jan 22

Question 1

treatment of otitis externa

Answer 1

TOPICAL antibiotic with or without topic glucocorticoid

Question 2

transient synovitis clinical presentation

Answer 2

• well-appearing
• afebrile or low-grade fever
• able to bear weight

Question 3

diagnosis of transient synovitis

Answer 3

-normal or mildly elevated WBCs, ESR, CRP
-unilateral or bilateral joint effusion on ultrasound
(diagnosis of exlusion)

Question 4

ultrasound findings of transient synovitis?

Answer 4

unilateral or bilateral joint effusion

Question 5

treatment of transient synovitis?

Answer 5

conservative

Question 6

clinical presentation of septic arthritis

Answer 6

• ill-appearing
• febrile
• non-weight bearing

Question 7

diagnosis of septic arthritis

Answer 7

• elevated WBCs, ESR, CRP
• possible positive blood culture
• unilateral joint effusion on ultrasound
• synovial fluid >50 000 WBCs

Question 8

treatment of septic arthritis

Answer 8

joint drainage & antibiotics

Question 9

how to diagnosis septic arthritis VS transient synovitis:

Answer 9

Hip ultrasound: if unilateral joint effusion, then arthrocentesis is required to differentiate

Question 10

causes of pleuritic chest pain?

Answer 10

• PE
• costochondritis
• pericarditis
• malignany
• infection

Question 11

a PE can cause pleuritic chest pain T or F

Answer 11

TRUE

Question 12

work up in suspected PE?

Answer 12

CT pulmonary angiography

Question 13

patients with sickle cell disease are at high risk for sepsis from which organisms?

Answer 13

• strep pneumonia
• H influenza
• Neisseria meningitis

Question 14

what is olopatadine?

Answer 14

mast cell stabilizing agent

Question 15

what is azelastine?

Answer 15

mast cell stabilizing agent

Question 16

management of viral conjunctivits?

Answer 16

-warm or cold compress

Question 17

presentation of herpes simplex keratitis?

Answer 17

-painful, red eye, impaired vision, opacification of the cornea, corneal ulcers

Question 18

management of pes anserine bursitits?

Answer 18

-rest and NSAIDs, exercises to improve strength in quadriceps and hamstring

Question 19

chronic kidney disease significantly increases the risk of…

Answer 19

TB reactivation

Question 20

lab findings of osteomalacia?

Answer 20

• increased alkaline phosphatase
• increased PTH
• decreased serum calcium and phosphorous, decreased urinary calcium

Question 21

vitamin D deficiency may lead to…..

Answer 21

osteomalacia

Question 22

causes of toxic peripheral neuropathy?

Answer 22

• alcohol use
• medications
• heavy metals

Question 23

alcoholic neuropathy presentation?

Answer 23

symmetric distal polyneuropathy -stocking glove pattern with parasthesias, burning pain, numbness

Question 24

presentation of whipple disease

Answer 24

• chronic malabsorptive diarrhea
• weight loss
• migratory non-deforming arthritis
• lymphadenoapthy
• low grade fever

Question 25

small intestine biopsy findings in Whipple disease

Answer 25

PAS positive macrophages in the lamina propria containing non-acid-fast gram + bacilli

Question 26

does breastfeeding or breast milk jaundice present in the first week of life?

Answer 26

breastfeeding jaundice

Question 27

does breastfeeding or breast milk jaundice peak at 2 weeks of life?

Answer 27

breast milk jaundice

Question 28

path of breastfeeding jaundice?

Answer 28

-insufficient intake of breast milk -> decreased bilirubin elimination

Question 29

path of breast milk jaundice?

Answer 29

high levels of Beta-glucoronidase in breast milk -> deconjugation of intestinal bilirubin

Question 30

how often should a newborn breastfeed?

Answer 30

every 2-3 hours

Question 31

Aseptic (viral) meningitis, rash and genearl lymphadenopathy with negative enterovirus or HSV, suggests...

Answer 31

Acute HIV infection

Question 32

patients with chronic autoimmune disease are at increasd risk for which cancer?

Answer 32

non-hodgkins lymphoma

Question 33

presentation of non-hodgkins lymphoma

Answer 33

painless lymphadenopathy, B symptoms (night sweats, fever, weight loss)

Question 34

lab findings of Non-hodgkins lymphoma?

Answer 34

increased LDH

Question 35

if NSAIDs are ineffecitve for back pain, the next pharmacotherapy is...

Answer 35

non-benzo muscle relaxants

Question 36

what causes fetal hydantoin syndrome?

Answer 36

in utero exposure to anti-epileptics (phenytoin, valproate, etc)

Question 37

features of fetal hydantoin syndrome?

Answer 37

cleft lip and palate, wide fontanelle, distal phalange hypoplasia, microcephaly, cardiac defects

Question 38

which organs are often targeted in graft vs host disease?

Answer 38

- palms, soles, face -> rash - intestines -> bloody diarrhea - liver -> LFTs and jaundice

Question 39

where are neuroblastomas commonly located?

Answer 39

- adrenal medulla | - cervical parasympathetic chain

Question 40

clinical features of a neuroblastoma?

Answer 40

- age <2 - abdominal mass - periorbital echymoses - spinal cord compression - opsoclonus-myoclonus syndrome

Question 41

which gene is associated with neuroblastoma?

Answer 41

n-myc

Question 42

histology findings of neuroblastoma?

Answer 42

small, round, blue cells

Question 43

what is commonly elevated in the blood of children with neuroblastoma?

Answer 43

catelcholamine metabolites

Question 44

xray findings of a foreign body aspiration?

Answer 44

- hyperinflation of the effected side - mediastinal shift toward unaffected side - atelectasis if obstruction is complete

Question 45

decreased serum albumin can lead to...

Answer 45

low serum calcium

Question 46

ondansetron MOA

Answer 46

serotonin receptor antagonist

Question 47

first line treatment for chemo induced nausea?

Answer 47

serotonin receptor antagonists

Question 48

what must the CD4 count be of an HIV + patient before they get the live varicella vaccine?

Answer 48

>200

Question 49

what is the best diagnostic test for bronchiectasis?

Answer 49

high resolution CT scan

Question 50

what is the leading cause of sentinel events?

Answer 50

suboptimal teamwork