Laboratory Procedures Flashcards by Hannah Kalt

Mannitol Salt Agar, or MSA, selects for growth of what species of organism? Why?

Staphylococci
Inhibits most other bacteria due to high concentration of salt, making is mostly selective for Staph.

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For a centrifuge, the relationship between revolutions per minute and relative centrifugal force can be calculated based on what?

Radius of the centrifuge head

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What is the most common white blood cell found in circulation in a normal dog?

Neutrophils - first line of defense within the immune system

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After performing a blood smear in a patient it is determined that macrocytosis is present. Which value would be expected to be elevated based on this observation on a complete blood count?

Mean corpuscular volume - a measurement of the mean volume in a group of red blood cells

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What is the most prevalent tick-borne pathogen in livestock?

Anaplasma marginale

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Where would Anaplasma marginale be found?

In the erythrocytes of cattle

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Whatabnormal red blood cells on a blood smear suggest the possibility that the patient may have immune-mediated hemolytic anemia?

Spherocytes

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A cat presents with watery diarrhea. On fecal examination, a wet mount shows motile protozoal trophozoites; a centrifugal zinc sulfate fecal flotation shows cysts of the parasite. What parasite is it and what most acceptable treatment?

Giardia
Metronidazole

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What is the scientific name for roundworms?

Toxocara canis

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When drawing blood for a fructosamine level in a canine, how many hours do you have to wait after insulin is given to draw the blood?

Doesn’t matter since it measures an average and is not time sensitive

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A dog presents for evaluation of a suspected ear infection. Upon examining a stained ear cytology, you notice large numbers of peanut-shaped, purple-stained organisms. What is the most likely cause of this dog’s ear infection?

Malassezia spp.

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Which of the following casts may be seen in limited numbers in the urinalysis of a healthy cat, without indicating any evidence of kidney disease?

Granular casts

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A 16 week old puppy presents for an exam due to pruritus. The veterinarian asks you to perform a superficial skin scrape to test for which disease?

A superficial skin scrape is specifically used to diagnose parasites that live on or just under the surface of the skin, most notably Sarcoptes (Sarcoptes scabiei), which causes sarcoptic mange (scabies)

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Why is a superficial skin scrape not appropriate for Demodex?

Demodex lives deep within the hair follicles. To diagnose Demodex, a deep skin scrape is required -scraping until capillary bleeding (oozing) is observed

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You are performing a urinalysis on a 12 year old SF pug. You note that the pH of the urine is alkaline. Which type of crystals form in alkaline urine?

Struvite

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When is anemia considered regenerative?

An anemia is considered regenerative if the reticulocyte count is greater than 60,000

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Schnauzers are notorious for having hyperlipidemia, and when their blood is spun down, the serum often appears milky. This is due to a high level of what in the serum?

Triglycerides

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A patient needs to be fasted for what blood test?

For a bile acids test, a fasted blood sample is drawn, the patient is fed, and another sample is drawn 2 hours after feeding (post-prandial)

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You are looking microscopically at a swab of the ear canal from a cat that has been head shaking and scratching at the ears. You identify an 8-legged mite. What is the name the ear mite?

Otodectes cynotis is the ear mite of dogs and cats

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Where on a primate’s body are they tested for tuberculosis?

Primates are tested for tuburculosis with an intradermal skin test on the eyelid

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You perform a Wood’s lamp examination on a cat that has had hair loss over the bridge of his nose. It causes a green fluorescence to appear. Which organism is likely the cause?

In about 50% of ringworm cases caused by Microsporum canis, a Wood’s lamp test will be positive. This is the only organism to cause a positive result.

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A patient with DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation) may show abnormal red blood cells called schistocytes. What are schistocytes?

Patients with DIC frequently have schistocytes and decreased platelets on their blood smears. Schistocytes are red blood cell fragments.

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What is a product of anaerobic metabolism and may indicate poor blood flow to the tissues?

Lactate is a product of anaerobic metabolism. Elevation of lactate may indicate hypoxia or inadequate perfusion

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Which of these are used in the minor cross-match for blood products when looking for a compatible blood donor for a dog?

Recipient red blood cells and donor plasma

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What is the scabies mite in cats?

Notoedres cati

Several Heinz bodies have been identified on a blood smear of a sick dog. What is this an indication of?

Oxidative damage has occurred to the red blood cell - can be seen with immune mediated hemolytic anemia or ingestion of certain toxins (onions)

Which is used in the major cross-match for blood products to be transfused to a dog?

Donor red blood cells and recipient plasma

There are two species of microfilariae that can be seen in the peripheral blood in dogs. What are they?

Dirofilaria immitis Acanthocheilonema (Dipetalonema) reconditum

An elevated PCV is considered normal for which of the following breeds?

Due to their sporting nature, Greyhounds tend to have packed cell volumes that are normally higher than other breeds.

A 3-month old kitten presents for mucoid diarrhea and anemia. The clinic where you work has recently seen several other puppies and kittens with similar clinical signs that were infected with Strongyloides stercoralis. You look up and find that this parasite is passed in the feces in the L1 larval form. What is the best way to recover and identify this parasite?

Baermann fecal technique

In what species are red blood cells normally nucleated?

Birds

What is Cat scratch fever caused by?

Bartonella henselae

How does giardia appear on a slide?

Can be recognized as a trophozoite with two nuclei outlined by adhesive discs Giardia should be distinguishable from trichomonads, which have a single nucleus and an undulating membrane

A Dalmation presents with difficulty urinating. Bladder stones are confirmed with the ultrasound and a cystotomy is performed. Which crystal is commonly observed in the Dalmatian and not expected to be seen in other dog breeds?

Ammonium biurate crystals are abnormal in all other breeds except for Dalmatians. Some Dalmatians have a genetic defect that results in the production of ammonium biurate crystals. If the defect is severe, they will be predisposed to developing ammonium biurate uroliths

What tests determines the functional ability of platelets to plug a minute wound?

Template Bleeding Time or Buccal Mucosal Bleeding Test

The California Mastitis Test (CMT) evaluates what?

Somatic cell count

You perform a rumenocentesis on a bovine patient with clinical signs of rumen acidosis (grain overload). What pH would you expect to find in a cow with rumen acidosis?

In which species will you never perform a reticulocyte count?

Horses do not release reticulocytes (immature erythrocytes) into circulation

Blood to test for equine infectious anemia should be submitted in what type of blood tube?

Red top

What is considered a normal finding on an equine urine cytology?

Calcium oxalate crystals

You are preparing to collect abdominal fluid from a horse presented for signs of colic. Collection of abdominal fluid for cytologic examination should be collected in what type of sample tube?

Cells from fluid samples are best preserved and prevented from clotting in an EDTA tube.

The California Mastitis Test (CMT) is an assay that gives a score that corresponds to which of the following?

A CMT involves adding a test reagent that reacts with the DNA in somatic cells to cause a gelling reaction

You are assisting with Coggins testing. What does this test for?

Equine Infectious Anemia

What urine specific gravity (USG) is expected in a dehydrated patient with normal kidney function?

1.040

Rouleaux formation is commonly seen on a blood smear in which species?

Horses - occurs due to the unique properties of equine plasma proteins and the lower negative surface charge of their erythrocytes

Two tests used to evaluate the coagulation cascade are the activated partial prothrombin time (APTT) and the prothrombin time (PT). What pathway(s) does the APTT evaluate (choose the most complete answer):

Intrinsic and Common pathways

You perform paired serology on a patient for a suspected infectious disease. The first blood sample is collected at the onset of clinical signs. The second blood sample is collected 2-3 weeks later. If the patient is infected with the organism, what combination of results would you expect to see?

Low titer in the first sample, high titer in the second sample

If you take the total protein measurement and subtract the albumin, what measurement is left?

Globulins -Albumin and globulins are combined for the total protein level

What types of cells or changes are seen with a left shift?

Band neutrophils

What are reticulocytes performed for?

To assess whether a patient is generating a bone marrow response to anemia

What is the purpose of the condenser of a microscope?

The condenser of a microscope consists of two lenses that focus light on the object

Organelles reside in which of the following compartments of the cell?

Cytoplasm

You are running some blood tests, and the veterinarian asked that the pet be fasted. Why is this necessary?

To reduce lipemia - especially important when checking values such as triglycerides and cholesterol

What is a typical characteristic of whipworm eggs on a microscope?

Bipolar plugs on the eggs

What is the scientific name of the whipworm?

Trichuris vulpis

A red blood cell that stains darkly with no central pallor is called what?

Spherocyte

The viscosity of synovial fluid is directly related to which component in the fluid?

Hyaluronic acid

What is phagocytosis when discussing physiology of cells?

Engulfing large particles such as bacteria into the cell

On a bone marrow smear, what is the most immature red blood cell precursor?

Rubriblasts

What is the order from immature to mature of erythrocyte lineage?

Rubriblast Prorubricyte Basophilic rubricyte Polychromatophilic rubricyte Metarubricyte Reticulocyte

You are enrolled in a technician training session at a laboratory primate center and are observing the handling of macaque monkeys for blood sampling. You are required to wear personal protective equipment, mostly to prevent possible exposure to which disease?

Herpes B Virus is a very serious and often deadly zoonotic disease that can be carried by macaque monkeys

Which of the following is true about the appearance of an image relative to the orientation of the slide when viewing through a compound microscope?

Image is upside-down and reversed

Bacterial sepsis frequently causes which finding on a blood panel?

Hypoglycemia

Which type of cell should not be found in normal joint fluid?

Erthrocytes

What is new methylene blue stain is used mostly for?

Useful for determining shape or structure of cells and especially helpful in examining immature erythrocytes

When viewing a slide on a microscope, the objects themselves are in focus but there appear to be haloes or fuzzy rings around the objects you are viewing that you cannot eliminate using the focus knobs. Which of the following is probably not adjusted correctly?

Condensor

Casts in the urine generally indicate damage in what part of the urinary system?

Casts form in the distal and collecting tubules of the kidney because urine is the most concentrated and acidic in these areas

Lactose-fermenting bacteria such as Escherichia coli and Klebsiella appear what color on MacConkey agar?

Pink or red

What tests amplifies DNA?

PCR is a method of amplifying a segment of nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) segments

How long can urine be stored in the refrigerator without affecting culture results?

6 hours

How often should a control sample be run on an in-house chemistry analyzer?

Daily

Fluid sampled from a cystic mass should be submitted in a:

Lavender top tube

You have run out of commercial fecal float solution, you can make your own in the clinic using which item?

Magnesium sulfate

Why are spherocytes small and lacking central pallor?

As a result of antibody binding and subsequent removal of a portion of the cell by macrophages

Sodium fluoride is the preferred anticoagulant for which of the following purposes?

Sodium fluoride is mainly used as a glucose preservative

Struvite crystals are one of the most common observed in urine. What are the chemical constituents of struvite?

Magnesium, ammonium, and phosphate

What is a normal specific gravity for canines?

1.015 - 1.045

What is considered isosthenuric?

Urine samples between 1.008-1.012

What is the purpose of the rheostat of the light source on a microscope?

Controls the intensity of the light source on a microscope

The lining of the urinary bladder is composed of which cell type?

Transitional cell

Which of the following is a reason why EDTA is a preferred anticoagulant over heparin when collecting a blood sample that will be used for a differential blood film?

Heparin works by potentiating antithrombin which prevents conversion of prothrombin to thrombin in the clotting cascade. EDTA works by chelating calcium, which is needed for blood clotting. Heparin interferes with white blood cell staining and causes white blood cell clumping, so it should not be used for blood that will be made into a smear for a differential white blood cell count

What is a UMIC?

urine minimum inhibitory concentration -the lowest concentration of an antimicrobial that will inhibit the visible growth of a microorganism after incubation

Which of the following will cause a false positive fecal occult blood test?

Meat but not dairy in the diet will result in a false positive fecal occult blood test - the test should be administered after a patient has been on a meat-free diet such as cottage cheese and rice for at least 3 days

Which of the following solutions used for fecal flotation floats protozoal organisms with the least distortion?

Zinc sulfate

How many WBC per HPF should their be when evaluating a urine sample?

There should be less than 0-5 white blood cells per high-powered field in a urine sample.

What is a measure of red blood cell size on a complete blood count?

Red blood cell size (in femtoliters) is described by the MCV. This value can be determined electronically by automated analyzers or manually by dividing the PCV by the RBC concentration and multiplying by 10

Which bacteria will not stain using the Gram staining method?

Mycobacteria are acid-fast bacteria that have a waxy coat on their cell walls (a lipoid capsule) and so they will not retain the crystal violet stain.

What are the 3 types of acid-fast stains?

Ziehl-Neelson, Kinyoun Fluorochrome

What is the maximum time a fecal can be used for fecal flotation with zinc centrifugation to look for ova and parasites if kept in the refrigerator?

3 days

What test can be used to evaluate a horse for immune-mediated hemolytic anemia?

Coomb's Test

A degenerative left shift implies what?

A degenerative left shift specifically refers to the neutrophil count. In this case, there are more neutrophilic bands present than neutrophils. In a regenerative shift there are more normal neutrophils present than neutrophilic bands

Electrolytes (potassium, sodium, chloride) are measured in what units?

Milliequivalents per liter (mEq/L)

Bacteria differ from animal cells in that they lack what?

A true membrane-bound nucleus

Culture or draining lesions of which bacteria gives a characteristic sweet smell?

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram-negative bacterium that often has a sweet or fruity smell.

You are examining a blood agar plate from a submitted bacterial culture and see an area of complete hemolysis, leaving a clear zone around a bacterial colony. What type of hemolysis is this?

Alpha hemolysis: partial hemolysis, creating a band of slimy discoloration around a bacterial colony Beta hemolysis: complete hemolysis, leaving a clear zone around a bacterial colony Gamma hemolysis: no change in the medium's appearance Delta hemolysis: creates a double zone of hemolysis wherein a narrow area around the colony is hemolyzed and surrounded by a larger region with some hemolysis

What is anisokaryosis?

Variation between cells in the size of the nuclei and amount of cytoplasm present

Which of the following proteins is typically much higher in plasma than in serum?

Plasma is the fluid portion of blood. Serum is the same as plasma except that it is obtained after blood has clotted, the process where fibrinogen is converted to a fibrin clot

What is a round or spherical shaped bacteria called?

Coccus

Which stain is used to look for lipids or fats and is helpful in looking for intestinal malabsorption?

Intestinal malabsorption is detected via the Sudan Stain Test. It is performed on feces to look for fat. Sudan stain is a dye which stains for lipids specifically

Name 2 gram-positive bacteria.

Streptococcus and Staphylococcus are the two most common gram-positives (cocci) to know about

Granulocytes microscopically evaluated on a blood smear (i.e. CBC) include which cells?

Neutrophils, Basophils, Eosinophils (Cells that have granules)

What does a Wright's stain do?

Used to stain blood smears when doing a differential -stains red cells red and white cells various shades of blue/purple, allowing for subtle color differences between the different white cells to enhance proper identification

What do spherocytes look like under the microscope?

Red blood cells that are small, very dark, and perfectly round

Laboratory Procedures Flashcards

(104 cards)