1
Q
What are the two communication patterns predictive of divorce identified by Gottman and Levenson?
A
- Emotionally volatile (attack-defend) pattern
- Emotionally inexpressive (avoidant) pattern
The emotionally volatile pattern is linked to early divorce, while the emotionally inexpressive pattern is associated with divorce later in marriage.
2
Q
What are the Four Horsemen of the Apocalypse according to Gottman and Levenson?
A
- Criticism
- Contempt
- Defensiveness
- Stonewalling
Contempt is noted as the single best predictor of divorce.
3
Q
How does age at the time of marriage affect the risk for divorce?
A
The risk for divorce decreases as the age at the time of marriage increases.
Younger couples are at a higher risk for divorce.
4
Q
What sociodemographic factors increase the risk for divorce?
A
- Lower socioeconomic status
- Having a child before marriage
- Previous marriage history
These factors contribute to an elevated risk of divorce.
5
Q
Which personality trait is most consistently linked to a high risk for divorce?
A
High levels of neuroticism.
Individuals with psychiatric disorders also have a higher likelihood of divorce.
6
Q
What are some effects of divorce on adults/parents?
A
- Lower levels of happiness
- Greater psychological distress
- More physical health problems
- More negative life events
Economic hardship is a key factor for women post-divorce.
7
Q
How does divorce affect custodial mothers’ parenting?
A
Custodial mothers may show less affection and be less consistent and more authoritarian in their discipline.
This can lead to a diminished capacity to parent for up to two years after the divorce.
8
Q
What age group of children often experiences the most negative outcomes after divorce?
A
Preschool children.
However, older children may face worse long-term consequences.
9
Q
What is the ‘sleeper effect’ in girls after divorce?
A
Girls may initially show few problems but later develop noncompliance, low self-esteem, and emotional issues in adolescence.
This can lead to early pregnancy and excessive worry about relationships.
10
Q
How does marital conflict affect children’s outcomes?
A
Marital conflict negatively impacts children regardless of whether parents are divorced or together.
Children from high-conflict intact families are often more poorly adjusted than those from low-conflict divorced families.
11
Q
What is the relationship between socioeconomic status and children’s outcomes after divorce?
A
Lower socioeconomic status following divorce is linked to academic and social problems for children.
Financial hardship increases the risk for negative outcomes.
12
Q
What is the impact of nonresident fathers’ contact on children’s outcomes?
A
The frequency of contact has less impact than child support payment, closeness of the father-child relationship, and authoritative parenting style.
These factors are more significant for children’s adjustment.
13
Q
What adjustment outcomes are associated with children living in stepfamilies?
A
Children in simple stepfamilies tend to have better adjustment over time compared to those in blended stepfamilies.
Authoritative parenting by both biological and stepparents can improve outcomes.
14
Q
Which gender tends to have more difficulties adjusting to stepfamilies?
A
Girls.
Girls are more likely to be hostile towards stepfathers and have academic and behavioral problems.
15
Q
What is the relationship between premarital cohabitation and divorce rates?
A
Initially linked to higher rates of divorce, but later studies found a complex relationship with age being more significant.
Cohabitation before marriage may decrease divorce likelihood in the first year but increase it thereafter.
16
Q
What impact does premarital sex have on marital satisfaction and divorce risk?
A
- Premarital sex with multiple partners is linked to lower marital satisfaction and higher divorce risk
- One premarital sex partner is associated with higher marital happiness
The effect increases modestly with more partners.
17
Q
What has research found about marital status and life expectancy?
A
Married individuals generally have longer life expectancies than never married individuals.
Women have longer life expectancies than men, with married women having the longest.
18
Q
How does the transition to parenthood affect relationship quality?
A
It typically leads to a decline in relationship satisfaction and an increase in conflict.
Early transitions in marriage show the most significant declines.
19
Q
What are the outcomes for adopted children compared to biological children?
A
Adopted children are at greater risk for psychological, behavioral, and academic problems despite advantages in family income and education.
Pre-adoption experiences often contribute to these negative outcomes.
20
Q
What defines ‘helicopter parents’?
A
Parents who are overly involved in every aspect of their child’s life, preventing them from developing independence.
This parenting style leads to high stress levels and low autonomy in children.
21
Q
What are the consequences associated with helicopter parenting?
A
- High levels of stress and anxiety
- Increased sense of entitlement
- Low levels of autonomy
- Decreased academic motivation and achievement
Mediators include poor emotional and behavioral self-regulation in children.
22
Q
What is behavioral self-regulation?
A
The ability to manage one’s emotions, thoughts, and behaviors in different situations
It is essential for academic motivation and achievement.
23
Q
What are the negative outcomes associated with overcontrolling parenting?
A
Decreased academic motivation and achievement, poor emotional and behavioral self-regulation
Studies show these outcomes emerge as early as age 2.
24
Q
What are the effects of helicopter parenting on college students?
A
Increased symptoms of depression, increased substance use problems, decreased competence in friendships and romantic relationships
Research by Cook (2020) highlights these issues.
25
Do children raised by gay or lesbian parents differ from those raised by heterosexual parents?
No, they do not differ in psychological adjustment, intellectual functioning, gender identity, or sexual orientation
## Footnote
Studies support this conclusion.
26
What are some reasons grandparents become full-time caregivers?
Substance abuse, mental health problems, incarceration, death of biological parents, abuse or neglect by parents
## Footnote
These factors lead to custodial grandparenting.
27
What are positive consequences for custodial grandparents?
Closer relationships with grandchildren, increased sense of purpose, nurturing family relationships, second chance in life
## Footnote
Research indicates these benefits.
28
What negative consequences do custodial grandparents face?
Higher stress, depression, anxiety, insomnia, chronic health problems
## Footnote
These issues stem from neglecting their own health and financial difficulties.
29
What is the empty nest phenomenon?
The situation after the last child leaves home, often leading to an emotional crisis for parents
## Footnote
Research shows it can lead to increased marital satisfaction.
30
What is intimate partner violence (IPV)?
Physical violence, sexual violence, stalking, and psychological aggression by an intimate partner
## Footnote
Defined by the Centers for Disease Control.
31
What are the three phases of Walker’s cycle of violence?
Tension building phase, acute battering incident, loving contrition phase
## Footnote
This cycle repeats over time in IPV situations.
32
What are the four types of IPV according to Johnson’s typology?
Intimate terrorism, violent resistance, mutual violent control, situational couple violence
## Footnote
These types differ in motivation and frequency of perpetration.
33
What characterizes intimate terrorism?
Perpetrated mainly by men to control female partners, often accompanied by threats and emotional abuse
## Footnote
It aligns with Walker's cycle of violence.
34
What is violent resistance?
Perpetrated by women in response to a violent and controlling male partner, motivated by self-defense
## Footnote
It is not aimed at controlling the partner.
35
What is mutual violent control?
Violence perpetrated by both partners to gain control over their relationship
## Footnote
It is the least common type of IPV.
36
What defines situational couple violence?
Violence that is situationally provoked, can be one-sided or mutual, and varies in severity
## Footnote
It is the most common type of IPV.
37
What does child maltreatment include?
Physical abuse, sexual abuse, psychological abuse, neglect
## Footnote
Neglect is the most common form of maltreatment.
38
What factors affect a child's risk for maltreatment?
Age, gender, race/ethnicity, family structure
## Footnote
Younger children and certain demographic groups are at higher risk.
39
What is the relationship between childhood maltreatment and adult obesity?
Childhood maltreatment is linked to increased risk for obesity in adulthood, potentially mediated by depression
## Footnote
Danese and Tan (2014) found this connection.
40
What therapies are empirically supported for child maltreatment?
Parent-child interaction therapy, trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy
## Footnote
Both are effective for different age groups and types of trauma.
41
What are the two phases of Parent-Child Interaction Therapy (PCIT)?
Child-directed interaction phase, parent-directed interaction phase
## Footnote
Each phase focuses on different aspects of parent-child relationships.
42
What is cultural socialization?
Parental practices intended to teach youth about their history, cultural heritage, customs, and instill pride
## Footnote
Linked to positive outcomes in children and adolescents.
43
What effect do teacher expectations have on student achievement?
Teacher expectations can create a self-fulfilling prophecy affecting student performance
## Footnote
Rosenthal and Jacobson (1968) demonstrated this effect.
44
How do male and female teachers interact differently with students?
Male teachers call on male students more often and give them more attention, praise, and feedback
## Footnote
This reflects gender stereotypes in educational settings.
45
What does the nature-nurture controversy refer to?
Disagreements about the relative roles of genetic and environmental influences on development.
46
What are the three main mechanisms of inheritance?
* Single gene-pair inheritance
* Sex-linked inheritance
* Polygenic inheritance
47
What does heritability estimate indicate?
The extent to which variability in phenotype in a given population is attributable to differences in genotype.
48
What is the heritability estimate for height?
.80, meaning 80% of variability in height is due to genetic factors.
49
How does socioeconomic status (SES) affect intelligence heritability estimates?
Heritability estimates for intelligence are about .10 for low-SES children and .70 for high-SES children.
50
What is the difference between critical and sensitive periods in development?
* Critical period: Limited time for necessary exposure to environmental events
* Sensitive period: Optimal time for exposure, but not necessary
51
What are the five environmental systems in Bronfenbrenner's ecological theory?
* Microsystem
* Mesosystem
* Exosystem
* Macrosystem
* Chronosystem
52
What is fetal programming?
The theory that environmental events in utero can have permanent and long-lasting effects.
53
What is the range of reported heritability estimates for personality?
.40 to .50, indicating both genetics and environmental factors contribute to personality.
54
What are shared and non-shared environmental factors?
* Shared factors: Parenting style, parental beliefs, family SES
* Non-shared factors: Differential treatment by parents, different experiences with peers
55
What is the average heritability estimate for intelligence?
.50, but it varies with age.
56
What is the median correlation for IQ scores of identical twins reared together?
.85
57
What does behavioral genetics study?
The manner in which genetic variation affects psychological phenotypes, including cognitive abilities and personality.
58
What is passive genotype-environment correlation?
Occurs when children inherit genes that predispose them to certain characteristics and are exposed to supportive environments.
59
What is the reaction range concept?
Genetic make-up determines how people respond to environmental influences.
60
What does Dynamic Systems Theory (DST) emphasize?
The interaction of biology, environment, self-control, and cognitive processes in development.
61
What is canalization in genetic make-up?
The tendency for genetic make-up to restrict developmental outcomes regardless of environmental circumstances.
62
What is evocative genotype-environment correlation?
Occurs when a child's genetic make-up evokes certain reactions from others that reinforce the child's characteristics.
63
What is active genotype-environment correlation also known as?
Niche-picking.
64
What is the significance of the equal environment assumption in twin studies?
It assumes monozygotic and dizygotic twins have similar environments, affecting the interpretation of genetic influence.
65
What is the impact of SES on children's IQ scores according to adoption studies?
Adopted children in high-SES families have higher IQ scores than those who remain in low-SES families.
66
What is the correlation coefficient for biological siblings reared apart?
.24
67
What is the correlation coefficient for adopted siblings reared together?
.31
68
What does the term 'niche-picking' refer to?
The process by which individuals actively seek experiences that fit their genetic predispositions.
69
What are the two types of environmental factors that influence intelligence?
* Shared environmental factors
* Non-shared environmental factors
70
True or False: Shared environmental factors have a significant influence on personality throughout the lifespan.
False
71
What are the implications of prenatal programming for future health?
Prenatal exposure to environmental factors can increase the risk for physical and mental health disorders.
72
What precedes and integrates to become crawling in infants?
Kicking, reaching, and rhythmic rocking while on all fours
## Footnote
Crawling is not a sudden emergence but a culmination of these earlier motor activities.
73
Do major motor milestones emerge at different ages for all infants?
No, they emerge in the same sequence and at about the same age
## Footnote
The development of these milestones varies based on individual and environmental factors.
74
What factors influence the specific ways motor milestones develop in infants?
* Characteristics of the infant (e.g., perceptual ability, activity level)
* Characteristics of the infant's physical and social environment (e.g., physical barriers, social support)
* The infant's goals and desires (e.g., to obtain a toy)
## Footnote
These factors contribute to how infants achieve motor milestones.
75
Define epigenetics.
The study of changes in organisms brought about by modification of gene expression, rather than by alteration of the genetic code in DNA
## Footnote
Epigenetics focuses on how genes are expressed without changing the underlying DNA sequence.
76
What is the best understood epigenetic mechanism?
DNA methylation
## Footnote
DNA methylation involves adding a methyl group to DNA, preventing certain genes from being expressed.
77
What are potential causes of epigenetic changes?
* Diet
* Environmental pollutants
* Child abuse
## Footnote
These psychosocial and environmental factors can lead to modifications in gene expression.
78
Can certain epigenetic changes be passed down to descendants?
Yes, some evidence suggests that epigenetic changes can be inherited
## Footnote
This means that the effects of epigenetic changes can persist across generations.
79
Fill in the blank: Epigenetics causes changes in phenotype without changing _______.
genotype
## Footnote
This highlights the distinction between gene expression and the genetic code.
80
What are the three periods of prenatal development?
1. Germinal period 2. Embryonic period 3. Fetal period
## Footnote
The germinal period extends from conception to the end of the second week. The embryonic period extends from the third through the eighth weeks. The fetal period begins at week 9 and continues to birth.
81
What is the germinal period?
Extends from conception to the end of the second week when the zygote implants on the uterine wall
## Footnote
Exposure to teratogens during this period has an 'all-or-none' effect.
82
What happens during the embryonic period?
Major organs and structures are forming, and exposure to teratogens is most likely to cause major defects
## Footnote
This period lasts from the third through the eighth weeks.
83
What is the fetal period?
Begins when major organs and structures have formed and extends from weeks 9 through birth
## Footnote
During this period, organs and structures grow and mature.
84
What is the age of viability?
The earliest age at which a premature baby can survive outside the womb, occurring between 22 and 26 weeks
## Footnote
This is an important milestone in fetal development.
85
What are the three trimesters of pregnancy?
1. First trimester: weeks 1-13 2. Second trimester: weeks 14-27 3. Third trimester: weeks 28-birth
## Footnote
Each trimester corresponds to a specific developmental phase.
86
What are chromosomal abnormalities?
Include chromosomal deletions, extra chromosomes, and missing chromosomes
87
What causes Prader-Willi syndrome?
Most often caused by a deletion on the paternal chromosome 15
## Footnote
Symptoms include short stature, hypotonia, and obesity.
88
What are the symptoms of Angelman syndrome?
Microcephaly, severe developmental delays, and a tendency to be unnaturally happy
## Footnote
Usually caused by a deletion on the maternal chromosome 15.
89
What is cri-du-chat syndrome caused by?
A deletion on chromosome 5
## Footnote
Symptoms include a high-pitched cry and intellectual disability.
90
What is Klinefelter syndrome?
Affects males and is due to the presence of two or more X chromosomes in addition to a single Y chromosome
## Footnote
Symptoms include incomplete development of secondary sex characteristics and learning disabilities.
91
What is Turner syndrome?
Due to the partial or complete deletion of one of the X chromosomes in females
## Footnote
Symptoms include short stature, infertility, and skeletal abnormalities.
92
What causes Rett syndrome?
Usually caused by mutations in the MECP2 gene and almost exclusively affects females
## Footnote
Symptoms include slowed head growth and loss of motor skills.
93
What is Down syndrome?
An autosomal disorder caused by an abnormality on chromosome 21, most commonly due to trisomy 21
## Footnote
Symptoms include intellectual disability and physical growth delays.
94
What are the three types of Down syndrome?
1. Trisomy 21 2. Mosaic trisomy 21 3. Translocation trisomy 21
## Footnote
Trisomy 21 accounts for about 95% of cases.
95
What is the relationship between maternal age and trisomy 21?
Older maternal age increases the risk of having a baby with trisomy 21
## Footnote
The risk increases sharply after 30 years of age.
96
What is Huntington's disease?
An autosomal dominant disorder caused by a single dominant gene
## Footnote
A child has a 50% chance of inheriting the disease if one parent has it.
97
What is phenylketonuria (PKU)?
An autosomal recessive disorder caused by two recessive genes
## Footnote
Affected individuals cannot adequately metabolize phenylalanine.
98
What are teratogens?
Drugs, diseases, and environmental hazards that cause developmental defects in the embryo or fetus
99
What is fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD)?
A group of disorders caused by prenatal exposure to alcohol
## Footnote
Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is the most severe form.
100
What are the symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)?
Small eye openings, central nervous system dysfunction, and retarded physical growth
## Footnote
FAS is characterized by irreversible abnormalities.
101
What are the effects of prenatal exposure to cocaine?
Can cause spontaneous abortion, premature birth, and low birth weight
## Footnote
Exposed infants may exhibit irritability and attention problems.
102
What percentage of adult weight is a newborn's brain at birth?
25%
## Footnote
The brain grows rapidly, reaching about 80% of its adult weight by age two.
103
What is synaptogenesis?
The creation of new synapses
## Footnote
It contributes to brain growth in early development.
104
What is synaptic pruning?
The loss of unused synapses
## Footnote
It continues through adolescence and helps in making synapses more efficient.
105
When does the prefrontal cortex reach maturity?
Late teens to early to mid-20s
## Footnote
It is the least developed area of the brain at birth.
106
At what age does brain weight and volume begin to decrease?
Around 30 years of age
## Footnote
This process accelerates after age 60.
107
Which areas of the brain show the greatest decrease in size with age?
Frontal lobes and parietal lobes
## Footnote
Especially the prefrontal cortex.
108
What is neurogenesis?
The production of new neurons
## Footnote
It occurs in the hippocampus and possibly other areas of the brain.
109
At birth, how does a newborn's visual acuity compare to that of adults?
Sees at 20 feet what adults see at 400 to 600 feet
## Footnote
Visual acuity improves significantly by 7 or 8 months.
110
What visual stimuli do newborns prefer?
Patterned stimuli and faces
## Footnote
They prefer their mother's face over strangers by one to two months.
111
What are the three types of depth information relied on for depth perception?
* Kinetic cues
* Binocular cues
* Pictorial cues
## Footnote
These develop at different stages in infancy.
112
What is presbyopia?
Difficulty focusing on nearby objects due to lens hardening
## Footnote
It typically occurs around 40 years of age.
113
What is the typical sensitivity of newborns to sound immediately after birth?
Somewhat less than adults, especially for high-frequency sounds
## Footnote
Sensitivity develops quickly, nearing adult levels by six months.
114
What is presbycusis?
Decreased sensitivity to high-frequency sounds
## Footnote
It begins around 40 years of age and affects understanding of certain voices.
115
When do newborns have a well-developed sense of touch?
At birth
## Footnote
They respond to touch by turning their heads in that direction.
116
What is Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS)?
Unexpected death of an infant under 1 year, unexplained after investigation
## Footnote
It is associated with several risk factors.
117
What factors increase the risk for SIDS?
* Male gender
* Race (African American or Native American)
* Premature birth
* Unsafe sleep practices
## Footnote
Additional factors include low birth weight and poor prenatal care.
118
What are the gross motor milestones for 1-3 months?
* Chin and chest up in prone position
* Props on forearms in prone position
* Rolls to side
## Footnote
These milestones are part of early motor development.
119
What is the adolescent growth spurt?
Rapid increase in height and weight at the beginning of adolescence
## Footnote
It begins at about 10-11 years for girls and 12-13 for boys.
120
What are the behavioral consequences of early onset puberty in boys?
* Higher self-esteem
* Greater popularity
* Better athletic skills
## Footnote
However, it can also lead to higher levels of alcohol use and antisocial behavior.
121
What are protective factors against adolescent substance abuse?
* Parental disapproval of substance use
* Supportive parenting
* Academic success
## Footnote
Other factors include good self-control and involvement in extracurricular activities.
122
What is the relationship between the limbic system and prefrontal cortex development in adolescents?
The limbic system develops earlier than the prefrontal cortex
## Footnote
This difference influences decision-making and impulsive behaviors.
123
What are some negative consequences of chronic sleep deprivation in adolescents?
* Increased risk for depression
* Impaired concentration
* Increased physical symptoms
## Footnote
It is linked to biological, societal, and psychosocial factors.
124
What biological factor contributes to delayed sleep onset in adolescents?
Changes in melatonin secretion
## Footnote
This is part of the puberty process.
125
What is the fraternal birth order effect?
The likelihood of a boy being gay increases with each older brother
## Footnote
This phenomenon is explained by the maternal immune hypothesis.
126
What is the fraternal birth order effect?
The likelihood that a boy will be gay increases for each older brother born to the same mother.
## Footnote
This effect has been studied extensively, with findings suggesting a correlation between the number of older brothers and the sexual orientation of subsequent male offspring.
127
What is the maternal immune hypothesis?
It proposes that the fraternal birth order effect reflects the progressive immunization of some mothers to male-specific antigens by each succeeding male fetus, affecting sexual differentiation in the brain.
## Footnote
This theory was discussed by Blanchard in 2004.
128
Have the results of studies confirming the fraternal birth order effect been challenged?
Yes, they have been challenged primarily on methodological grounds.
## Footnote
An example of this challenge can be found in the work of Vilsmeier et al. (2021).
129
Define sexual fluidity.
Changes in a person’s sexual attractions and/or behaviors over time and in different situations that are inconsistent with the person’s self-described sexual orientation.
130
Is sexual fluidity more common in men or women?
It is somewhat more common in women.
## Footnote
This observation was noted in studies conducted by Diamond in 2016.
131
How does sexual fluidity differ from bisexuality?
Sexual fluidity is transient and situation dependent, while bisexuality involves a stable and persistent pattern of sexual attraction to both men and women.
132
What are the major theories of language acquisition?
Learning theory, nativist theory, social interactionist theory
## Footnote
These theories explain different mechanisms behind how language is acquired.
133
According to learning theory, how does language development occur?
Through imitation and reinforcement
## Footnote
This theory suggests language development is similar to other complex behaviors.
134
What does nativist theory propose about language acquisition?
Humans are biologically programmed to acquire language
## Footnote
Chomsky's version includes the concept of a language acquisition device (LAD).
135
What is the language acquisition device (LAD)?
An inborn linguistic processor that helps children understand language
## Footnote
Proposed by Chomsky as part of nativist theory.
136
What evidence supports nativist theory?
All languages have the same basic grammatical structure and children pass through the same stages of language acquisition
## Footnote
This indicates a universal aspect of language development.
137
What does social interactionist theory emphasize in language acquisition?
A combination of biological and social factors
## Footnote
It stresses the role of a rich language environment and social interaction.
138
What is child-directed speech also known as?
Parentese
## Footnote
This type of speech facilitates language development in children.
139
What are the five major components of language?
Phonology, morphology, syntax, semantics, pragmatics
## Footnote
Each component plays a crucial role in language understanding and use.
140
What does phonology refer to?
The rules for using phonemes, the smallest units of sound in a language
## Footnote
Each language has a limited number of phonemes.
141
What are morphemes?
The smallest units of language that have meaning
## Footnote
Includes free morphemes (standalone) and bound morphemes (require attachment).
142
Define syntax in the context of language.
Rules that determine how words can be combined into sentences
## Footnote
Syntax can vary between languages.
143
What is semantics concerned with?
The meaning of words, phrases, and sentences
## Footnote
Focuses on literal meanings.
144
What does pragmatics involve?
The use and meaning of verbal and nonverbal language in social contexts
## Footnote
Includes conversational rules and body language.
145
What types of cries can be distinguished in infants?
Low-pitched rhythmic cry (hunger/discomfort), shrill cry (anger/frustration), loud high-pitched cry (pain)
## Footnote
Each cry signals different emotional states.
146
True or False: Mothers responding quickly to crying infants always leads to less crying over time.
False
## Footnote
Studies show mixed results regarding the response to infant crying.
147
What is the vocabulary spurt?
Rapid increase in vocabulary that begins at about 18 months of age
## Footnote
Children start to learn words more quickly during this period.
148
What is holophrastic speech?
Using a single word to express an entire thought
## Footnote
The meaning depends on context and tone of voice.
149
Define telegraphic speech.
Consists of two content words and omits function words
## Footnote
Examples include “want juice” and “doggie gone.”
150
What is the critical period for language acquisition?
A time frame during which exposure to language is crucial for proficiency
## Footnote
Studies suggest it varies for different aspects of language.
151
What is the effect of social isolation on language acquisition?
Negative impact on language proficiency
## Footnote
Studies show that children raised in isolation struggle with language skills.
152
What is language brokering?
Translating and interpreting within immigrant families by children or adolescents
## Footnote
It has both positive and negative effects on those who act as brokers.
153
What is code-switching?
The use of more than one language within a single interaction
## Footnote
Often occurs unconsciously among bilingual speakers.
154
What is overextension in language errors?
Using a word too broadly
## Footnote
For example, calling all furry animals “doggie.”
155
What is underextension in language errors?
Using a word too narrowly
## Footnote
For instance, only referring to the family pet as “doggie.”
156
What is overregularization?
Misapplying rules for plurals and past tense
## Footnote
Example: saying “foots” instead of “feet.”
157
Define paralanguage.
How something is said rather than what is said
## Footnote
Includes prosody and nonwords like “huh” and “umm.”
158
What is Piaget’s Constructivist Theory?
A theory that assumes cognitive development relies on biological maturation and experience, where children construct knowledge by interacting with their environment.
159
What is equilibration in Piaget's theory?
An innate drive toward a state of equilibrium between one's current ways of thinking and the environment.
160
Define assimilation in Piaget's theory.
The process of understanding a new object or situation using an existing cognitive schema.
161
Define accommodation in Piaget's theory.
The modification of an existing cognitive schema or the creation of a new schema to fit a new object or situation.
162
What are the four universal stages of cognitive development according to Piaget?
* Sensorimotor stage * Preoperational stage * Concrete operational stage * Formal operational stage
163
What is the age range for the sensorimotor stage?
Birth to about 2 years of age.
164
What is object permanence?
The ability to recognize that people and objects continue to exist even when they can’t be seen or heard.
165
What is representational thought?
The ability to use mental images, gestures, and words to represent people, objects, and events.
166
What is the age range for the preoperational stage?
About 2 to 7 years of age.
167
What is egocentrism in the context of the preoperational stage?
The inability to understand that other people do not experience things the same way one does.
168
What is conservation?
The understanding that certain physical characteristics of an object remain the same even when the object's outward appearance changes.
169
What is the age range for the concrete operational stage?
About 7 to 12 years of age.
170
What is decentration?
The ability to focus on more than one aspect of an object or situation at the same time.
171
What is the age range for the formal operational stage?
About 12 years of age and continues into adulthood.
172
What is hypothetical-deductive reasoning?
The ability to derive and test alternative hypotheses to determine the solution to a problem.
173
What is Vygotsky’s Sociocultural Theory?
A theory that views cognitive development as influenced by social and cultural factors.
174
What is private speech according to Vygotsky?
The speech that children utter aloud to guide their actions.
175
What is the zone of proximal development?
The gap between what a child can currently do independently and what he or she can do with assistance.
176
What is scaffolding in Vygotsky's theory?
The assistance provided to a child by another person, often involving prompts, questions, and feedback.
177
What is Theory of Mind (ToM)?
The ability to explain and predict other people's behavior by attributing to them independent mental states.
178
At what age does Theory of Mind typically develop?
Between 3 and 5 years of age.
179
What is the misinformation effect?
When memories of an event are altered by subsequent exposure to misleading information.
180
What is childhood amnesia?
The inability of most adults to recall events experienced before the age of three or four.
181
What is the reminiscence bump?
The phenomenon where older adults recall more events from the ages of 15 to 25.
182
What is the effect of increasing age on memory?
Older adults experience the greatest decline in recent long-term memory, followed by working memory.
183
Fill in the blank: According to Piaget, the _______ stage involves learning about the environment through sensory input and motor actions.
sensorimotor
184
True or False: Vygotsky believed that cognitive development occurs first on an intrapersonal level.
False
185
What is magical thinking?
The belief that just thinking about something can make it happen.
186
What is animism?
The belief that inanimate objects have lifelike qualities.
187
What is centration?
The tendency to focus on one aspect of an object or situation to the exclusion of all other aspects.
188
What is irreversibility in cognitive development?
The inability to understand that an action or process can be reversed.
189
What memory aspect experiences the greatest age-related decline in older adults?
Recent long-term (secondary) memory
## Footnote
Followed by working memory aspect of short-term memory
190
Which memory types are relatively unaffected by increasing age?
* Storage aspect of short-term memory (primary memory)
* Remote long-term memory (tertiary memory)
191
What encoding strategies do older adults tend to use less effectively?
Effective encoding strategies
## Footnote
Older adults benefit from training in memory strategies
192
What are the two primary aspects of long-term memory?
* Declarative memory (explicit memory)
* Nondeclarative memory (implicit memory)
193
What does declarative memory include?
* Episodic memories
* Semantic memories
194
Define self-defining memory (SDM).
Component of episodic memory contributing to personal identity
## Footnote
Characteristics include emotional intensity, vividness, high levels of repetition, linkage to similar memories, and connections to enduring concerns or unresolved conflicts
195
How do older adults' self-defining memories compare to those of younger adults?
More vivid, positive, and of greater importance
## Footnote
Older adults' SDMs are more likely to include integrative meaning statements
196
What is nondeclarative memory?
Memories retrieved automatically or with little effort
## Footnote
Includes procedural memories, classical conditioning memories, and priming effects
197
What typically happens to episodic memory with increasing age?
Declines with increasing age
198
What happens to semantic memory as age increases?
Shows little or no age-related decline
199
What is the synchrony effect?
Age-related differences in optimal performance times for cognitive tasks
200
When is the optimal time for older adults to perform cognitive tasks?
Morning
201
When is the optimal time for younger adults to perform cognitive tasks?
Late afternoon and evening
202
What is one consistent finding about sex differences in cognitive abilities?
Reliable differences are rare and generally small
203
Which gender tends to outperform the other in mathematical reasoning by adolescence?
Boys outperform girls
204
Which gender typically scores higher on verbal ability measures throughout childhood?
Girls
205
In visual/spatial abilities, which gender generally scores higher?
Boys
206
Research has shown that boys engage in more of what type of aggression?
Physical aggression
207
How do boys and girls compare in relational aggression?
Research findings are inconsistent
208
What has been found about self-esteem across genders?
Higher among males than females beginning in late childhood
209
What is the typical trajectory of self-esteem for both genders?
* High in childhood
* Drops in adolescence
* Increases from late adolescence to middle adulthood
* Declines in late adulthood
210
What developmental vulnerabilities do boys face compared to girls?
More vulnerabilities to pre- and perinatal hazards and diseases
211
What social factor contributes to sex differences in cognitive abilities?
Gender-role stereotypes
212
How do parents' views on gender-role stereotypes affect children?
Boys feel confident in math while girls underestimate their abilities
213
What happens to gender-typing by parents before birth?
Begins before birth with choices in clothing and toys
214
How do parents describe newborn daughters compared to sons?
Daughters as soft and delicate; sons as strong and alert
215
What are the two most frequently cited theories of moral development?
Piaget and Kohlberg's theories
216
What does Piaget propose is necessary for moral development?
Cognitive development
217
How does Piaget compare the understanding of moral standards?
To the process of understanding game rules
218
What is the Premoral Stage according to Piaget?
Lasts from birth to about five years of age; limited understanding of rules and moral behavior
219
What is the Heteronomous Stage?
Begins at about five or six years; children believe rules are made by authorities and cannot be changed
220
What characterizes the Autonomous Stage in Piaget's theory?
Begins around 10 or 11 years; children believe rules are determined by agreement and can be changed
221
What is a major criticism of Piaget's theory?
Underestimates the cognitive abilities and moral understanding of young children
222
What is the Heinz dilemma used for in Kohlberg's research?
To assess moral reasoning by presenting a moral dilemma
223
What are the three levels of moral reasoning in Kohlberg's theory?
* Preconventional Morality * Conventional Morality * Postconventional Morality
224
What are the stages in Level 1: Preconventional Morality?
* Punishment and obedience stage * Instrumental hedonism stage
225
What defines the 'good boy/good girl' stage in Level 2: Conventional Morality?
Acceptability of behavior depends on social approval or being liked by others
226
What is the focus of Level 3: Postconventional Morality?
* Morality of contract, individual rights, and democratically accepted laws * Morality of individual principles of conscience
227
What criticism does Gilligan raise against Kohlberg's theory?
It is androcentric, focusing only on male subjects
228
What does the induction style of discipline emphasize?
Explaining why a behavior is wrong and how it affects others
229
Who do Piaget and Kohlberg suggest has a greater influence on moral development?
Peers
230
What is a contrasting view to Piaget and Kohlberg's emphasis on peers?
Parents are seen as more important contributors to moral development
231
Fill in the blank: Kohlberg's theory is criticized for being too _______.
Rigid and linear
232
What is one argument against using hypothetical moral dilemmas to assess moral reasoning?
How people think about dilemmas is not necessarily how they act in real life
233
What parenting style is associated with more advanced moral reasoning?
Induction style of discipline
EPPP
flashcards
Decks in class (10)
# Cards
