L10 Flashcards

(96 cards)

1
Q

A student is trying to remember the name of the actor who played a character in a movie they watched last week. They recall that the actor starred in a popular TV show before the movie. Which concept best explains how this information helps the student retrieve the actor’s name?

A) Target memory
B) Retrieval cue
C) Implicit memory
D) Cognitive load

A

B) Retrieval cue

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2
Q

During a psychology experiment, participants are asked to complete a word fragment task (e.g., “_ A _ E”) using words they studied earlier. They complete it correctly but report that they have no conscious memory of seeing the word. Which aspect of retrieval does this illustrate?

A) Retrieval can fail
B) Target memory is always conscious
C) Successful retrieval does not always lead to awareness
D) Retrieval cue accessibility does not matter

A

C) Successful retrieval does not always lead to awareness

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3
Q

A person is trying to recall the capital of a country but cannot remember it. They then see a picture of the country’s flag, and suddenly the capital comes to mind. Which principle of memory retrieval does this scenario illustrate?

A) Retrieval cues increase the accessibility of target memory
B) Memory retrieval is always automatic
C) Retrieval failure indicates memory is lost permanently
D) Target memory cannot be influenced by context

A

A) Retrieval cues increase the accessibility of target memory

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4
Q

Maria is trying to recall the name of her childhood pet. She remembers playing with it in the garden and immediately the pet’s name comes to mind. Which concept best explains why the garden memory helped her recall the pet’s name?

A) Decay of memory
B) Association strength
C) Retrieval failure
D) Cognitive overload

A

B) Association strength

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5
Q

John studied a list of vocabulary words in French. The next day, he struggles to remember them, but after reviewing related words, he suddenly recalls several of the original words. Which principle explains this sudden improvement?

A) Activation level increases when related information is processed
B) Retrieval is always conscious
C) Memory decay is permanent
D) Associations prevent retrieval

A

A) Activation level increases when related information is processed

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6
Q

A student learned a new formula in math class but has difficulty recalling it a week later. This difficulty is partly because the formula has not been used or thought about since learning. Which concept explains this phenomenon?

A) Activation level decays over time
B) Associations are too strong
C) Retrieval cues always fail
D) Target memory is inaccessible forever

A

A) Activation level decays over time

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7
Q

Samantha tries to remember the title of a book she read years ago. She only remembers a vague scene where the main character climbs a mountain. Despite the incomplete information, she suddenly recalls the full title. Which concept best explains this ability?

A) Activation decay
B) Pattern completion
C) Retrieval failure
D) Implicit memory

A

B) Pattern completion

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8
Q

During a neuroscience experiment, researchers find that stimulating a small cluster of neurons in a local circuit can trigger the recall of a specific memory. Similarly, interactions across larger brain systems can also produce the same memory when only partial information is provided. What principle of memory does this illustrate?

A) Pattern completion can occur at different organizational levels
B) Activation levels do not influence retrieval
C) Associations always weaken over time
D) Retrieval cues are unnecessary for memory

A

A) Pattern completion can occur at different organizational levels

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9
Q

During a conversation, Alex knows the name of a famous actor but cannot immediately recall it. However, he remembers that the actor starred in a blockbuster superhero movie and that his name has three syllables. Which memory phenomenon is Alex experiencing?

A) Implicit memory
B) Tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon
C) Retrieval failure due to decay
D) Pattern completion

A

B) Tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon

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10
Q

In an experiment, participants are asked to retrieve words from definitions. Many participants cannot recall the target word but can provide its first letter and number of syllables. What does this finding suggest about human memory?

A) Most memories are permanently lost if not retrieved
B) Memory is only available when it can be explicitly produced
C) Far more memories are available than accessible at any moment
D) Retrieval cues always guarantee full recall

A

C) Far more memories are available than accessible at any moment

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11
Q

In an experiment, participants are asked to retrieve words from definitions. Many participants cannot recall the target word but can provide its first letter and number of syllables. What does this finding suggest about human memory?

A) Most memories are permanently lost if not retrieved
B) Memory is only available when it can be explicitly produced
C) Far more memories are available than accessible at any moment
D) Retrieval cues always guarantee full recall

A

C) Far more memories are available than accessible at any moment

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12
Q

A patient with prefrontal cortex damage is shown pictures of famous actors and asked to recall their names. They struggle to recall the names but can recognize them when given a list of options. Which statement best explains this pattern?

A) Memory is lost entirely due to prefrontal damage
B) Free and cued recall are impaired, but recognition remains intact
C) Recognition and recall are equally impaired by prefrontal damage
D) The hippocampus is responsible for recognition failures

A

B) Free and cued recall are impaired, but recognition remains intact

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13
Q

During a Famous Faces test, a participant with prefrontal cortex damage cannot freely recall a celebrity’s name. After receiving a hint (cue), they still fail to retrieve it, but they indicate they recognize the correct name when shown it. Which concept does this illustrate?

A) Retrieval failure due to memory decay
B) Prefrontal cortex is critical for generating cues and retrieval strategies
C) Recognition always requires the prefrontal cortex
D) Activation levels are irrelevant in recall

A

B) Prefrontal cortex is critical for generating cues and retrieval strategies

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14
Q

Which of the following tasks would most likely be impaired in someone with prefrontal cortex damage?

A) Selecting the correct capital of a country from multiple choices
B) Naming a historical figure when given their picture
C) Recognizing a familiar song when played
D) Identifying a known face from a photo album

A

B) Naming a historical figure when given their picture

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15
Q

During a memory experiment, participants are instructed to adopt a “frame of mind” focused on recalling past events. This mental state helps them interpret environmental stimuli as cues for episodic memory. Which concept does this illustrate?

A) Tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon
B) Retrieval mode
C) Pattern completion
D) Implicit memory

A

B) Retrieval mode

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16
Q

According to Tulving’s HERA model, which brain hemisphere is primarily involved in episodic memory encoding?

A) Right prefrontal cortex
B) Left prefrontal cortex
C) Right parietal cortex
D) Occipital cortex

A

B) Left prefrontal cortex

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17
Q

During episodic memory retrieval tasks, sustained activity is observed primarily in which brain region according to Tulving’s research?

A) Left prefrontal cortex
B) Right prefrontal cortex
C) Hippocampus
D) Amygdala

A

B) Right prefrontal cortex

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18
Q

A researcher designs a study to test the HERA model. Participants encode a list of words while in an fMRI scanner. Later, they recall the words. According to the HERA model, which pattern of activation is expected?

A) Left prefrontal activation during recall, right during encoding
B) Right prefrontal activation during both encoding and recall
C) Left prefrontal activation during encoding, right during recall
D) No lateralized activation differences

A

C) Left prefrontal activation during encoding, right during recall

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19
Q

Participants read a story about two boys and were asked to adopt the perspective of a home buyer. Later, when recalling the story, they focused on details relevant to a home buyer rather than a burglar. Which concept does this illustrate?

A) Tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon
B) Perspective-dependent retrieval
C) Pattern completion
D) Retrieval failure due to decay

A

B) Perspective-dependent retrieval

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20
Q

A patient with frontal lobe damage is asked to recall a story from a different perspective than the one they initially read. They struggle to shift perspectives and focus on details from the original viewpoint. What does this suggest about the frontal lobe?

A) It stores long-term episodic memories
B) It is critical for shifting retrieval perspective
C) It only supports recognition memory
D) It has no role in retrieval strategies

A

B) It is critical for shifting retrieval perspective

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21
Q

During a memory test, participants are asked to recall a list of words while simultaneously performing a challenging math task. Which outcome is most likely?

A) Free recall of words is impaired
B) Recognition of words is severely impaired
C) Retrieval is unaffected by the secondary task
D) Participants recall more words than if they focused only on memory

A

A) Free recall of words is impaired

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22
Q

Sarah is asked to remember a list of words while listening to a podcast about word origins. Her recall of the list is worse than usual. Why is this effect particularly strong?

A) Both tasks involve verbal processing, increasing interference
B) Podcasts always impair memory
C) Recognition tasks are always more affected than recall
D) Memory is permanently lost when attention is divided

A

A) Both tasks involve verbal processing, increasing interference

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23
Q

Why does divided attention primarily affect free and cued recall but not recognition?

A) Recognition does not rely on memory at all
B) Recall requires more attentional resources and prefrontal cortex engagement
C) Recognition involves different brain hemispheres than recall
D) Recall is unrelated to cue processing

A

B) Recall requires more attentional resources and prefrontal cortex engagement

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24
Q

Which brain region is most likely responsible for the impairment observed when a secondary task reduces attentional resources during memory retrieval?

A) Hippocampus
B) Occipital lobe
C) Prefrontal cortex
D) Amygdala

A

C) Prefrontal cortex

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25
Emma studied a list of new vocabulary words very quickly and without much focus. Later, she finds it much harder to recall these words compared to words she studied carefully. Which explanation best accounts for this difficulty? A) Weakly encoded targets have lower activation levels and need more activation to be retrieved B) Weakly encoded targets are permanently lost from memory C) Weakly encoded targets do not form any associations D) Weakly encoded targets are unaffected by retrieval cues
A) Weakly encoded targets have lower activation levels and need more activation to be retrieved
26
While trying to remember the name of a childhood friend, Mia recalls the street they lived on and the color of their house. How does this combination of cues affect her memory retrieval? A) Weakens retrieval due to cue overload B) Facilitates retrieval by providing multiple access routes C) Has no effect unless she consciously remembers the first cue D) Only helps if the memory was strongly encoded initially
B) Facilitates retrieval by providing multiple access routes
27
Which factor most directly determines how effective a retrieval cue will be? A) Strength of association between cue and target B) The total number of memories stored in long-term memory C) The emotional content of unrelated memories D) Time of day during retrieval
A) Strength of association between cue and target
28
During elaborative encoding, a student links new vocabulary words to personal experiences, images, and synonyms. Later, when trying to recall these words, the student benefits because: A) The memory is permanently stored and requires no cues B) Multiple retrieval routes increase the likelihood of successful recall C) Single cues are sufficient for weakly encoded items D) Retrieval is unaffected by additional cues
B) Multiple retrieval routes increase the likelihood of successful recall
29
While studying for an exam, Jordan learns a list of words while listening to classical music. Later, he recalls the words better when the same music is playing. Which principle explains this effect? A) Tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon B) Encoding specificity principle C) Pattern completion D) Dual-cueing
B) Encoding specificity principle
30
A student encodes a word paired with a specific image. At retrieval, the student sees a highly similar image and recalls the word more easily than if the image were very different. What does this illustrate? A) Weakly encoded targets require higher activation B) Retrieval cues are maximally effective when similar to the original cue C) Divided attention impairs recall D) Recognition memory is unaffected by cues
B) Retrieval cues are maximally effective when similar to the original cue
31
In an experiment, participants learned words preceded by category names but were not told to remember the categories. Later, those given the category names as cues during recall performed better than those in free recall. What principle does this support? A) Tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon B) Encoding specificity principle C) Pattern completion D) Dual-cueing
B) Encoding specificity principle
32
Which of the following manipulations would likely maximize recall in a similar experiment? A) Presenting retrieval cues unrelated to the encoded words B) Providing retrieval cues that were present during encoding C) Only asking for free recall with no cues D) Introducing a distracting secondary task during encoding
B) Providing retrieval cues that were present during encoding
33
While studying in a quiet library, Liam learns a list of vocabulary words. Later, he recalls the words better when tested in the same library rather than in a noisy café. Which type of context cue is primarily involved? A) Mood context B) Spatio-temporal context C) Physiological context D) Cognitive context
B) Spatio-temporal context
34
Sophie studies for an exam while listening to upbeat music. On test day, she is in a relaxed and calm mood. She finds it harder to recall what she studied. Which context cue explains this effect? A) Cognitive context B) Mood context C) Physiological context D) Spatio-temporal context
B) Mood context
35
A patient learns a list of words while mildly intoxicated. Later, their recall improves if tested while in a similar state. Which type of context cue is being demonstrated? A) Physiological context B) Mood context C) Spatio-temporal context D) Cognitive context
A) Physiological context
36
During a brainstorming session, Maya thinks about concepts related to climate change. Later, she recalls an example she learned about carbon footprints more easily while thinking about the same related concepts. Which context cue is responsible? A) Spatio-temporal context B) Cognitive context C) Mood context D) Physiological context
B) Cognitive context
37
In the scuba diving study, participants learned a list of words either on land or underwater. They recalled the words best when tested in the same environment where they learned them. Which principle does this demonstrate? A) Mood-dependent memory B) Context-dependent memory C) Tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon D) Weak encoding
B) Context-dependent memory
38
Why did participants recall words better when tested in the same environment in which they learned them? A) The physical environment automatically serves as a retrieval cue for episodic memories B) Memory only works underwater for certain types of words C) Recognition tasks are unaffected by context D) Words encoded in one environment are permanently inaccessible elsewhere
A) The physical environment automatically serves as a retrieval cue for episodic memories
39
Alex studies a list of words after drinking coffee. Later, he recalls the words better when he drinks coffee again compared to when he is caffeine-free. Which principle explains this effect? A) Mood-congruent memory B) State-dependent memory C) Encoding specificity principle D) Weak encoding
B) State-dependent memory
40
Sophie is feeling sad and finds it easier to remember sad events from her past than happy ones. Recall of neutral events is unaffected. Which concept does this illustrate? A) Mood-congruent memory B) Mood-dependent memory C) Context-dependent memory D) Dual-cueing
A) Mood-congruent memory
41
A person learns new information while feeling happy. Later, they can recall this information more easily when they are in a happy mood again. Which principle is demonstrated here? A) Mood-congruent memory B) Mood-dependent memory C) Encoding specificity principle D) Tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon
B) Mood-dependent memory
42
During a study session, Liam learns a list of words while listening to classical music. Later, he recalls the words best when tested while listening to the same music. Which principle explains this effect? A) Transfer-appropriate processing B) Encoding specificity principle C) Mood-congruent memory D) Tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon
B) Encoding specificity principle
43
Sophie learns a set of words by thinking about which words rhyme. Later, she is asked to identify which words rhyme with a target word. Her performance is better than if asked to recall the words freely. Which principle explains this effect? A) Mood-dependent memory B) Transfer-appropriate processing C) Context-dependent memory D) Dual-cueing
B) Transfer-appropriate processing
44
Which of the following best differentiates encoding specificity from transfer-appropriate processing? A) Encoding specificity focuses on the context overlap; transfer-appropriate processing focuses on process/task overlap B) Encoding specificity only applies to recognition; transfer-appropriate processing only applies to recall C) Encoding specificity involves mood; transfer-appropriate processing involves physical environment D) Both principles are identical and cannot be distinguished
A) Encoding specificity focuses on the context overlap; transfer-appropriate processing focuses on process/task overlap
45
A student encodes a list of words by thinking about their meaning (semantic processing) and is later tested with a recognition task that asks which words they studied. Memory performance is better than if the retrieval task required recalling words that rhyme. Which principle explains this result? A) Encoding specificity principle B) Transfer-appropriate processing C) Mood-congruent memory D) Pattern completion
B) Transfer-appropriate processing
46
During a memory experiment, participants are shown a list of words they studied earlier mixed with new words they have never seen. They are asked to indicate which words are old and which are new. What type of memory test is this? A) Free recall B) Recognition C) Cued recall D) Tip-of-the-tongue task
B) Recognition
47
Which of the following is a key advantage of recognition tests over free recall tasks? A) Recognition does not require discriminating between old and new items B) Recognition allows researchers to measure guessing and decision biases C) Recognition is only applicable to humans D) Recognition eliminates the role of memory cues
B) Recognition allows researchers to measure guessing and decision biases
48
During a memory recognition task, a participant sometimes reports seeing a word that was not actually on the studied list. According to signal detection theory, this is an example of: A) Correct rejection B) False alarm C) Hit D) Miss
B) False alarm
49
According to signal detection theory, whether a stimulus is detected depends on: A) Only the strength of the stimulus B) Only the individual’s memory capacity C) Both the intensity of the stimulus and the individual’s psychological threshold D) The number of distractors in the test
C) Both the intensity of the stimulus and the individual’s psychological threshold
50
A participant in a recognition experiment has a very conservative response criterion, meaning they only say “old” when they are very certain. Which outcome is most likely according to signal detection theory? A) Many hits and many false alarms B) Few hits and few false alarms C) Many hits and few false alarms D) Few hits and many false alarms
B) Few hits and few false alarms
51
A researcher increases the volume of a faint tone in a detection experiment. According to signal detection theory, this manipulation primarily affects: A) The participant’s response criterion (threshold) only B) The intensity of the signal (signal-to-noise ratio) C) The likelihood of a false alarm but not hits D) Only the participant’s psychological state
B) The intensity of the signal (signal-to-noise ratio)
52
A participant in a tone detection experiment only reports hearing a tone when they are very certain it is present. What type of response criterion are they using? A) Liberal criterion B) Conservative criterion C) Neutral criterion D) Random criterion
B) Conservative criterion
53
Which outcome is most likely if a participant adopts a very liberal response criterion in a recognition task? A) Few hits and few false alarms B) Many hits and many false alarms C) Few hits and many false alarms D) Many hits and few false alarms
B) Many hits and many false alarms
54
A participant wants to minimize misses in a detection task but is willing to accept more false alarms. Which adjustment to their response criterion would achieve this? A) Make the criterion more conservative B) Make the criterion more liberal C) Maintain a neutral criterion D) Ignore the signal completely
B) Make the criterion more liberal
55
In a recognition memory test, a participant correctly identifies a word they studied earlier as “old.” This response is called: A) Miss B) Hit C) False alarm D) Correct rejection
B) Hit
56
A participant is shown a list of words and correctly identifies a new, unstudied word as “new.” What type of response is this? A) Hit B) Miss C) False alarm D) Correct rejection
D) Correct rejection
57
During a recognition test, a participant incorrectly identifies a new word as one they have studied. What type of response is this? A) Hit B) False alarm C) Miss D) Correct rejection
B) False alarm
58
In evaluating recognition memory performance, why is it important to consider both hits and false alarms? A) False alarms are irrelevant to memory accuracy B) High hits alone do not indicate good memory if false alarms are also high C) Hits always outweigh false alarms D) Only misses determine recognition accuracy
B) High hits alone do not indicate good memory if false alarms are also high
59
During a recognition memory test, a participant judges an item as “old” because it feels familiar enough to surpass their response criterion. Which factor most directly determines this judgment? A) The participant’s mood during encoding B) The familiarity (activation level) of the memory trace C) The number of distractor items in the test D) The physical context of the experiment
B) The familiarity (activation level) of the memory trace
60
Why can a new (lure) item sometimes be incorrectly judged as “old” in a recognition test? A) The item is always encoded at the same time as old items B) Its familiarity overlaps with that of old items due to prior exposure or similarity C) Recognition tests do not rely on memory traces D) Lures are always less familiar than old items
B) Its familiarity overlaps with that of old items due to prior exposure or similarity
61
Which of the following factors can increase the familiarity of a memory trace for an old item, making it easier to recognize? A) Paying less attention during encoding B) Encoding the item only once C) Emotional arousal during encoding D) Presenting the item as a novel distractor
C) Emotional arousal during encoding
62
A participant adopts a very liberal response criterion in a recognition memory test. Which pattern of results is most likely? A) Many hits, many false alarms B) Few hits, few false alarms C) Many hits, few false alarms D) Few hits, many false alarms
A) Many hits, many false alarms
63
In signal detection theory, what does a d′ (d-prime) value greater than 0 indicate in a recognition test? A) Pure guessing, no memory B) Memory is guiding performance; fewer errors than chance C) Criterion is too liberal D) Criterion is too conservative
B) Memory is guiding performance; fewer errors than chance
64
According to dual-process theories, what distinguishes familiarity from recollection in recognition memory? A) Familiarity is slow and requires attention; recollection is fast and automatic B) Familiarity involves a general sense of knowing; recollection involves remembering contextual details C) Both familiarity and recollection are equally fast and automatic D) Familiarity requires retrieval of exact details; recollection does not
B) Familiarity involves a general sense of knowing; recollection involves remembering contextual details
65
Why are low-frequency words often recognized more easily than high-frequency words, despite their lower activation status according to familiarity? A) Low-frequency words are encoded more superficially B) Low-frequency words rely more on recollection, which enhances recognition C) High-frequency words are never familiar D) Recognition of low-frequency words does not involve memory
B) Low-frequency words rely more on recollection, which enhances recognition
66
Which of the following is true about the speed and attentional demands of familiarity versus recollection? A) Familiarity is slower and attention-demanding; recollection is fast and automatic B) Both processes are equally fast but differ in accuracy C) Familiarity is fast and automatic; recollection is slower and requires attentional control D) Recollection is faster than familiarity and requires no attention
C) Familiarity is fast and automatic; recollection is slower and requires attentional control
67
During a recognition test, a participant recalls seeing the word “viola” and can vividly remember the context in which it was presented. According to the Remember-Know procedure, this response would be classified as: A) Know B) Remember C) Familiarity D) False alarm
B) Remember
68
In a follow-up test several weeks after learning, participants are more likely to respond “know” rather than “remember” for previously studied items. Which phenomenon does this illustrate? A) Contextual details of episodic memory decay faster than item content B) Familiarity declines faster than recollection C) High-frequency words are more memorable than low-frequency words D) Recognition memory is unaffected by time
A) Contextual details of episodic memory decay faster than item content
69
In the inclusion test of a process dissociation procedure, participants are asked to respond “yes” if a word appeared in either Phase 1 or Phase 2. Which memory processes contribute to correct recognition in this test? A) Recollection only B) Familiarity only C) Both recollection and familiarity D) Neither recollection nor familiarity
C) Both recollection and familiarity
70
In the exclusion test, participants are told to respond “yes” only if the word was from Phase 2. If a participant mistakenly says “yes” to a word from Phase 1, what does this error indicate? A) Recollection failure; recognition based on familiarity B) Recollection success; familiarity failure C) Neither recollection nor familiarity was engaged D) The participant remembered the word correctly
A) Recollection failure; recognition based on familiarity
71
According to the consolidation hypothesis, why are newly acquired memories more vulnerable immediately after learning? A) They are already permanently stored B) They are labile and not yet consolidated C) They rely solely on retrieval cues D) They are immune to interference
B) They are labile and not yet consolidated
72
Which of the following scenarios would most likely impair memory retention according to the consolidation hypothesis? A) Testing memory after a long delay B) Repeating the learned material immediately C) Introducing interference or brain disruption immediately after learning D) Sleeping after learning
C) Introducing interference or brain disruption immediately after learning
73
Which statement best describes the time course of consolidation? A) It is an instantaneous and reversible process B) It is a slow, transient, unidirectional process after learning C) It occurs before acquisition of the memory D) Consolidation is unnecessary for long-term memory storage
B) It is a slow, transient, unidirectional process after learning
74
A researcher reactivates a previously consolidated memory and then applies electroconvulsive shock (ECS). What is the most likely outcome according to memory reconsolidation research? A) The memory remains stable and unaffected B) The memory becomes labile again and can be disrupted C) The memory is permanently strengthened D) The memory is immediately forgotten without any reactivation
B) The memory becomes labile again and can be disrupted
75
Which statement best captures the implication of memory reactivation for consolidated memories? A) Consolidation only occurs during initial learning and never again B) Retrieval or reactivation can make a consolidated memory labile and subject to modification C) Once consolidated, memories are permanently stable and cannot be disrupted D) Reactivation strengthens memories without any risk of vulnerability
B) Retrieval or reactivation can make a consolidated memory labile and subject to modification
76
A rat is trained to associate a tone with a mild footshock. One day later, the tone is presented once without shock to reactivate the memory. Immediately afterward, the rat receives an amygdala infusion of anisomycin. Which outcome is most likely during a test 24 hours later? A. The rat shows normal freezing because the original memory is fully consolidated and cannot be disrupted. B. The rat shows reduced freezing because the reactivated memory required new protein synthesis to be restabilized. C. The rat shows increased freezing because anisomycin strengthens the amygdala’s fear circuitry. D. The rat shows reduced freezing only if anisomycin is given during the initial training, not after reactivation.
B. The rat shows reduced freezing because the reactivated memory required new protein synthesis to be restabilized.
77
Two rats undergo auditory fear conditioning. The next day, Rat A hears the tone once (memory reactivation), while Rat B stays in its home cage (no reactivation). Both receive anisomycin infusions into the amygdala. What is the most likely outcome? A. Both rats show impaired freezing because anisomycin disrupts the amygdala generally, not specifically memory processes. B. Only Rat A shows impaired freezing because anisomycin interferes with reconsolidation only when the memory has been reactivated. C. Only Rat B shows impaired freezing because unreactivated memories are more vulnerable to protein-synthesis inhibition. D. Neither rat shows impairment because reconsolidation occurs only during sleep.
B. Only Rat A shows impaired freezing because anisomycin interferes with reconsolidation only when the memory has been reactivated.
78
A researcher conditions rats to fear a tone. On Day 2, the memory is reactivated with a single tone presentation. The rats then receive amygdala anisomycin infusions at different delays after reactivation: Group A: immediately Group B: 3 hours after reactivation Group C: 8 hours after reactivation Group D: no reactivation, anisomycin given immediately During the memory test the next day, which group(s) will show impaired freezing, indicating disrupted reconsolidation? A. Groups A and B only B. Groups A, B, and D C. Groups B, C, and D D. All groups except C
A. Groups A and B only
79
A rat undergoes auditory fear conditioning. The next day, its memory is reactivated with a single tone presentation, followed immediately by an amygdala infusion of anisomycin. The researcher then tests freezing either 1 hour later or 24 hours later. What pattern of results should the researcher expect? A. Impaired freezing at both 1 hour and 24 hours, because anisomycin disrupts all forms of memory expression. B. Normal freezing at 1 hour but impaired freezing at 24 hours, because anisomycin blocks reconsolidation-dependent long-term memory. C. Impaired freezing at 1 hour but normal freezing at 24 hours, because short-term memory requires protein synthesis. D. Normal freezing at both 1 hour and 24 hours, because established memories cannot be disrupted once consolidated.
B. Normal freezing at 1 hour but impaired freezing at 24 hours, because anisomycin blocks reconsolidation-dependent long-term memory.
80
A student studies a long list of historical dates. During the first recall test, she remembers 12 items; on the second recall test (with no further study), she remembers 15. Which process best explains this improvement? A. Consolidation during sleep B. Hypermnesia caused by reconstructive guessing C. Reminiscence due to retrieval making previously inaccessible items accessible D. Semantic priming from the earlier study session
C. Reminiscence due to retrieval making previously inaccessible items accessible
81
A research participant recalls 10 images during Test 1 and 15 images during Test 2. Of the added 5 images, only 2 are ones that were not recalled before; the remaining 3 are repeats of earlier correct recalls. This pattern reflects: A. Pure reminiscence B. Pure hypermnesia C. Hypermnesia that includes some reminiscence D. Reconstruction errors, not real memory improvement
C. Hypermnesia that includes some reminiscence
82
A witness sees a car crash on Monday. On Tuesday, she hears another person describe the crash incorrectly. During a later recall test, she incorporates these inaccuracies into her memory. Which explanation fits best? A. Failure of sensory encoding B. Long-term consolidation failure C. Retrieval-induced reconsolidation allowing new information to modify the reactivated memory D. Pure guessing based on schemas
C. Retrieval-induced reconsolidation allowing new information to modify the reactivated memory
83
A student recalls a childhood birthday party. While recalling it, she strongly imagines that her grandmother was present, even though she later learns her grandmother was out of town that day. Which mechanism best explains the false detail? A. Interference during initial encoding B. Schema-driven distortion occurring during retrieval and reconsolidation C. Rapid forgetting of contextual cues D. Decay of episodic traces
B. Schema-driven distortion occurring during retrieval and reconsolidation
84
A teacher gives students three short recall quizzes on a word list. Students steadily recall more words across attempts, even without additional study. Which conclusion is most consistent with the reconsolidation view? A. Retrieval temporarily weakens memory, so more words appear due to random fluctuation. B. Retrieval reactivates the memory, strengthening it as it reconsolidates after each test. C. Repeated testing delays forgetting but does not change memory strength. D. Students use implicit learning strategies without retrieval playing a role.
B. Retrieval reactivates the memory, strengthening it as it reconsolidates after each test.
85
A rat has previously learned that a tone predicts a shock. On the next day, the experimenter presents only the tone (no shock) to reactivate the memory. This partial cue induces a prediction error. Which outcome best illustrates the functional role of prediction error in reconsolidation? A. The memory remains untouched because partial cues are too weak to trigger plasticity. B. The memory becomes destabilized, allowing new information (e.g., “tone without shock”) to be incorporated during reconsolidation. C. The rat immediately extinguishes the fear memory after a single partial-cue presentation. D. The memory becomes permanently blocked and cannot be retrieved again.
B. The memory becomes destabilized, allowing new information (e.g., “tone without shock”) to be incorporated during reconsolidation.
86
A researcher conditions a participant to fear an image paired with a loud noise. One day later, the image is shown briefly to reactivate the fear memory. Immediately afterward, the participant receives propranolol, a β-adrenergic receptor blocker. What is the most likely outcome during a follow-up test the next day? A. Fear responding is unchanged because propranolol only affects initial consolidation, not reconsolidation. B. Fear responding is reduced because blocking β-adrenergic activity during reconsolidation weakens the reactivated memory. C. Fear responding increases because propranolol enhances emotional arousal during recall. D. Fear responding is eliminated only if propranolol is given without memory reactivation.
B. Fear responding is reduced because blocking β-adrenergic activity during reconsolidation weakens the reactivated memory.
87
Participants are asked, “What is the height of the Eiffel Tower?” A participant initially guesses 400 ft. The experimenter then reveals a bogus “correct answer” of 1,000 ft. Later, when asked to recall their own original guess, the participant reports 600 ft. What does this outcome best illustrate? A. Anchoring bias B. Hindsight bias, because the participant’s recalled estimate shifted toward the provided answer C. Confirmation bias D. Reminiscence, because the participant remembered an item not previously recalled
B. Hindsight bias, because the participant’s recalled estimate shifted toward the provided answer
88
A doctor initially predicts that a treatment will have a 20% success rate. After the results arrive showing a 70% success rate, she later recalls that she had predicted something “closer to 50% or 60%.” What mechanism best explains this memory shift? A. Encoding failure due to low attention at the time of the initial prediction B. Hindsight bias causing her to remember her prior estimate as closer to the known outcome C. Overconfidence due to expert knowledge D. Hypermnesia from repeatedly viewing the outcome data
B. Hindsight bias causing her to remember her prior estimate as closer to the known outcome
89
A participant sees the word “firefighter.” Immediately afterward, she must decide whether “hose” is a real word. Based on spreading activation theory, which outcome is most likely? A. Slow response, because unrelated nodes inhibit activation of related concepts. B. Fast response, because activation spreads from “firefighter” to closely related concepts like “hose.” C. Slow response, because activation remains only at the originally activated node. D. Fast response only if “hose” is the participant’s most frequently used word.
B. Fast response, because activation spreads from “firefighter” to closely related concepts like “hose.”
90
Two concepts, “ambulance” and “siren,” have a strong associative link; “ambulance” and “museum,” a weak link. If the node “ambulance” is activated, which prediction follows from spreading activation theory? A. “Museum” will be activated first because weak links spread activation more widely. B. “Siren” will be activated first because strong, short links transmit activation more quickly. C. Both concepts become activated at the same speed because spreading is uniform. D. Neither concept becomes activated without conscious effort.
B. “Siren” will be activated first because strong, short links transmit activation more quickly.
91
A paramedic reads the word “heart attack” in a patient file. Seconds later, she more quickly recognizes the word “defibrillator.” Which mechanism best explains this facilitation? A. Spreading activation from a medical schema to unrelated concepts B. Spreading activation from “heart attack” to related emergency-response concepts C. Working memory rehearsal of both words D. Procedural memory priming
B. Spreading activation from “heart attack” to related emergency-response concepts
92
During a semantic fluency task (“name as many vehicles as possible”), one participant lists ambulance, fire truck, police car, then shifts to bicycle, skateboard. What does this sequence illustrate? A. Random retrieval independent of conceptual structure B. Retrieval guided by spreading activation within a cluster (emergency vehicles), then moving to a more weakly connected cluster (personal transport) C. Failure of executive control D. Interference between episodic and semantic memory
B. Retrieval guided by spreading activation within a cluster (emergency vehicles), then moving to a more weakly connected cluster (personal transport)
93
Participants watch 30 slides of a car accident that clearly shows a STOP sign. Later, they answer a misleading question: “Did another car pass the red Datsun while it stopped at the YIELD sign?” During the final two-alternative forced-choice (2AFC) test, they must choose between the original STOP-sign slide and a newly created YIELD-sign slide. Which result is most consistent with the misinformation effect? A. Participants in the YIELD group choose the STOP-sign slide at the same rate as participants who heard the correct STOP question. B. Participants in the YIELD group are more likely to choose the incorrect YIELD-sign slide than the STOP-sign slide. C. Participants in the neutral group show the strongest memory distortion because no cue was provided. D. All groups perform equally because leading questions only influence verbal recall, not visual recognition.
B. Participants in the YIELD group are more likely to choose the incorrect YIELD-sign slide than the STOP-sign slide.
94
A participant sees the STOP sign during the slideshow but later answers the misleading YIELD-sign question. During the 2AFC test, the participant confidently selects the YIELD-sign slide, saying it “looks familiar.” Which interpretation best fits this outcome? A. The misleading question created interference at encoding, making the participant forget the original slide. B. The misleading question was integrated into the participant’s memory during a post-retrieval reconsolidation window, altering the stored representation. C. The participant is only guessing because 2AFC tasks suppress memory distortion. D. The participant’s episodic memory is intact, but semantic memory overrode it.
B. The misleading question was integrated into the participant’s memory during a post-retrieval reconsolidation window, altering the stored representation.
95
Participants study two different word lists on separate days. On Day 2, before learning List B, half of the participants are given a reminder cue from List A (e.g., one word from List A). The other half receive no reminder. Later, during recall of List B, which outcome best demonstrates that intrusions require reactivation? A. Both groups produce the same number of List A intrusions because proactive interference occurs automatically. B. Only the reminder group produces intrusions from List A because the cue reactivates the earlier memory, making it vulnerable to mixing with new learning. C. Only the no-reminder group produces intrusions because their memory boundaries are weaker. D. Neither group shows intrusions because intrusions occur only in recognition, not recall.
B. Only the reminder group produces intrusions from List A because the cue reactivates the earlier memory, making it vulnerable to mixing with new learning.
96
A participant learns a list of words in Room A on Day 1. On Day 2, half of the participants return to Room A before learning a new list, while the other half learn the new list in Room B. Later, during recall of the new list, which pattern best demonstrates that spatial context alone acts as a reminder? A. Both groups show equal intrusions from the old list because spatial context does not influence memory activation. B. Participants who returned to Room A show more intrusions from the old list because the original context reactivates the earlier memory. C. Only participants in Room B show intrusions because changing environments increases confusion. D. Neither group shows intrusions unless given an explicit verbal reminder.
B. Participants who returned to Room A show more intrusions from the old list because the original context reactivates the earlier memory.