What are the effects of icing on airfoils?
Alters the shape of the airfoil, reduces coefficient of lift.
-Increases drag
-Increases stall speed
*icing effects may be less noticeable at lower angles of attack.
31
What happens when ice forms on the tail of the plane?
The nose will drop.
*deploying the flaps will make things worse by increasing the nose down pitch.
*Increasing speed is also not a good idea for the same reason.
32
What are the indicators of a tailplane stall?
- Elevator control vibration.
- Abnormal nose down change or uncommanded nose drop.
- Reduction in elevator effectiveness.
- Sudden change in elevator force (feeling heavier).
33
What do you do in a tailplane stall?
- Retract flaps and apply nose up elevator.
- Increase airspeed to counter the flap retraction.
- Slowly control for nose down pitch.
- Operate driving system if available.
34
What happens when Ice develops on the propeller?
- reduction in thrust.
*greatest amount of thrust will be found nearest the spinner.
*the ice can ed up in the induction system since the intake vents are close by.
35
What are some other systems on the plane that are susceptible to icing?
windshield, pitot tube, static ports, antenna, stall warning system, propeller, control surface.
36
In one word, describe anti icing use?
Preventative
37
In one word, describe de-icing use?
Removal
38
Airfoil icing protection systems?
de-icing boots
Thermal anti ice leading edge
Weeping wing
39
when should boots be used?
Immediately until all ice has been removed.
40
What are the pitot static systems?
Airspeed indicator
Altimeter
Vertical Speed Indicator
41
What does the pitot tube measure?
Ram Air
42
What are the three needles on the altimeter and their altitude measures?
100’s of feet = long skinny
1,000’s of feet = short fat
10,000’s of feet = middle thin
43
What is the altimeters purpose?
to indicate height of aircraft above a reference point.
*if calibrated correctly that will be the current altimeter setting at sea level.
44
Altimeter principle of operation flow chart:
Altitude increases, outside pressure decreases, static pressure ports send lower pressure inside instrument, pressure inside sealed wafer remains the same, wafer expands, mechanical linkages show the altitude increase.
*same thing happens but opposite for descent.
45
How much can the altimeter be off from field elevation once properly set?
75’
46
What is the pressure lapse rate?
1” per 1,000 feet
47
What happens to your altimeter when you go from high pressure to low pressure?
it will report higher altitude than you actually are (High to Low, Look Out Below).
*note that flying through warm air is the same as flying through low altitude.
48
What indication is presented by the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator?
Indirect indication of bank attitude.
rate of turn and rate of roll.
49
Errors in both pitch and bank indication on the attitude indicator are usually at a maximum as the aircraft rolls out of a (what degree turn)?
180 degree turn
50
When aircraft is accelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and will incorrectly indicate?
A climb
51
If an aircraft is departing an airport where a pilot cannot obtain an altimeter setting, the pilot should set the altimeter to?
Airport elevation
52
The PFD receives attitude and heading data from the?
AHRS
53
Rate of turn can be increased and the radius of turn decreased by?
decreasing airspeed and increasing bank.
54
There are two primary methodologies when approaching instrument flying?
Control and performance
Primary and supporting
55
Instrument flying requires three skills in a specific order?
Cross check: look at all the instruments on a regular basis
Instrument interpretation
Aircraft control
56
What is Attitude?
the relationship between pitch and roll to the earths horizon.
57
What is power?
the relationship between thrust and drag.
58
What do control instruments do?
Display immediate attitude and power indications.
*attitude indicator, RPM gauge/Manifold pressure gauge, or turn coordinator
59
what do performance instruments do?
indicate actual performance once control inputs have been set.
* airspeed, altimeter, vertical speed indicator
60
What do the navigation instruments do?
Indicate the position of the aircraft in relationship to navigational aids.
61
How do you perform the control and performance method?
Establish an attitude and power setting
Trim for hands off flight (remember: pitch, power, trim)
Cross check instruments to check everything over
Make any necessary adjustments
62
What are the attitude instruments?
turn coordinator and attitude indicator
63
what are the power instruments?
-RPM gauge
-Manifold Pressure Gauge (for constant speed propellors)
-Oil temp/pressure
-cylinder head temp
-fuel quantity and flow gauges
-Airspeed indicator
Power instruments refer to those indicating engine performance and aircraft speed.
64
What three instruments should be checked when setting trim?
Attitude indicator, Turn coordinator, and RPM gauge.
*cross check to make sure airspeed and vertical speed are reading where you want them to be.
*make adjustments
65
At what point in flight is the magnetic compass most reliable?
Straight and level unaccelerated flight.
66
What are the two types of compass errors?
Turning
Acceleration
67
What are the two turning errors?
UNOS: undershoot north overshoot south
*Undershoot North: compass lags when turning towards northerly headings.
*Overshoot South: compass leads when turning towards southerly headings.
*Note: in the direction of the turn.
68
What are the compass Acceleration errors?
ANDS
Accelerate North
Decelerate South
*Note that this only happens when on a east or west heading.
69
What causes the northerly turning error in a magnetic compass?
The magnetic dip characteristic
70
What indications are directly displayed by the miniature aircraft of a turn coordinator?
Rate of turn and rate of roll
71
When initiating a left turn in the northern hemisphere from a heading of 270, the magnetic compass will?
initially indicate the actual rate of turn.
72
Displacement of the miniature airplane during a coordinated turn on a turn coordinator will?
increase as rate of turn increases.
73
On what headings will the magnetic compass read most accurately during a level 360 degree turn with a bank of 15 ish degrees?
90 and 270 degrees
74
To level off from a descent to a specific altitude, the pilot should lead the level off by how much?
10 percent of the vertical speed
in other words, 10% of the rate of descent.
75
To level off from a turn on a specific heading a pilot should begin rolling out how many degrees ahead of time?
Half the bank angle of the turn
76
What does the miniature aircraft on the turn coordinator directly display?
rate of roll and rate of turn
77
what are the power instruments?
Airspeed indicator and RPM gauge
78
What is ground speed?
TAS corrected for wind
79
True course?
Direction the airplane is moving
80
True heading?
Direction the nose is pointing.
*remember that for wind correction (for example) you will need to be crabbing to get the magenta diamond over the bugged course to maintain that direction. so your nose will be pointed away from the direction of flight.
81
In order to assist with dead reckoning what kind of navigational assets are used?
Ground base navigational aids
82
What systems make up ground based navigation?
VOR and DME
*VOR: Very High Frequency Omni Directional Range (operates on 108.0 to 117.95 frequency ranges)
*DME: Distance Measuring Equipment
83
How many radials do ground stations transmit?
360 degrees
84
How are radials referenced/calibrated?
Magnetic direction FROM the station
*the station is the lighthouse and the signals like the light on the lighthouse radiate out.
*Note also that a radial is not the same thing as a heading.
85
What are VOR's used for?
determining current position
navigating from station to station
86
What is a CDI?
Course Deviation Indicator: used to indicate aircraft location in relation to the radial/course
87
What do you use on the instrument to select a radial?
the OBS
88
What does the flag do on the VOR?
indicates TO or FROM
89
What does each dot represent on the course deviation scale?
2 degrees for every dot
90
True or false. For every position of the aircraft, the VOR can either display a TO or a FROM indication?
True
91
Can an HSI experience reverse sensing?
No
92
What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by a full scale deflection of the CDI?
10 degrees
93
What is considered to be station passage when using VOR?
the first complete reversal of the TO FROM indicator
94
After passing a VORTAC, the CDI shows 1/2 scale deflection to the left. What is indicated if the deflection remains the same?
The airplane is flying away from the radial
95
What is an HSI?
Horizontal Situational Indicator = a combination of a VOR and a heading indicator.
*If both the White Flag and the Green Arrow are pointing in the same direction you are going TO the station.
96
Where does the flag always point?
Towards the station
97
What does the 60:1 rule state?
From 60 NM away, 1 degree of deviation equals a 1 NM displacement
From 30 NM away, 1 degree of deviation equals a 1/2 NM displacement
98
How often does the VOR need to be inspected in order to fly IFR?
30 days as per 91.171
99
What goes into the maintenance log once the VOR has been inspected?
Date and place
Bearing error
Pilot signature
100
What are the three ways to check a VOR?
1. VOT (VOR test facility)
2. Certified checkpoints on airport surface
3. Certified airborne checkpoints
101
Where are VOT checkpoints found?
Chart supplement
102
What is the procedure to perform a VOT check?
Tune correct frequency
Turn the OBS to read 360 or 180
If 360 the indicator should be FROM
If 180 the indicator should be TO
103
If a certified checkpoint is used to test VOR what is the allowed degree discrepancy?
+/- 4 on the ground
+/- 6 in the air
104
How do you check a dual VOR system?
Check them against each other
Turn both to the same VOR and center the needle on both, the bearings should be within 4 degrees of each other
105
What are the limitations of the VOR?
-line of sight
-cone of confusion
-region of ambiguity: when you are perpendicular to a radial and abeam of the station
-reverse sensing
106
What does DME do?
displays the distance between the DME station on the ground and the plane. This is called Slant Range.
107
How do you minimize slant range error?
you should be one or more miles away from the facility for every 1,000' in altitude.
108
What is indicated if you hear the morse code identifier over the VOR frequency every 30 seconds, but nothing else?
VOR is inop., but the DME is active
109
For operations off established airways at 17,000' MSL in the contiguous US, H class VORTAC facilities used to define a direct route of flight should be no more than how far apart?
200 NM
110
The greatest DME indication error between actual ground distance and displayed ground distance occurs at?
High altitudes close to the VORTAC
111
What are the phases of IFR flight?
Preflight
Departure
Enroute
Approach
112
Alcohol and drug FAR?
91.17
113
Preflight action FAR?
91.103 (NWKRAFT)
114
What does 91.7 say about PIC responsibility and the state of the plane?
*no person may operate a civil aircraft unless it is in an airworthy condition.
*PIC is responsible for determining whether the aircraft is in a condition for safe flight.
115
What FAR says that the POH/AFM and all manufacturer placards must be in the plane and visible?
91.9
116
What FAR says that the plane needs its airworthiness cert and registration?
91.203
*registration is valid for 7 years
117
What FAR does ATOMATOFFLAMES, FLAPS, and GRABCARD come from?
91.205
118
Above 24,000' MSL what must you have equipped?
DME or suitable RNAV system
119
What is the Inop. equipment FAR?
91.213
120
IF you are going to fly with inoperative equipment remember to?
Remove or deactivate
Placard it as inop
Record it in the maintenance record
Determine that the equipment removed does not constitute a hazard
121
91.207 says that an ELT needs to be inspected how often?
12 calendar months
122
91.411 says that the static pressure system needs to be inspected how often? (Altimeter instrument and automatic pressure altitude reporting system)
24 calendar months
123
91.413 says that the transponder needs to be inspected how often?
24 calendar months
124
What is the transponder FAR?
91.215
125
What is the seatbelt FAR?
91.105
126
What is the aircraft speed FAR?
91.117
127
Below 10,000' MSL or in class B airspace how fast can you go?
250 kts
128
At or below 2,500' AGL and within 4 NM of the primary airport of class C or D airspace, how fast can you go?
200 kts
129
In airspace underlying class B or in a VFR corridor through class B airspace area, how fast can you go?
200 kts
130
When flying below 18,000' MSL what is the farthest station you can get your altimeter setting from?
100 NM
*FAR 91.121
131
When can you deviate from ATC instruction/clearances?
An amended clearance is obtained
An emergency exists
The deviation is in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory
132
How long does the alcohol from one beer last in the body?
3 hours
133
An aircrafts transponder is inoperative. In order to enter class B airspace pilot must submit a request for a deviation from the?
Controlling ATC authority at least 1 hour before flight
134
To what office should the conviction for driving while intoxicated be reported?
The security and investigations division
135
The most current regulations can be looked up at the?
Electronic code of federal regulations on the GPO access website
*ECFR.gov is also a great resource
136
What is the maximum IFR altitude a pilot may fly in an unpressurized aircraft without providing passengers with supplemental oxygen?
15,000' cabin pressure altitude
137
A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting capability is required in all controlled airspace:
(except for D and E unless?? Think height...)
At and above 10,000' MSL, excluding at and below 2,500' AGL.
138
The aircrafts transponder fails within Class D airspace, what is the procedure?
Nothing. A transponder is not required inside class D airspace.
139
What are the two types of approaches?
Precision
Non-precision
140
What is a precision approach?
An approach that provides lateral and vertical guidance to certain minima
141
What is a Non-precision approach?
An approach that provides only lateral guidance to certain minima
142
A pilot operating under IFR shall follow all private pilot regulations unless?
They are not applicable
They are superseded
143
What are the IFR fuel requirements?
Complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing.
Fly from that airport to an alternate, if that alternate is required.
Fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
144
When do you need an alternate?
(there are three reasons)
(FAR 91.169)
The destination airport does not have a standard instrument approach procedure.
The FAA has not issued the operator a special instrument approach procedure
Weather reports and forecasts indicate that, from 1 hour before and 1 hour after the ETA, the ceiling will be less than 2,000' AGL or the visibility will be less than 3 SM.
145
What qualifies an alternate as useable?
The ceiling and visibility meet the minima specified:
*Precision Approach - Greater than 600 AGL and greater than 2 SM
*Non-precision Approach - Greater than 800 AGL and greater than 2 SM
146
What additional equipment is required for IFR as layed out in 91.205?
(GRABCARD)
GRABCARD
Generator/Alternator
Rate of turn indicator
Altimeter
Ball and Slip indicator
Clock
Attitude indicator
Radio
Directional Gyro
147
For an airplane, determine the weather minimum conditions required at the destination airport to avoid listing an alternate on an IFR flight plan.
From 1 hour before to 1 hour after estimate ETA at destination the forecast ceiling is 2,000' or higher and visibility of 3 miles or greater
148
Aircraft being operated under IFR are required to have, in addition to equipment required for VFR day and night at least a VOR, flux capacitor, or a slip skid indicator?
A slip skid indicator
149
What are the alternate minimums for an airport with a precision approach procedure?
Greater than 600' ceiling and greater than 2 miles visibility
150
Where is DME (or a suitable RNAV system) required under IFR?
At or above 24,000' MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required.
151
What is the procedure if the DME malfunctions at or above 24,000' MSL?
After immediately notifying ATC, you may continue to the next airport of intended landing where repars can be made.
152
What equipment do you need to operate in class B airspace in IFR?
VOR or TACAN or RNAV system
153
FAR 91.173 states that no person may operate in controlled airspace under IFR unless?
Filed an IFR flight plan 30 minutes prior to ETD
Received an appropriate ATC clearance
154
What does the Minimum Enroute Altitude (MEA) provide you?
Adequate reception of relevant NAV aids, ATC communication, and obstacle clearance
155
What is the acronym that describes the lowest altitude at a certain fix at which the aircraft must cross?
Minimum Crossing Altitude (MCA)
156
What are the minimum altitudes as prescribed by FAR 91.177?
- The applicable minimum altitudes, provided the navigational aids are available are:
*Mountainous: 2,000' above the highest obstacle within a 4 NM horizontal distance
*Normal: 1,000' above the highest obstacle within 4 NM horizontal distance
157
What are the IFR cruising levels? (FAR 91.179)
Same as VFR but take away the 500'.
158
The pilot in command must report the following as soon as possible the time and altitude of passing each: (FAR 91.183)
*remember DRUMS
- Designated reporting point (when not in radar contact)
- Reporting points specified by ATC
- Un-forecasted weather conditions
- Missed approach
- Safety of flight information
159
What responsibility does the pilot in command have when entering VFR conditions on an IFR flight plan?
See and avoid other traffic
160
ATC has approved the pilots request for VFR on top while on IFR clearance. What altitudes should you now fly?
VFR cruising altitudes
161
In the case of operations over an area designated as mountainous no person may operate an aircraft below 2,000' above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of?
4 NM
162
What record shall be made in the aircraft log or other permanent record by the pilot making the VOR operational check?
Date
Place
bearing error
pilot signature
163
What are the minimum qualifications for a person who occupies the other control seat as a safety pilot during simulated instrument flight?
private pilot with appropriate category and class ratings for that aircraft.
164
What are the different types of GPS?
Un-augmented (TSO-C129 and TSO-C196)
Augmented (TSO-C145 and TSO -C146)
165
What are the two satellite based augmentation systems?
Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS)
Local Area Augmentation System (LAAS)
166
Aircraft using an un-augmented GPS (TSO-C129 or TSO-C196) for navigation under IFR must?
Be equipped with an alternate approved and operational means of navigation.
167
What must you do to satisfy the requirements for two independent navigation systems?
If the primary NAV system is GPS then the other must be independent of GPS.
168
Is active monitoring of an alternative navigation equipment required when RAIM is available?
No
169
Which publication covers the procedures required for aircraft accident and incident reporting responsibilities for pilots?
NTSB part 830
170
When is IFR clearance required when operating VFR?
When operating in Class A airspace
When IMC exists in controlled airspace
171
When is an IFR flight plan required?
In class E airspace when IMC exists and in class A
172
How does a pilot normally obtain the current altimeter setting during an IFR flight in class E below 18,000'?
ATC periodically advises the pilot of proper altimeter setting.
173
Handheld GPS systems certified for VFR operation may be used during IFR operations as?
An aid to situational awareness.
174
Can you enter IMC without an IFR clearance?
No
175
When is clearance void time issued?
When departing an airport without operational control tower.
176
You must depart and contact ATC by the CVT (Certified Void Time)?
Yes
177
Does ATC allow more than 1 aircraft in an airspace while CVT is in effect?
No
*ATC will initiate search and rescue ops if they haven't heard from you by CVT+30 minutes.
178
When and where are hold for release times most common and what are they usually for?
Class D airspace (because only 1 IFR aircraft is allowed to arrive/depart)
Used for traffic management
179
What are the five elements of a IFR clearance?
*remember CRAFT
Clearance limit
Route of flight
Altitude
Frequency
Transponder
180
When are you most likely to get a Cruise Clearance issued to you?
When operating in non-busy airspace
181
What does a cruise clearance mean?
A pilot may climb/descend between minimum IFR altitudes and cruise altitude at pilots discretion.
*No pilot report is needed when changing altitudes.
182
Do you need a clearance to conduct an approach with a cruise clearance previously obtained/given?
No
183
In which airspace is VFR on top prohibited?
Class A
184
Which ATC clearance should an instrument pilot request in order to climb through a cloud layer on an area of reduced visibility and then continue the flight VFR?
VFR on top
185
When on a VFR on top clearance the cruising altitudes are based on?
Magnetic Course
186
An abbreviated departure clearance..."cleared as filed"...will always contain the name of?
the destination airport filed in the flight plan
187
Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR clearance?
Destination airport
Altitude
DP name
Transition (if applicable)
188
What cloud clearance must be complied with when authorized to maintain VFR on top?
Must maintain cloud clearance above, below, or between layers.
189
When departing an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that?
The pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible but no later than 30 minutes of their intentions if not off by the CVT
190
When must a pilot fly a cardinal altitude plus 500' on an IFR flight plan?
When assigned a VFR on top clearance
191
What minimums must be considered in selecting an altitude when operating with a VFR on top clearance?
Minimum IFR altitude
Minimum distance from clouds
Visibility appropriate to altitude selected
192
When can VFR on top clearance be assigned by ATC?
Only upon request of the pilot when conditions are indicated to be suitable.
193
When can you deviate from an ATC clearance? (91.123)
An emergency
Responding to traffic alert
Collision avoidance
194
When can a pilot cancel an IFR flight plan?
Except in Class A airspace, anytime VFR conditions exist.
195
A pilot shall immediately request clarification from ATC when?
They are unsure/uncertain of a clearance given
196
PIC responsibilities and recommendations:
-Write down the clearance instructions
-Read back the clearance
-Ask for clarification if clearance is not understood
Comply promptly with clearance instructions
197
All radio communications must use?
Standard phraseology
198
A pilot must have what kind of description of all routes and procedures to be flown?
textual description
199
A pilot must adhere to all of these when on a published instrument procedure?
Route, Altitude, and Speed restrictions.
200
True or False: ATC must be contacted immediately if you cannot comply with instructions or charted procedures?
True
201
What altitude must you maintain until you are cleared for a procedure and established on a published segment of a published route or procedure?
The previously assigned altitude
202
What must a pilot do when meteorology conditions permit?
See and avoid
203
When must you maintain visual separation from an aircraft?
When instructed to do so
204
What must you do when you lose visual contact with a plane/aircraft you have been instructed to follow?
Inform ATC immediately
205
What is a pilot required to maintain when it comes to your course quality?
Airspeed: +/- 10 kts
Heading: +/- 10 degrees
Altitude: +/- 100
Bearing: within 3.4 deflection of a CDI
206
What must you do if you cannot maintain 500' per minute climb/descent rate?
Notify ATC immediately
207
When it comes to climbs and descents, what is the rules regarding rate of climb and descent?
Climb/descend at an optimum rate until you are within 1,000' of an assigned altitude, then reduce rate to 500-1500 fpm until reaching assigned altitude.
208
When instructed to climb/descend at pilots discretion the pilot may?
- Start climb/descent when pilot wishes
- Conduct climb/descent at any rate
- Temporarily level off
*After vacating an altitude, the aircraft my not return to that altitude.
209
How do you recognize a comm. equipment failure?
- Radio quiet for an extended period of time
- Static or strange noise
- ATC does not respond to radio calls
210
each pilot who has a two way radio comm. failure when operating under IFR conditions shall continue the flight according to the following: (91.185)
-Assigned: by the route assigned in the last ATC clearance received.
-Vectored: if being radar vectored, then by the direct route form the point of radio failure to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance
-Expected: in the absence of an assigned route, by the route that ATC has advised may be expected in further clearance.
-Filed: in the absence of an assigned route or a route that ATC has advised may be expected in further clearance, by the route filed in the flight plan
211
When experiencing comm. failure you must continue the flight at the height of the following altitudes or flight levels for the route segments being flown: (91.185)
-Minimum: minimum altitude for IFR ops
-Expected: the altitude/flight level ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance
-Assigned: the altitude or flight level assigned by the last ATC clearance
212
What does minimum fuel advisory given to ATC by you imply?
Situation isn't critical yet but it could be with additional delays.
213
What does a Fuel Emergency advisory given to ATC by you imply?
You need to proceed directly to airport due to loss of fuel
214
Each PIC who deviates from a rule shall upon request do what?
Submit a written report to the FAA administrator (91.3)
215
When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?
When priority has been given
216
To comply with altitude changes of more than 1,000' what rate of climb/descent should be used?
As rapidly as practical to 1,000' above/below the assigned altitude, and then 500 to 1,500' feet per minute until reaching the assigned altitude.
217
What all does ATC want to hear back when it issues an ATC clearance to pilots?
Read back altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification.
218
When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000' of assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to climb/descend at a rate of between?
500' - 1,500' per minute
219
In the event of a Comm/ failure during IFR clearance in VFR conditions the pilot should continue:
The flight under VFR and land as soon as practical.
220
During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is encountered. The pilot should:
Not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance.
221
During a flight, the controller advises, 'traffic at 2 o'clock 5 miles southbound', the pilot is holding 20 degree correction for a crosswind from the right. Where should the pilot look for traffic?
40 degrees to the right of the aircraft nose
222
What are the three types of runways?
Precision
Non-precision
Visual runways
223
What marking elements will be found on a visual runway?
Designation
Centerline
Maybe:
Threshold and Aiming point
224
What marking elements will be found on a non-precision runway?
Destination
Centerline
Threshold
Aiming point
225
What marking elements will be found on a precision runway?
Designation
Centerline
Threshold
Aiming point
Touchdown zone
Side Stripes
226
What does the threshold on a runway mark?
The beginning of runway
227
How can a threshold be relocated or moved?
Displaced threshold
228
how can a displaced threshold be used?
For taxi and T/O, but not for landing
229
What is the runway width when you see 4 stripes?
60'
230
What is the runway width when you see 6, 8, 12, and 16 stripes?
75'
100'
150'
200'
231
What does the hold should line/runway holding position line represent?
the limit between the runway and the taxiway.
232
What must you obtain before crossing the double solid lines of a hold should line/runway holding position line?
A clearance
233
What does LAHSO stand for?
Land and Hold Short
*if you accept, you must comply
*student pilots cannot participate
*you can say no to LAHSO when it is offered
234
When are airport beacons active?
Sunset to sunrise or when weather is below VFR weather minimums
235
A civilian land airport beacon will operate how and with what colors?
rotating white and green
236
A military airport beacons will operate how and use what colors?
White, white, green
237
Water airport colors?
White and yellow
238
Helicopter airport colors?
White, green, and yellow
239
Where does a runway exit sign point?
Towards a named taxiway that leads off the runway.
240
The runway hold position line denotes?
The entrance from a runway to a taxiway
241
When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the taxiway direction sign indicates?
Designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection
242
Runway hold position lines/markings on taxiways identify:
Where aircraft are supposed to stop when not cleared to proceed to the runway.
243
What color are runway hold position signs?
White lettering, red background
244
The no entry sign indicates?
An area where aircraft are prohibited
245
The yellow demarcation bar indicates?
A runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway
246
The runway hold position is located on?
Runways that intersect other runways.
247
The edge of the ILS critical area is identified by?
The ILS critical area boundary sign
248
When exiting the runway, what is the purpose of the runway exit sign?
indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.
249
What is the approach lighting system designed to do?
Help transition from instrument flight to visual flight when close to the runway.
250
What glideslope is a VASI set up to indicate?
3 degrees
251
What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?
light quartering tailwind
252
What type of lighting system contains a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?
REIL (Runway End Identifier Lights)
253
During which conditions is hydroplaning most likely to occur?
During conditions of standing water, high speeds, and smooth runway texture.
254
Low altitude charts provide information below what altitude?
18,000' MSL
255
Low altitude charts are divided into what size grid squares?
1 degree
256
What colors indicate that an airport has been given departure minima and does not have an instrument approach procedure (IAP)
Brown
257
What are the standard T/O minimums for large aircraft and commercial operators?
1-2 engines: 1 SM of visibility
3 or more engines: 1/2 SM of visibility
258
Do part 91 operators need to comply with IFR T/O minimums?
Nope
*its a good rule of thumb to adhere to the old reliable, if the Boeing ain't going, I ain't going though.
259
What should you consider when planning to do a DP?
What type of departure will it be?
Am I equipped to do the DP?
Is it the right DP for where I want to go?
Can my aircraft meet the minimum performance requirements?
260
What are the two types of departure procedures?
ODP (Obstacle Departure Procedure)
SID (Standard Instrument Departure)
261
What can you do if you do not wish or are not comfortable with using departure procedures?
Enter, 'no DP', into the remarks section of your IFR flight plan.
262
Preferred IFR routes beginning with a fix, indicate that departing aircraft will normally be routed to the fix by?
An instrument departure procedure or radar vectors.
263
When ATC designs instrument procedures, unless otherwise stated or declared, ATC uses a standard climb gradient of?
200' per nautical mile
264
What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums section of the IAP indicate for a particular airport?
T/O minimums are not standard and/or obstacle departure procedures are published
265
What are two mathematical ways to calculate descent?
Distance to start descent = Altitude to be lost (divided by) 300
Rate of descent = Groundspeed (times) 5
266
Why are STARS established at airports?
To simplify clearance delivery procedures
267
Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR?
When ATC deems it appropriate, unless pilot requests no STAR.
268
What are the limits of a transition are that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP?
700' AGL or more to the base of the overlying controlled airspace.
269
What is a hold and what does a hold do?
A predetermined maneuver which keeps the aircraft in a specific airspace while awaiting further clearance from ATC
270
Why would you need to do a hold?
Traffic congestion
Weather
At the end of a published missed approach procedure
Used to climb in a departure procedure
ATC instruction
Emergency
271
What is implied if the direction of the hold is not specified?
The standard direction of right should be used for the hold
272
What is the standard direction of a hold?
right
273
what are the types of holds?
(not hold entries)
timed turn or DME
274
What are the different airspeeds in holds?
Up to 6,000' = 200 KIAs
6,001 - 14,000' = 230 KIAs
14,001 and above = 265 KIAs
275
What are the three types of entry procedures to holds?
Parallel
Teardrop
Direct
276
What are the 6 T's for holds?
Turn
Time
Twist, the OBS
Throttle
Talk, to ATC
Track
277
How to draw a hold:
- draw inbound leg from fix
- draw holding pattern leg
- draw the 70 degree teardrop line on the non-holding side
- draw the aircrafts position
- determine the entry procedure
278
What is a DME arc?
A flight track that is a constant distance from the station or waypoint.
279
what are the ten items in 91.175 that need to be identified before landing?
*Only 1 of the ten need to be seen but you should know all ten.
1. Threshold
2. Threshold Markings
3. Threshold lights
4. The runway end identifier lights
5. The visual glideslope indicator
7. the touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings
8. Touchdown zone lights
9. Runway or runway markings
10. Runway lights
280
In 91.175 what allows a pilot to descend to 100' above the TDZE?
The approach light system, except that the pilot may not descend below 100' above the touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights as reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable.
281
In 91.175 what are the three important factors that need to be present in order to land?
Stable coordinated flight.
Ability to land in the landing zone.
1 of the 10 visual queue's, and the flight visibility is not less than that prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used.
282
What is the 91.185 FAR?
Two way radio communications failure.
283
Comm out, what route are you flying?
*AVEF
-Assigned
-Vectored
-Expected
-Filed
-Assigned: the route specified in the last ATC clearance received.
-Vectored: if being radar vectored, fly directly to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vectoring clearance.
-Expected: if not a vector, fly the route that ATC told you to expect in a further clearance.
-Filed: if no assigned or expected route, fly the route planned in the filed IFR flight plan.
284
Comm out, altitude.
*MEA
(FAR: 91.185)
-Minimum
-Expected
-Assigned
285
What are the mandatory reporting points when not in radar contact with ATC?
*COFE
-Compulsory reporting points
-Outer Marker
-Final approach fix
-ETA change of 2 to 3 minutes.
*Note: these same four things are found in MARVELOUSVFRC500. This is just specifically for when not in radar contact rather than the full acronym being everything.
286
What is every letter in the MARVELOUSVFRC500 acronym? What is this acronym trying to get the pilot to remember or do?
An aviation acronym used to remember all the mandatory reports needed to be made to ATC during Instrument Flight Rules operations.
M - Missed Approach
A - Airspeed Change (any change of 10 knots or more TAS)
R - Reaching a holding fix
V - VFR on top altitude changes
E - ETA change of +/- 3 minutes
L - Leaving a holding fix/point
O - Outer Marker inbound.
U - Un-forecasted Weather
S - Safety of flight information
V - Vacating an altitude/flight level
F - Final approach fix inbound when not in radar contact.
R - Radio or navigation failure
C - Compulsory reporting points.
500 - Unable to climb/descend at 500 fpm
287
What is the IFR malfunction report FAR? What are the 4 required things to say in a malfunction report to ATC/Tower?
91.187 Malfunction reports (under IFR)
-Aircraft identification (tail number)
-Equipment affected (whats broken)
-Degree to which the pilot can still perform their job, given the malfunction.
-Nature and extent of assistance desired from ATC (if any help is needed)
288
WAAS definition:
*AC-90-108
The IS implementation of Space Based Augmentation System (SBAS), a satellite navigation system, which augments the GPS standard positioning service.
289
What is a Suitable RNAV System?
*AC-90-108
1. Meets the required performance established for a type of operations (Ex. Instrument Flight Rules).
2. Is suitable for operations over the route to be flown in terms of any performance criteria established by the air navigation service provider for certain routes.
290
RAIM definition:
*AC-90-108
A technique used within a GPS receiver/processor to monitor GPS signal performance.
This integrity determination is achieved by a consistency check among redundant measurements.
291
What are the three elements the compose GNSS (GPS)?
*AC-90-108
Space, control, and user equipment elements
292
What is RNAV? (Area Navigation)
*AC-90-108
A method of navigation which permits aircraft operations on any desired flight path within the coverage of ground or space based navigation aids or within the limits of the capability of self contained aids, or a combination of these.
293
What is the Comm Failure Flow?
AVEF MEA
Route =
-Assigned
-Vectored
-Expected
-Filed
Altitude =
-Minimum
-Expected
-Assigned
*Route determines altitude
*Altitude determination between the three choices will be the option with the greatest height.
Flight Notes
flashcards
Decks in class (17)
# Cards
-
POH50
-
Aviation Definitions28
-
Airspeeds15
-
Emergencies20
-
National Airspace System31
-
Aircraft Systems37
-
Human Factors60
-
Principles of Flight56
-
Performance and Limitations10
-
Navigation Systems and Radar Services49
-
Weather99
-
Instrument Mega Deck293
-
Basic Instrument Maneuvering41
-
Pilots Cafe107
-
Approaches28
-
Shepard Air (Instrument)547
-
Flight Insight Instrument CHECKRIDE Prep57
