Research Methods And Statistics Flashcards

(142 cards)

1
Q

What is an independent variable?

A

The variable that a researcher believes has an effect on the dependent variable and on which research participants differ.

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2
Q

What is a dependent variable?

A

The variable that’s expected to be affected by the independent variable.

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3
Q

How many levels does an independent variable always have?

A

At least two levels.

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4
Q

What is a moderator variable?

A

A variable that affects the direction and/or strength of the relationship between independent and dependent variables.

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5
Q

What is a mediator variable?

A

A variable that explains the relationship between independent and dependent variables.

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6
Q

What are extraneous variables?

A

Variables that are not an intentional part of a research study but affect the relationship between the independent and dependent variables.

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7
Q

What is the difference between extraneous, confounding, and disturbance variables?

A

Extraneous variables affect the study, confounding variables are related to the independent variable, and disturbance variables are related to the dependent variable.

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8
Q

What are the four scales of measurement?

A
  • Nominal scale
  • Ordinal scale
  • Interval scale
  • Ratio scale
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9
Q

What is a nominal scale?

A

A scale that divides people into unordered categories.

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10
Q

What is an ordinal scale?

A

A scale that divides people into ordered categories in terms of magnitude.

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11
Q

What is an interval scale?

A

A scale that assigns people to ordered categories with equal differences between adjacent categories, but no absolute zero.

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12
Q

What is a ratio scale?

A

A scale that assigns people to ordered categories with equal differences and an absolute zero point.

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13
Q

What type of data do bar graphs represent?

A

Nominal and ordinal data.

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14
Q

What type of data do histograms represent?

A

Interval and ratio data.

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15
Q

What is a frequency polygon?

A

A type of graph also known as a line graph used with interval and ratio data.

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16
Q

What is a normal distribution?

A

A symmetrical, bell-shaped distribution where the mean, median, and mode are equal.

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17
Q

What percentage of scores fall within one standard deviation in a normal distribution?

A

68%

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18
Q

What is a negatively skewed distribution?

A

A non-normal distribution where most scores are on the high side and a few scores are in the low tail.

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19
Q

What is a positively skewed distribution?

A

A non-normal distribution where most scores are on the low side and a few scores are in the high tail.

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20
Q

What is a leptokurtic distribution?

A

A distribution with a sharper peak and flatter tails than a normal distribution.

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21
Q

What is a platykurtic distribution?

A

A distribution that is flatter in the middle and has thicker tails than a normal distribution.

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22
Q

What are the two main categories of research approaches?

A

Qualitative and quantitative

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23
Q

What is the primary goal of grounded theory in qualitative research?

A

To derive a general, abstract theory grounded in the views of participants

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24
Q

What type of data collection methods are primarily used in grounded theory?

A

Interviews and observations

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25
What is the purpose of phenomenological research?
To gain an in-depth understanding of participants' lived experiences
26
What is the primary source of information in phenomenological research?
In-depth interviews
27
What does ethnography study?
Participants in their natural culture or setting while engaged in their activities
28
What is the primary data collection method in ethnography?
Participant observation
29
What is thematic analysis used for?
Identifying, analyzing, and reporting patterns (themes) within the data
30
What does triangulation involve in qualitative research?
Comparing and combining different sources of evidence
31
Which type of triangulation is the most commonly used?
Methodological triangulation
32
What is the main purpose of quantitative research?
To identify and study differences in the amount of behavior
33
What are the three types of quantitative research?
* Descriptive * Correlational * Experimental
34
What is descriptive research conducted to do?
Describe a variable or set of variables as they exist naturally
35
What are the methods of data collection in descriptive research?
* Surveys * Case studies * Observational studies
36
What is correlational research used for?
Determining the magnitude and direction of the relationship between variables
37
What type of relationship does experimental research seek to determine?
Causal relationship between independent and dependent variables
38
What are the two types of experimental research?
* True experimental * Quasi-experimental
39
What is the key feature of true experimental research?
Random assignment of subjects to different groups
40
What distinguishes quasi-experimental research from true experimental research?
Lack of random assignment of subjects
41
What is an AB design in single-subject research?
A single baseline (A) phase and a single treatment (B) phase
42
What characterizes reversal designs in single-subject research?
Inclusion of at least one additional baseline phase
43
What is a multiple baseline design?
Sequential application of the independent variable across different baselines
44
What are the three types of group designs in experimental research?
* Between-subjects * Within-subjects * Mixed designs
45
What is a key feature of randomized controlled trials (RCTs)?
Random assignment of subjects to treatment and control groups
46
What is a disadvantage of RCTs?
Reduced ability to generalize results due to strict criteria and controlled conditions
47
What is a within-subjects design?
Each participant is exposed to some or all levels of the independent variable
48
What is a mixed design in research?
Includes at least two independent variables, with at least one being a between-subjects variable
49
What is a factorial design in research?
Includes two or more independent variables
50
What is the advantage of a factorial design?
Allows obtaining information on main effects and interaction effects
51
What is analogue research?
Conducting studies in situations that approximate real-life situations
52
What is analogue research?
Analogue research involves conducting studies in situations that approximate real-life situations. ## Footnote Examples include using college students instead of individuals from the general population or conducting studies in controlled settings rather than naturalistic ones.
53
What is a primary advantage of analogue research?
Maximizes internal validity better than research in naturalistic conditions. ## Footnote This is due to greater control over factors affecting study results.
54
What is a disadvantage of analogue research?
Limits external validity (generalizability) of research results.
55
Define developmental research.
Developmental research is conducted to study changes that occur over time in one or more variables.
56
What is longitudinal research?
Longitudinal research involves repeated assessment of the variable(s) of interest for the same group(s) of individuals over an extended period of time.
57
What is a disadvantage of longitudinal studies?
They are time-consuming and expensive to conduct. ## Footnote High drop-out rates can lead to attrition bias.
58
Define cross-sectional research.
Cross-sectional research involves assessment of the variable(s) of interest in individuals of different ages at one point in time.
59
What is a major disadvantage of cross-sectional studies?
Results can be confounded by cohort effects.
60
What is cross-sequential research?
Cross-sequential research combines longitudinal and cross-sectional designs.
61
What is an advantage of cross-sequential studies?
They help distinguish the effects of increasing age from cohort effects.
62
What are probability sampling methods?
Probability sampling requires random selection of the sample from the population. ## Footnote This ensures that sample members are representative of the population.
63
What is simple random sampling?
All members of the population have an equal chance of being selected.
64
What is systematic random sampling?
Selecting every nth individual from a random list of all individuals in the population.
65
What is stratified random sampling?
Dividing the population into subgroups based on relevant characteristics and selecting a random sample from each subgroup.
66
What is cluster random sampling?
Randomly selecting clusters from a population and including all individuals in each selected cluster or a random sample from those clusters.
67
What is non-probability sampling?
Individuals are selected based on non-random criteria, meaning not all members of the population have an equal chance of being selected.
68
What is convenience sampling?
Including individuals who are easily accessible to the researcher.
69
What is voluntary response sampling?
The sample consists of individuals who volunteered to participate in the study.
70
What is purposive sampling?
Researchers use their judgment to select individuals appropriate for the study.
71
What is snowball sampling?
Asking initial participants to recommend others who qualify for inclusion in the study.
72
What is Community-Based Participatory Research (CBPR)?
A collaborative approach that equitably involves all partners in the research process to achieve social change and improve health outcomes.
73
What are the core principles of CBPR?
Nine core principles include: * Recognize the community as a unit of identity * Build on community strengths * Facilitate equitable partnerships * Foster co-learning * Integrate knowledge generation and intervention * Focus on relevant public health problems * View system development as cyclical * Disseminate research results * Understand the long-term nature of CBPR.
74
What is correlation used for?
To determine the degree of association between two or more variables.
75
What are the two types of variables in correlation?
Independent variable (predictor or X variable) and dependent variable (criterion or Y variable).
76
What is the range of most correlation coefficients?
-1.0 to +1.0.
77
What does a correlation coefficient of -1.0 indicate?
A perfect negative correlation.
78
What does a correlation coefficient of +1.0 indicate?
A perfect positive correlation.
79
What does the subscript of a correlation coefficient indicate?
Whether it measures the relationship between different variables or the same variable.
80
What is the first assumption of correlation coefficients?
The relationship between variables is linear.
81
What is the second assumption of correlation coefficients?
There’s an unrestricted range of scores for all variables.
82
What is the third assumption of correlation coefficients?
There’s homoscedasticity – the variability of criterion scores is similar for all predictor scores.
83
What is the Pearson r?
The Pearson product moment correlation coefficient used for linear relationships between continuous variables.
84
What is the Spearman rho used for?
When data on both variables are reported as ranks.
85
What type of correlation coefficient is used for one continuous variable and one true dichotomy?
Point biserial correlation coefficient.
86
What type of correlation coefficient is used for one continuous variable and one artificial dichotomy?
Biserial correlation coefficient.
87
What is the contingency correlation coefficient used for?
When both variables are measured on a nominal scale.
88
What is the coefficient of determination?
A measure of shared variability indicating how much variability in one variable is explained by another.
89
How is the coefficient of determination derived from the correlation coefficient?
By squaring the correlation coefficient.
90
What does a correlation coefficient of .70 indicate in terms of variability?
49% of variability in the criterion is explained by the predictor.
91
What is regression analysis used for?
To predict criterion scores from obtained predictor scores.
92
What is multiple regression?
A technique used when two or more predictors estimate status on a single criterion measured on a continuous scale.
93
What are the two forms of multiple regression?
Simultaneous (standard) multiple regression and stepwise multiple regression.
94
What is multicollinearity?
When predictors are highly correlated with one another.
95
What is canonical correlation used for?
When two or more continuous predictors estimate status on two or more continuous criteria.
96
What is discriminant function analysis used for?
When two or more predictors estimate status on a single criterion measured on a nominal scale.
97
What is structural equation modeling (SEM)?
A combination of factor analysis and multiple regression to test hypotheses about relationships among observed and latent variables.
98
What are observed variables in SEM?
Variables that are directly observed and measured.
99
What are latent variables in SEM?
Variables that cannot be directly observed or measured but inferred from observed variables.
100
What is the first step in the SEM process?
Model specification.
101
What is the fourth step in the SEM process?
Model evaluation.
102
What is the fifth step in the SEM process?
Model modification.
103
What is the goodness-of-fit index (GFI)?
A method used to determine the model's fit with the obtained data.
104
What are the two types of inferential statistical tests?
Nonparametric and parametric tests
105
What type of data do nonparametric tests analyze?
Nominal and ordinal data
106
What type of data do parametric tests analyze?
Interval and ratio data
107
What is an assumption of parametric tests?
Data are normally distributed and there is homogeneity of variances
108
When should a nonparametric test be used?
When assumptions of parametric tests are violated and group sizes are small and unequal
109
What is the first factor to consider when choosing an inferential statistical test?
The scale of measurement of the data
110
What are the two types of chi-square tests?
* Single-sample chi-square test * Multiple-sample chi-square test
111
What does the single-sample chi-square test analyze?
Data from a descriptive study that includes only one variable
112
What does the multiple-sample chi-square test analyze?
Data from a descriptive study with two or more variables or an experimental study with independent and dependent variables
113
What is the purpose of the Student’s t-test?
To compare two means with one independent variable having two levels
114
How many types of t-tests are there?
Three
115
What is the t-test for a single sample used for?
To compare an obtained sample mean to a known population mean
116
What is the t-test for unrelated samples also known as?
t-test for uncorrelated samples
117
What type of t-test is used for related samples?
t-test for correlated samples
118
What is the one-way analysis of variance (ANOVA) used for?
To compare effects of one independent variable with more than two levels
119
What does the one-way ANOVA produce?
An F-ratio
120
What are the two degrees of freedom calculated for an F-ratio in one-way ANOVA?
* Degrees of freedom for MSB (C-1) * Degrees of freedom for MSW (N-C)
121
What is a factorial ANOVA?
An extension of the one-way ANOVA used when a study includes more than one independent variable
122
What is ANCOVA used for?
To control the effects of an extraneous variable on a dependent variable
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What does MANOVA test for?
One or more independent variables and two or more dependent variables
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What are planned comparisons also known as?
Planned contrasts and a priori tests
125
What are post hoc tests used for?
To determine which groups differ significantly after an ANOVA
126
What is the Bonferroni procedure?
Dividing alpha by the total number of statistical tests to control the experimentwise error rate
127
What is Cohen’s d used to measure?
Effect size
128
What does a Cohen’s d less than .2 indicate?
A small effect of the independent variable
129
What is clinical significance?
The importance or meaningfulness of the effects of an intervention
130
What is the Jacobson-Truax method used for?
To evaluate the clinical significance of an intervention
131
What is the first step in the Jacobson-Truax method?
Calculate a reliable change index (RCI)
132
What does RCI determine?
If the difference in an individual’s pretreatment and posttreatment test scores is statistically reliable
133
What is the effect of a larger F-ratio in ANOVA?
Suggests that the independent variable has had an effect on the dependent variable
134
What does RCI stand for?
Reliable Change Index ## Footnote RCI is used to determine if changes in test scores are statistically reliable.
135
How is the RCI calculated?
Subtract the pretest score from the posttest score and divide by the standard error of the difference. ## Footnote This calculation helps assess if the score change is due to actual change rather than measurement error.
136
What indicates a reliable change in scores using RCI?
RCI larger than +1.96 or -1.96 ## Footnote A change in scores is considered reliable if it falls outside the range of measurement error.
137
What is the second step in determining the reliability of change in test scores?
Identify the test cutoff score that distinguishes between dysfunctional and functional behavior. ## Footnote This helps assess if the posttest score is within a functional range.
138
How can the cutoff score be determined?
Calculate the score midway between the mean score for dysfunctional and functional populations. ## Footnote This provides a benchmark for evaluating individual scores.
139
What are the classifications based on RCI and cutoff criteria?
* Recovered * Improved * Unchanged/Indeterminate * Deteriorated ## Footnote These classifications help in understanding the individual's progress.
140
True or False: An individual is classified as improved if they pass the RCI but not the cutoff criteria.
True ## Footnote Improvement is indicated when the RCI suggests a change, but the cutoff criteria are not met.
141
Fill in the blank: A change is considered reliable if the RCI is larger than _______.
+1.96 or -1.96 ## Footnote This threshold indicates the change is statistically significant.
142
What does it mean if an individual is classified as deteriorated?
Passed RCI in the unintended direction ## Footnote This classification indicates a negative change in status.