lab practical Flashcards

(154 cards)

1
Q

BSL-1

A

Organisms which do not typically cause disease in healthy humans. (E. coli)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

BSL-4

A

Organisms that pose a lethal health risk to humans. (Ebola and Smallpox viruses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Oculars

A

Magnify the image 10x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Objectives lenses

A

Magnify the image (4x-low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Revolving Nosepiece

A

Rotates objectives into viewing position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Stage

A

Supports the specimen for viewing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Specimen Holder

A

Holds the slide firmly in place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Light Switch

A

Turns light source on/off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Light Source

A

Provides light to illuminate the specimen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Light Intensity Knob

A

Adjusts intensity of the light source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Iris Diaphragm Lever

A

Controls the amount of light entering the aperture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Condenser

A

Focuses light on the specimen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Coarse Focus Knob

A

Rapidly brings the specimen into focus; use first at low power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Fine Focus Knob

A

Slowly brings the specimen into focus; use at high power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Mechanical Stage Controls

A

Move the slide forward & back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define working distance

A

The distance between a slide specimen and the objective lens in use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define field of view

A

Viewing area when looking through the ocular of a microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define parfocal

A

The ability of a microscope to stay in rough focus with changes in magnification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Flatworms are classified in Phylum _________

A

Platyhelminthes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

roundworms are classified in Phylum ___________

A

Nematoda

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which kingdom do worms belong to?

A

animalia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Walking around barefoot in the summer puts one at increased risk of infestation from what parasitic worm?

A

hookworm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Liquid growth media vs solid growth media

A

Liquid : nutrient broth
Solid : nutrient agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Ubiquity

A

The ability to survive in almost any environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Aseptic
Without contamination
26
Define chromogenic
the ability of an organism to produce pigments
27
Soluble pigments
Dissolve in the growth medium
28
Insoluble pigments
Remain within the cells or colonies
29
General Purpose media
Supports growth of a wide variety of microbes. (NA
30
Complex media
Contain complex mixture of growth nutrients (TSA) tryptic soy agar
31
Selective media
Contain ingredients which inhibit the growth of some microbes(Salt agar
32
Differential media
Give a visual indication that a certain reaction has occurred(Fermentation Broths)
33
Enriched media
Used for growth of microbes normally found at low numbers
34
Difference between heat fixing and steaming
Kills the cells and makes them stick to the slide. Steaming uses heat to help a stain penetrate the cell
35
What are problems associated with smears which are too thick or too thin?
if too thick: Cells may overlap
36
Gram stain reagents used in order
crystal violet (stain) Gram’s iodine (mordant) 95% ethanol Gram’s safranin (counterstain)
37
Acid-fast stain reagents used in order
carbolfuchsin HCl-alcohol methylene blue
38
Endospore stain reagents used in order
malachite green PS no mordant water is decolinizer safranin countrstain
39
What do capsules do?
Protect from phagocytosis
40
What do endospores do?
protect from the environment
41
What disease does endospore-forming bacteria causes anthrax ?
Bacillus anthracis
42
What disease does endospore-forming bacteria causes tetanus?
Clost-rid-ium tet-ani
43
What bacteria causes botulaism ?
Clostridium botulinum
44
What causes colitis
Clostridium difficile
45
What causes Gas gangrene
Clostridium perfringens
46
What causes Tuberculosis
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
47
What causes
Leprosy myoc leprae
48
What causes Nocardiosis (can cause lung infections and skin abscesses)
Nocardia species
49
Plates should be incubated ____
upside down
50
all safety procedures for TCC’s Microbiology Lab
No food or beverage /Closetoed shoes hair up /Avoid clutter/ Know where to find fire extinguisher
51
Describe STEREOMICROSCOPE
Stereomicroscope maximum magnifying power is 45x and does not have a specimen holder larger working distance
52
Describe compound light
As magnification increases light intensity field-of-view depth of focus and working distance all decrease / use stage controls to center specimen into field-of-view / parfocal keeps the scope in rough focus as you change magnification
53
What is the full name of media TSA and THIO
Tryptic Soy Agar and Thioglycollate Broth
54
proper labeling procedures for test tube and plate media
tape with Your name / date of inoculation/ name of the organism /media type/ temperature
55
which incubation temperatures correspond to body temperature and room temperature?
B: 37 RT 25
56
what determines which incubation temperature you choose?
microorganism's optimal growth temperature - varies based on its classification (psychrophile
57
tapeworm lifecycle
Taneia
58
what worm is this?
taneia
59
what is the common name of a schistosoma and its life cycle
blood fluke
60
what is this
schistosoma mansoni
61
what is the common name of enterobius vermicularis
pinworm
62
what worm is this
pinworm enterobius
63
what is the common name and lifecycle of the ancylostoma
hookworm
64
what worm is this?
ancylostoma hookworm
65
what is the commmon name and lifecycle of an ascaris lumbricoides
there is not one is just ascaris
66
what worm is this?
ascaris
67
taxonomic group of worms
All worms belong to Domain Eukarya, Kingdom Animalia Worms parasitize humans are classified into two phyla: Phylum Platyhelminthes (flatworms) and Phylum Nematoda (roundworms)
68
You observe a worm that has two suckers and a thin, flattened body; what phylum does it likely belong to?
platyhelminthes
69
Walking around barefoot in the summer puts one at increased risk of infestation from what parasitic worm?
ancylostoma
70
Are humans monoecious or dioecious?
dioecious
71
cell morphology
arrangement = motility shape = cell wall
72
Cyanobacteria are...
autotrophic, using photosynthesis
73
Eubacteria are
typically heterotrophic, with a few of them being pathogens of humans. They can be unicellular or colonial, and come in a variety of cell shapes and arrangements;
74
Gram-positive Cell Wall
22. Teichoic acid 23. Peptidoglycan 24. Phospholipid 25. Membrane protein
75
Gram-negative Cell Wall
26. Porin protein 27-29. Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) 30. Phospholipid 31. Peptidoglycan 32. Membrane protein
76
What part of the Petri dish does the information label go
on the edge of the bottom (agar-containing) portion of the dish
77
describe growth on agar plates
shape, margin, elevation
78
Sediment Growth at the bottom
(Sediment) anerobic bacteria
79
Growth at the top
(Pellicle ) aerobic bacteria
80
Growth throughout
(Turbid) facultative anaerobes
81
Chains of growth extending down in thio broth
(Streamers ) anaerobic growth of Staphylococcus
82
Broken chains of growth extending down in thio broth
(Granules) anaerobic growth of Streptococcus
83
Mixed population
Multiple taxonomic groups living in the same area in a natural setting
84
Mixed culture
Multiple taxonomic groups living in the same culture container (test tube or agar plate)
85
Pure colony
A colony of genetically identical cells
86
Pure culture
A culture container of genetically identical cells
87
Distinguish between bacterial and fungal colonies on agar plates
Bacterial: typically small, uniform, and creamy or smooth fungal : fuzzy, powdery, or cottony growths saprophytes (unicellular yeasts and multicellular filamentous molds)
88
pathogen contracted and significance
[in]Direct contact Airborne Vector-borne importance of hand-washing
89
smear procedure agar vs broth
water
90
Gram stain
most commonly used for bacteria shows Gram + (purple) Gram- (pink)
91
acid fast stain
used to identify members of genus Mycobacterium symptoms of (Mycobacterium tuberculosis) Tuberculosis (TB) or Mycobacterium leprae (Leprosy) or TB blue= not AF red/pink = AF
92
Endospore stain
for members of genus Clostridium and genus Bacillus red: vegatative green: endospores
93
capsule stain
Procedure stains the bacterial cell and background
94
what is this and how does it reproduce
Penicillium chrysogenum a mold that produces penicillin **mycelium is the collective term for a tangled, interwoven mass of these hyphae
95
what is this?
Amoeba proteus protozoan in the amoeboid phylum  Uses pseudopods for motility (and ingestion of food)  Reproduction occurs asexually via binary fission
96
what is this and its lifecycle
balantidium parasitic protozoan in the ciliate phylum
97
what is this
Plasmodium parasitic protozoan in the apicomplexan phylum No motility causes - malaria (only female mosquitos bc they drink blood)
98
classification of mycoses
Superficial + outermost layers of skin Cutaneous/subcutaneous = living structures of the skin, hair or nails Systemic = begin in the lungs spread to organs Opportunistic Normal microbiota which have increased above normal numbers or changed location
99
candida
one of four types of mycoses superficial, cutaneous, and opportunistic mycoses,
100
Why must Trichomonas be passed by direct contact?
doesn't have cysts and is fragile outside host
101
What should you do if you spill a bacterial culture?
102
Identify the parts of both microscopes and their functions (e.g., objective lens, stage, condenser, diaphragm, ocular).
103
How do you calculate total magnification on a compound microscope?
104
What is working distance and how does it change with magnification?
105
Which objective lens should be used when starting and ending observations?
106
How can you distinguish worms, fungi, and protists under the microscope?
size, cellular structure, body shape, and motility
107
Name one example of a worm, fungus, and protist studied in lab.
Any one worm, Canditia
108
What are portals of entry for parasitic worms?
109
How do you determine diseases or life cycles from these organisms?
110
Identify the types of media used in lab and give full names and abbreviations (TSA, NA, NB, THIO).
111
What characteristics are used to describe colony morphology?
112
Define chromogenic.
113
What is the difference between soluble and insoluble pigments?
114
Identify chromogenic genera studied in class.
SERR aria MARC es CENS
115
What are different growth patterns in broth cultures?
116
What do these broth patterns reveal about oxygen tolerance?
117
Define obligate aerobe, obligate anaerobe, facultative anaerobe, microaerophile, and aerotolerant anaerobe.
118
Define aseptic technique.
119
Why is aseptic technique important in microbiology?
120
What steps must you take to ensure cultures are not contaminated during transfer?
121
What is the purpose of flaming the loop and tube opening?
122
What could happen if aseptic technique is not followed properly?
123
Define heat fixing.
124
What is the difference between heat fixing and steaming dye into organisms?
125
List the reagents of the Gram stain in correct order.
126
What is the function of each reagent in the Gram stain?
127
What color do Gram-positive cells appear at the end?
128
What color do Gram-negative cells appear at the end?
129
What are examples of Gram-positive and Gram-negative organisms?
130
What is the importance of the Gram stain in bacterial identification?
131
List all reagents in correct order for the acid-fast stain.
132
What is the purpose of steaming in the acid-fast stain?
133
Define acid-fast.
134
What structural feature makes some bacteria acid-fast?
135
What color are acid-fast cells versus non-acid-fast cells?
136
Name two acid-fast genera and diseases they cause.
tb and lep
137
List reagents used for endospore staining in correct order.
138
What is the function of the endospore in bacterial survival?
139
Why is steaming required in this procedure?
140
What color do endospores appear after staining?
141
What color do vegetative cells appear after staining?
142
Describe the cycle of endospore formation.
143
Name examples of endospore-forming bacteria and the diseases they cause (Bacillus anthracis, Clostridium botulinum, C. tetani, C. difficile).
144
What is the main function of a bacterial capsule?
145
How do capsules help bacteria evade host immune defenses?
146
Are capsules composed of protein or polysaccharide?
147
Why do capsule stains require negative staining?
148
Name one capsule-forming bacterium.
Bac anthraxis
149
Which structures are unique to Gram-positive bacteria?
Teichoic acid
150
Which structures are unique to Gram-negative bacteria?
Lipolysaccharides porin proteins
151
What is the function of the capsule/slime layer?
152
What is the function of the plasmid?
153
What is the role of ribosomes?
154
What is the importance of endospores in bacterial survival?