MCQs Flashcards

(24 cards)

1
Q
  1. Which of the following describes the chemical characteristic of an antibody?
    a. carbohydrate
    b. lipid
    c. protein
    d. electrolyte
    e. ligand
A

c. protein

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2
Q
  1. An ELISA can be characterized as a:
    a. homogenous competitive binding immunoassay
    b. heterogenous competitive binding immunoassay
    c. heterogenous immunometric assay
    d. homogenous immunometric assay
A

c. heterogenous immunometric assay

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3
Q
  1. Heterophilic antibody interferences with immunoassays can occur when:
    a. patients have received antibody-based imaging reagents
    b. patients are exposed to mouse antigens by having mice in their living space
    c. patients have been given mouse monoclonal antibody-derived therapeutic agents
    d. all of the above
A

d. all of the above

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4
Q
  1. In quantitative immunoassays the single most important factor responsible for success or failure is:
    a. specificity
    b. affinity
    c. titer
    d. monoclonal property
    e. antibody absorption
A

a. specificity

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5
Q
  1. Substances that are known to interfere with immunoassays are
    a. compounds that are chemically similar to the antigen
    b. sample matrix
    c. heterophile antibodies that react with the reagent antibody
    d. hemoglobin
    e. all of the above
A

e. all of the above

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6
Q
  1. A heterogeneous, competitive binding immunoassay requires all of these except
    a. labelled antigen
    b. separation of the bound label
    c. excess antibody
    d. a large antigen with multiple binding sites
A

d. a large antigen with multiple binding sites

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following is not an effective countermeasure to investigate
    the presence of a human anti-mouse antibody
    a. add mouse IgG
    b. dilute the sample
    c. check other laboratory tests for medical consistency of the result
    d. use an alternative vendor for the assay
    e. increase the incubation time for the assay
A

e. increase the incubation time for the assay

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8
Q
  1. What is the definition of point-of-care testing?
    a. Testing conducted close to the site of patient care
    b. Bedside testing
    c. Portable testing in an ambulance or helicopter
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

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9
Q
  1. What are the advantages of POCT?
    a. Larger sample
    b. Faster turnaround time for test results
    c. Less expensive than core lab testing
    d. More precise than core lab instrumentation
A

b. Faster turnaround time for test results

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following are true?
    a. POCT results can lead to wrong treatment, and care should be taken to guarantee quality.
    b. POCT devices are so simple that they pose no risk to the patient if incorrectly performed or a wrong answer is generated.
    c. POCT results are used only for screening patients, and results are always confirmed by a lab method.
    d. Clinicians can purchase POCT devices from a local pharmacy without having to comply with laboratory regulations if the tests are used only on their own patients in an office practice.
A

a. POCT results can lead to wrong treatment, and care should be taken to guarantee quality.

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11
Q
  1. Limitations of POCT devices include which of the following?
    a. Ability of physicians to rapidly treat patients
    b. Environmental and drug interferences with rapid methods
    c. Ease of use and training of the operator
    d. Small sample volumes
A

b. Environmental and drug interferences with rapid methods

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12
Q
  1. What are examples of quality improvement performance monitors for point of-
    care testing?
    a. documentation of quality control (QC)
    b. expired reagents and QC/reagent bottles and kits dated appropriately
    c. temperature checks for storage of point-of-care reagents, QC, and
    devices
    d. handling changes in lots for QC and reagents according to manufacturer
    recommendations
    e. all of the above
A

e. all of the above

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following proteins is a protease inhibitor?
    a. C-reactive protein
    b. alpha 1 antitrypsin
    c. Transferrin
    d. Haptoglobin
    e. Fibrinogen
A

b. alpha 1 antitrypsin

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following is a negative acute-phase protein?
    a. alpha 1 antitrypsin
    b. Haptoglobin
    c. Ceruloplasmin
    d. Orosomucoid
    e. None of the above
A

e. None of the above

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following is associated with “beta-gamma” bridging?
    a. Multiple myeloma
    b. Malignancy
    c. Hepatic cirrhosis
    d. Rheumatoid arthritis
A

c. Hepatic cirrhosis

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16
Q
  1. Hypoproteinemia would be found in cases of
    a. Multiple myeloma
    b. Dehydration
    c. Vomiting
    d. Nephrotic syndrome
A

d. Nephrotic syndrome

17
Q
  1. Prealbumin found in lower level in :
    a. Liver disease.
    b. Nephrotic syndrome.
    c. Malnutrition.
    d. All of the above.
A

d. All of the above.

18
Q
  1. Which one of the following assays is least helpful in diagnosing Cushing syndrome?
    a. Cortisol following 1 mg of dexamethasone given the previous evening
    b. Cortisol drawn at midnight
    c. 24-hour urine-free cortisol
    d. a.m. cortisol
A

d. a.m. cortisol

19
Q
  1. Which one of the following plasma assays is most helpful in diagnosing pheochromocytoma?
    a. Total catecholamines
    b. Plasma free metanephrines
    c. Epinephrine
    d. Norepinephrine
    e. Dopamine
A

b. Plasma free metanephrines

20
Q
  1. A hyperpigmented patient presents with hypotension, hypoglycemia, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and acidosis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
    a. Cortisol resistance
    b. Addison disease
    c. Isolated mineralocorticoid deficiency
    d. ACTH deficiency
    e. Apparent mineralocorticoid excess
A

b. Addison disease

21
Q
  1. What is the cause of icteric interference?
    a. urea
    b. albumin
    c. bilirubin
    d. immunoglobulin
22
Q
  1. What is the source of hemolytic interference?
    a. white blood cells
    b. red blood cells
    c. platelets
    d. plasma
A

b. red blood cells

23
Q
  1. Which of the following is a primary cause of lipemic interference?
    a. HDL
    b. IDL
    c. LDL
    d. VLDL
24
Q
  1. Which samples are likely to require ultracentrifugation?
    a. icteric samples
    b. haemolytic samples
    c. lipemic samples
    d. all of the above
A

c. lipemic samples