1
Q
What is classical conditioning?
A
A learning process that explains involuntary, automatic responses to stimuli
Initially described by Ivan Pavlov through studies involving dogs and salivation.
2
Q
Who initially described classical conditioning?
A
Ivan Pavlov
3
Q
What is an unconditioned stimulus (US)?
A
A stimulus that automatically elicits an unconditioned response (UR)
Example: meat powder in Pavlov’s studies.
4
Q
What is an unconditioned response (UR)?
A
A natural response elicited by an unconditioned stimulus (US)
5
Q
What is a conditioned stimulus (CS)?
A
A previously neutral stimulus that, after conditioning, elicits a conditioned response (CR)
6
Q
What is a conditioned response (CR)?
A
A learned response to a conditioned stimulus (CS)
7
Q
What is the relationship between the magnitude of a CR and a UR?
A
The magnitude of a CR is always less than the magnitude of the UR.
8
Q
What is delay conditioning?
A
A procedure where the CS precedes and overlaps with the US
Most effective conditioning procedure with an optimal delay of about one-half second.
9
Q
What is trace conditioning?
A
A procedure where the CS is presented and terminated just before the US
10
Q
What is simultaneous conditioning?
A
A procedure where the CS and US are presented and terminated at about the same time
11
Q
What is backward conditioning?
A
A procedure where the US is presented before the CS
Usually ineffective in establishing a CR.
12
Q
What is classical extinction?
A
Occurs when the CS is repeatedly presented without the US, leading to no CR
13
Q
What is spontaneous recovery?
A
The return of a CR in a reduced form after a period of time when the CS is presented alone
Suggests that extinction is a suppression of the CR, not an elimination.
14
Q
What is stimulus generalization?
A
When stimuli similar to the original CS elicit the CR without being paired with the US
15
Q
Provide an example of stimulus generalization.
A
Little Albert’s startle response to a white rat, which generalized to other white furry objects.
16
Q
What is stimulus discrimination?
A
The ability to distinguish between the CS and similar stimuli
17
Q
What is experimental neurosis?
A
Unusual behaviors observed in dogs during difficult discrimination tasks
Caused by a conflict between excitatory and inhibitory processes in the central nervous system.
18
Q
What is conditioned inhibition?
A
A method for reducing or eliminating a CR by pairing a CS with a new neutral stimulus without the US
19
Q
What is higher-order conditioning?
A
When a CS is paired with a neutral stimulus, making the neutral stimulus also a CS
20
Q
What is compound conditioning?
A
Occurs when two or more stimuli are presented together
Includes blocking and overshadowing.
21
Q
What is blocking in compound conditioning?
A
When a previously conditioned stimulus prevents the conditioning of a new stimulus
22
Q
What is overshadowing in compound conditioning?
A
When a more salient stimulus overshadows a less salient stimulus during conditioning trials
23
Q
What is the main goal of interventions based on classical conditioning?
A
To decrease or eliminate an undesirable behavior using extinction or counterconditioning.
24
Q
Name one intervention that uses classical extinction to alter behavior.
A
Exposure with response prevention.
25
What are the two assumptions underlying exposure with response prevention?
* Anxiety-arousing stimuli become conditioned stimuli that elicit anxiety
* Conditioned fear response never extinguishes due to avoidance of the conditioned stimulus.
26
What is the conditioned stimulus (CS) in the example of a fear of elevators?
Elevator.
27
What is the unconditioned stimulus (US) in the elevator fear example?
Earthquake.
28
What is flooding in exposure with response prevention?
Sustained exposure to stimuli that elicit the most intense levels of anxiety.
29
What is graded exposure?
Progressive exposure to anxiety-arousing stimuli, starting from the least anxiety-arousing to the most.
30
True or False: Graded exposure is more acceptable to clients who resist experiencing high levels of anxiety.
True.
31
What are safety behaviors in the context of anxiety disorders?
* Carrying a water bottle
* Being accompanied by a family member or friend.
32
What is cue exposure therapy (CET) used to treat?
Substance use disorders.
33
What does cue exposure therapy involve?
Exposing a client to cues associated with a substance while prohibiting substance use.
34
What is the goal of cue exposure therapy?
To weaken the strength of the relationship between the cues and substance use.
35
What is implosive therapy?
A type of exposure conducted in imagination that encourages exaggeration of the feared object or event.
36
What does Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) primarily treat?
PTSD.
37
What is the adaptive information processing (AIP) model in EMDR?
Pathology results from traumatic experiences not being fully processed by the brain.
38
What does systematic desensitization involve?
* Learning deep muscle relaxation
* Creating an anxiety hierarchy
* Imagining stimuli while using relaxation.
39
What is the purpose of the anxiety hierarchy in systematic desensitization?
To list stimuli that cause low to high levels of anxiety.
40
What is aversion therapy also known as?
Aversive counterconditioning.
41
What is the basic principle of aversion therapy?
Pairing stimuli associated with problem behavior with an unconditioned stimulus that produces an unpleasant response.
42
What is covert sensitization?
Aversion therapy conducted in imagination.
43
What is the purpose of imagining a relief scene in covert sensitization?
To experience a sense of relief or other positive sensation after refraining from the problem behavior.
44
What are the three levels of memory in the multi-store model?
Sensory memory, short-term memory, long-term memory
45
What is the duration of iconic sensory memory?
About one-half second
46
What is the duration of echoic sensory memory?
About two seconds
47
What happens to sensory information when we pay attention to it?
It is transferred to short-term memory
48
What is the duration of short-term memory without rehearsal?
About 20 seconds
49
What is memory span?
The storage capacity of short-term memory, also known as primary memory
50
According to Miller, what is the capacity of short-term memory?
Between 7 ± 2 units of information
51
What technique can be used to expand the capacity of short-term memory?
Chunking
52
What is the role of working memory?
Processing and manipulating information in short-term memory
53
What is the believed capacity and duration of long-term memory?
Unlimited capacity and duration
54
What are the two types of long-term memory?
Recent (secondary) and remote (tertiary) memory
55
What are the two classifications of declarative memory?
Semantic memory and episodic memory
56
What are procedural memories also referred to as?
Nondeclarative memories
57
What is an example of a prospective memory?
Remembering that you have a doctor’s appointment in two weeks
58
True or False: Implicit memory requires conscious effort to retrieve.
False
59
What is priming?
A phenomenon where exposure to a stimulus facilitates or inhibits response to a similar stimulus
60
What is the DRM procedure used for?
Studying false memories
61
What is the effect of proactive interference?
Previously learned information interferes with learning new information
62
What is retroactive interference?
Newly acquired information interferes with recalling previously acquired information
63
Name one technique for improving memory.
Elaborative rehearsal, mnemonics, encoding specificity, practice testing
64
What is elaborative rehearsal?
Making new information meaningful by relating it to something already known
65
What is the keyword method used for?
Paired associate learning using visual imagery
66
What does the encoding specificity hypothesis state?
Retrieval is maximized when encoding and retrieval conditions are the same
67
What is the testing effect?
The positive impact of practice testing on memory retention
68
What is the focus of cognitive learning theories?
Mental processes responsible for the acquisition of information and skills
69
What did Tolman's latent learning study with rats demonstrate?
Rats formed cognitive maps without reinforcement
70
What is the Deese-Roediger-McDermott (DRM) procedure used to study?
False memories through semantically related word lists
71
What is imagination inflation?
Inducing false memories by having subjects repeatedly imagine non-occurring events
72
What is trace decay theory?
The theory that memories deteriorate over time without rehearsal
73
What is interference theory?
Forgetting attributed to disruption by previously or recently acquired information
74
Fill in the blank: Procedural memories are also known as _______.
Nondeclarative memories
75
What are the two types of interference identified in interference theory?
Proactive interference and retroactive interference
76
What is the method of loci?
A mnemonic that links items to specific objects in a familiar location
77
What is the primary function of the central executive in Baddeley’s model?
Controlling the three subsystems of working memory
78
What role does the phonological loop serve in working memory?
Temporary storage of verbal information
79
What is the episodic buffer's function in working memory?
Integrating verbal, visual, and spatial information
80
What are the two types of declarative memory?
Semantic memory and episodic memory
81
What did Tolman conclude about the performance of Group 3 rats after day twelve?
Group 3 rats' performance was similar to Group 1 rats, indicating they formed cognitive maps of the maze in the first 10 days without reinforcement.
## Footnote
This conclusion highlights the concept of latent learning.
82
What is latent learning?
Learning that occurs without reinforcement or being demonstrated in observable behaviors.
## Footnote
This concept was crucial in Tolman's research on cognitive maps.
83
Who conducted research on insight learning using chimpanzees?
Kohler.
## Footnote
Kohler's work was influenced by Gestalt psychology.
84
What was the significant behavior of Sultan the chimpanzee in Kohler's experiment?
Sultan moved a box under a banana to retrieve it after pacing back and forth.
## Footnote
This behavior illustrated the concept of insight learning.
85
What is Bandura's Social Cognitive Theory primarily based on?
Observational learning.
## Footnote
Bandura's research involved children's behavior after observing adult models.
86
What were the four mediational processes in Bandura's observational learning?
* Attention
* Retention
* Production
* Motivation
## Footnote
These processes are essential for effective observational learning.
87
How does reinforcement affect motivation in Bandura's theory?
Reinforcement increases motivation and can take the form of self-reinforcement, external reinforcement, or vicarious reinforcement.
## Footnote
This highlights the multifaceted nature of reinforcement in learning.
88
What is participant modeling in the context of treating phobias?
A method where the client observes a model gradually approach the feared stimulus with assistance.
## Footnote
This technique has been found to be effective in treating phobias.
89
True or False: Boys acted more aggressively than girls toward the doll in Bandura's studies.
True.
## Footnote
This difference was noted in the context of observational learning.
90
Fill in the blank: Kohler's insight learning was based on his research with _______.
[chimpanzees].
91
What is the 'a-ha' experience in the context of insight learning?
A sudden realization of the solution to a problem.
## Footnote
This term describes the moment Sultan understood how to retrieve the banana.
92
What type of models are more effective in participant modeling for phobias?
Coping models who gradually overcome their fear.
## Footnote
This contrasts with mastery models who approach the stimulus without hesitation.
93
What is operant conditioning?
A learning process that involves the acquisition, maintenance, and cessation of voluntary behaviors.
94
Who is associated with the law of effect?
E. L. Thorndike
95
What does the law of effect state?
Behaviors followed by satisfying consequences are likely to recur, while those followed by dissatisfying consequences are less likely to be repeated.
96
What is the main contribution of B. F. Skinner to operant conditioning?
Skinner extended Thorndike's work and proposed that behavior depends on its effects on the environment, specifically reinforcement or punishment.
97
Define positive reinforcement.
Occurs when a behavior increases or is maintained because a stimulus is applied following the behavior.
98
Define negative reinforcement.
Occurs when a behavior increases or is maintained because a stimulus is removed following the behavior.
99
Define positive punishment.
Occurs when a behavior decreases because a stimulus is applied following the behavior.
100
Define negative punishment.
Occurs when a behavior decreases because a stimulus is taken away following the behavior.
101
What is an extinction burst?
A temporary increase in behavior that occurs when reinforcement is withheld.
102
What is the fastest way to acquire a behavior?
Using a continuous reinforcement schedule.
103
What are the four types of intermittent reinforcement schedules?
* Fixed Interval (FI) * Variable Interval (VI) * Fixed Ratio (FR) * Variable Ratio (VR)
104
What is a Fixed Interval (FI) schedule?
Reinforcement is provided after a fixed period of time, regardless of behavior frequency.
105
What is a Variable Interval (VI) schedule?
Reinforcement is provided after intervals of varying and unpredictable lengths.
106
What is a Fixed Ratio (FR) schedule?
Reinforcement is provided after a specific number of responses.
107
What is a Variable Ratio (VR) schedule?
Reinforcement is provided after a variable number of responses.
108
What does thinning refer to in operant conditioning?
Reducing the amount of reinforcement for a behavior.
109
What is behavioral contrast?
Change in the frequency of two behaviors when the rate of reinforcement for one behavior is altered.
110
What is the matching law?
The rate of performing each behavior is proportional to the frequency of reinforcement for that behavior.
111
What are primary reinforcers?
Inherently reinforcing stimuli that satisfy basic survival needs.
112
What are secondary reinforcers?
Neutral stimuli that become reinforcing through association with primary reinforcers.
113
What is a generalized reinforcer?
A secondary reinforcer that can be exchanged for various primary reinforcers.
114
What is superstitious behavior?
Behavior that increases due to accidental reinforcement.
115
What is stimulus control?
When a behavior occurs in the presence of one stimulus but not another.
116
What are prompts in operant conditioning?
Cues that help initiate the performance of a behavior.
117
What is stimulus generalization?
When stimuli similar to the positive discriminative stimulus elicit the same response.
118
What is response generalization?
When reinforcement for a specific behavior increases the likelihood of similar behaviors occurring.
119
What is escape conditioning?
Behavior that allows an individual to escape an unpleasant stimulus.
120
What is avoidance conditioning?
Behavior that occurs to avoid an unpleasant stimulus that is about to be applied.
121
What is habituation?
Gradual decline in the frequency or magnitude of a response.
122
What are the three main components of interventions based on operant conditioning?
Positive reinforcement, punishment, and extinction
## Footnote
These components are used to modify behavior based on the principles of operant conditioning.
123
What is a functional behavioral assessment (FBA)?
A process consisting of several steps to identify the function of a behavior
## Footnote
Steps include collecting information about the target behavior, antecedents, consequences, testing hypotheses, and implementing interventions.
124
What is the first step in a functional behavioral assessment (FBA)?
Collect information about the target behavior using direct and indirect methods
## Footnote
Direct methods include observation, while indirect methods may involve family reports.
125
What does the second step of an FBA involve?
Collecting information about the antecedents and consequences maintaining the behavior
## Footnote
This information helps in developing hypotheses about the function of the behavior.
126
What is shaping in the context of positive reinforcement?
Reinforcing successive approximations to a desired behavior
## Footnote
Example includes teaching imitative speech by gradually reinforcing closer approximations.
127
Define chaining in operant conditioning.
Establishing a complex behavior consisting of separate responses, linked together
## Footnote
Can be forward or backward chaining, each involving a task analysis.
128
What is the difference between forward chaining and backward chaining?
Forward chaining starts with the first response; backward chaining starts with the last response
## Footnote
Both methods reinforce the learner after mastering each response.
129
What is the Premack principle?
Using a high frequency behavior as reinforcement for a low frequency behavior
## Footnote
Example: Allowing a child to play video games after completing homework.
130
What is overcorrection in the context of punishment?
A type of positive punishment involving a penalty following undesirable behavior
## Footnote
Includes restitution and positive practice procedures.
131
What does restitution involve in overcorrection?
Having the individual correct the consequences of their behavior
## Footnote
Example: Requiring a child to fix what they broke in a classroom.
132
Define response cost.
A type of negative punishment that involves removing a specific reinforcer after a behavior occurs
## Footnote
Example: A child loses video game time for aggressive behavior.
133
What is time out in operant conditioning?
Removing all sources of reinforcement following undesirable behavior for a brief period
## Footnote
Effective when applied immediately and consistently.
134
What is operant extinction?
Withholding reinforcement from a behavior that has been previously reinforced
## Footnote
Example: Stopping attention to a child who whines for attention.
135
What is differential reinforcement?
Combines extinction and positive reinforcement to weaken undesirable behavior and increase desirable behavior
## Footnote
Includes several types like DRI, DRA, DRO, and DRL.
136
What does differential reinforcement of incompatible behavior (DRI) involve?
Reinforcing an individual for engaging in a specified incompatible behavior
## Footnote
Example: Reinforcing a child for staying in their seat instead of getting up.
137
What is differential reinforcement of alternative behavior (DRA)?
Reinforcing an individual for engaging in one or more specified alternative behaviors
## Footnote
Example: Reinforcing a student for raising their hand instead of shouting.
138
Define differential reinforcement of other behavior (DRO).
Reinforcing the individual for engaging in any behaviors other than the undesirable behavior
## Footnote
Example: Ignoring hand-flapping and reinforcing appropriate activities.
139
What is differential reinforcement of low rates of behavior (DRL)?
Reinforcing an individual when they engage in the target behavior at or below a specified low rate
## Footnote
Example: Reinforcing a child for asking three or fewer questions in an hour.
EPPP
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