Medium Difficulty 1 Flashcards

Question

JAD

Answer 1

Joint Application Development (or Design)

Answer 2

Just in Time

Answer 3

Key Performance Indicator

Answer 4

Late Finish Date

Answer 5

Level Of Effort

Answer 6

Late Start Date

Answer 7

Organizational Breakdown Structure

Answer 8

Plan Do Check Act

Answer 9

Precedence Diagramming Method

Answer 10

Program Evaluation and Review Technique

Answer 11

Performance Measurement Baseline

Answer 12

Responsible, Accountable, Consult, And Inform

Answer 13

Responsibility Assignment Matrix

Answer 14

Request For Information

Answer 15

Request For Proposal

Answer 16

Request For Quotation

Answer 17

Rough Order of Magnitude

Answer 18

Start-to-Finish

Answer 19

Subject Matter Expert

Answer 20

Statement Of Work

Answer 21

Start-to-Start

Answer 22

Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, And Threats

Answer 23

Time And Material

Answer 24

Variance at Completion

Answer 25

Voice of the Customer

Answer 26

Work Breakdown Structure

Answer 27

Non Disclosure Agreement

Answer 28

Commercial off-the-shelf

Answer 29

American National Standards Institute

Answer 30

Inputs, Tools and Techniques, Outputs

Answer 31

Memorandum of Understanding

Answer 32

Service Level Agreement

Answer 33

Buyer Share Ratio

Answer 34

Root Cause Analysis

Answer 35

Payback Period

Answer 36

Terms of Reference

Answer 37

Actual Time

Answer 38

Emotional Intelligence

Answer 39

Memoranda of Agreement

Answer 40

Benefit Cost Analysis

Answer 41

Design Build

Answer 42

Design Bid Build

Answer 43

Design Build Operate

Answer 44

Build Own Operate Transfer

Answer 45

Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, and Control (Six Sigma methodology)

Answer 46

Acceptance Test-Driven Development

Answer 47

Behavior-Driven Development

Answer 48

Business Requirement Documents

Answer 49

Definition of Done

Answer 50

Definition of Ready

Answer 51

Dynamic Systems Development Method

Answer 52

eXtreme Programming

Answer 53

Critical Path Method

Answer 54

Actual Cost

Answer 55

Budget At Completion

Answer 56

Cost Performance Index

Answer 57

Cost Variance

Answer 58

Estimate At Completion

Answer 59

Estimate To Complete

Answer 60

Earned Value

Answer 61

Earned Value Management

Answer 62

Planned Value / Present Value

Answer 63

Schedule Performance Index

Answer 64

Schedule Variance

Answer 65

To-Complete Performance Index

Answer 66

Organizational Project Management

Answer 67

Project Management Office

Answer 68

Point of Total Assumption

Answer 69

Enterprise Environmental Factors

Answer 70

Organizational Process Assets

Answer 71

Project Management Information System

Answer 72

Expected Present Value

Answer 73

Future Value

Answer 74

Internal Rate of Return

Answer 75

Net Present Value

Answer 76

Return on Investment

Answer 77

Adaptive methods are preferred when: - Environment is changing rapidly - It is difficult to define requirements and scope up front - It is possible to define small incremental improvements that will deliver value to stakeholders

Answer 78

Adaptive life cycle

Answer 79

On-demand scheduling

Answer 80

Agile release planning is a technique to develop schedule on an agile project.

Answer 81

A backlog in a change-driven project is equivalent to Project Scope in a plan-driven project.

Answer 82

Sprint or Iteration Planning Meeting

Answer 83

The Product Owner

Answer 84

Modified version of Fibonacci series (1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 20, 40, 100)

Answer 85

Planning Poker

Answer 86

Planning Poker

Answer 87

Retrospective

Answer 88

Story points

Answer 89

Agile teams work at a sustainable pace.

Answer 90

MoSCoW Must have - the requirement is core and must be satisfied for success Should have - the requirement should be satisfied for success Could have - the requirement is desirable but not necessary for success Won't have - the requirement will not be implemented

Answer 91

Cumulative Flow Diagram (CFD)

Answer 92

It is used to represent the state of work across time. It shows the stakeholders the product features complete, in progress, and remaining, as well as any changes in total scope. It is a powerful tool for tracking and forecasting the delivery of value.

Answer 93

Non-functional requirements (NFRs) are the quality characteristics of the deliverables, and serve as constraints or restrictions on the design of the solution. Examples include requirements related to security, legal, regulations, compliance, reliability, performance, availability, maintainability, scalability, and usability.

Answer 94

Cards represent work items on a Kanban Board.

Answer 95

Columns represent each stage of the process on a Kanban Board.

Answer 96

The project team

Answer 97

The Product Owner

Answer 98

Facilitating, Coaching, and Impediment Removal

Answer 99

The information should change over time and easy to view.

Answer 100

Learn what went well, what did not go well, and what could be done differently to improve the product.

Answer 101

During the retrospective

Answer 102

Throughout the project

Answer 103

Project manager, ScrumMaster, project team lead, agile coach, team coach, or team facilitator

Answer 104

3 advantages of timeboxing are: - Increased focus on completing work - Limits scope creep and gold plating - Simplifies scheduling

Answer 105

The two pillars of Lean are: - Continuous Improvement (or kaizen) - Respect for People

Answer 106

Waste results from overburdened workers, bottlenecks, waiting, handoff, overproduction, wishful thinking, task-switching, defects, and information scatter.

Answer 107

XP is based on values of simplicity, communication, feedback, courage, and respect.

Answer 108

Pair Programming

Answer 109

Face-to-face communication

Answer 110

The entire team collectively owns the code in XP.

Answer 111

The customer in XP provides the requirements, sets the priorities, and steers the projects.

Answer 112

The Sprint Backlog is composed of the Sprint Goal (why), a set of Product Backlog items selected for the Sprint (what), as well as an actionable plan for delivering the Increment (how).

Answer 113

A project vision sets the overall picture of the project, and project objectives qualify this vision and make it specific.

Answer 114

False. Agile projects use top-down estimating.

Answer 115

False. The two pillars of Lean are Continuous Improvement (or kaizen) and Respect for People.

Answer 116

False. Lean is a broad system that applies to the entire enterprise, including product development, production, sales, service and HR.

Answer 117

False. Scrum can be used for product development in any industry.

Answer 118

In Crashing, schedule is compressed by applying additional resources, working overtime, etc. Whereas in Fast tracking, activities which are usually performed in sequence are performed in parallel, to compress the schedule.

Answer 119

Weighted Average (PERT) estimate uses Beta distribution whereas Simple Average uses Triangular distribution to calculate the duration or cost estimate. Weighted Average formula is, E = (O + 4M + P) / 6 and Simple Average formula is E = (O + M + P) / 3, where O is the Optimistic, M is the Most Likely and P is the Pessimistic estimate.

Answer 120

Total Float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project, whereas Free Float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying any successor activity.

Answer 121

Duration is the number of work periods (not including holidays or other non-working periods) required to complete an activity, whereas Effort is the number of labor units required to complete an activity. Duration is expressed as work days, work weeks, etc., whereas Effort is expressed as man hours, man days, man weeks, etc.

Answer 122

Duration is the number of work periods (not including holidays or other non-working periods) required to complete an activity, whereas Elapsed Time includes holidays and non-working periods also. Both are expressed as work days, work weeks, etc.

Answer 123

A Project Team is comprised of the project manager, project management team, and other team members. Project Management Team includes a subset of Project Team members who are directly involved in project management activities.

Answer 124

Lead is the acceleration of a successor activity, whereas Lag is the delay of a successor activity.

Answer 125

Code of Account is any numbering system used to uniquely identify each component of the WBS. Control Account is a management control point where scope, budget, actual cost, and schedule are integrated and compared to earned value for performance measurement. Control Accounts are strategically placed at various points on the WBS.

Answer 126

Control Account is a management control point in the WBS where Earned Value measurements take place. Work package is a unit of work or deliverable at the lowest level of each branch on the WBS. A Control Account may contain multiple Work Packages, but a Work Package can only be associated to one Control Account.

Answer 127

Planning Package is a logical group of work within a Control Account that is identified and budgeted in early planning, but is not yet sub-divided into Work Packages. Control Account is a management control point in the WBS where Earned Value measurements take place. The Planning Package is below the Control Account, but above the Work Packages in the WBS.

Answer 128

Planning Package is a logical group of work within a Control Account that is identified and budgeted in early planning, but is not yet sub-divided into Work Packages. Work Package is a unit of work at the lowest level of each branch of the WBS. The Planning Package is below the Control Account, but above the Work Packages in the WBS.

Answer 129

Contingency Reserve accounts for "known-unknowns" or simply "knowns". It covers the "residual risks" on the project. Management Reserve accounts for "unknown-unknowns" or simply "unknowns".

Answer 130

Verified deliverables are the deliverables that have been checked for correctness by the Control Quality process. They are an input to Validate Scope process. Accepted Deliverables are the deliverables that meet the acceptance criteria and have been formally signed off by the customer through the Validate Scope process.

Answer 131

Estimate is a quantitative assessment of the likely amount or outcome. It is usually applied to project costs, resources, effort, and durations. An "approved" cost estimate for a project or a work component is known as Budget.

Answer 132

EAC is the expected total cost of the project or work component, whereas ETC is the expected cost of the "remaining" work. Note that both are "forecasts".

Answer 133

Internal Failure is the failure found by the project and External Failure is the failure found by the customer.

Answer 134

Specification Limits are set by the customers, whereas Control Limits are set by the project manager and appropriate stakeholders based on the organization's quality standards. Control Limits are usually stricter than and within the Specification Limits.

Answer 135

Prevention keeps errors out of the process, whereas Inspection keeps errors out of the hands of the customer.

Answer 136

A Pareto Diagram is a specific type of Histogram, ordered by frequency of occurrence. It shows how many defects were generated by type or category of the identified cause, and helps the project team focus on the causes creating the greatest number of defects.

Answer 137

Quality Audit is a structured review of the project to determine whether it's complying with policies, processes and procedures. Inspection is the process to check whether deliverables conform to standards. Audit is a QA function, whereas Inspection is a QC function. Audit is not just about finding problems, but also good practices of the project. Inspection is mostly for finding problems.

Answer 138

The RACI is just one type of RAM.

Answer 139

A Tool is something tangible, like a template or a software program, that is used to perform an activity to produce a deliverable. Technique is a procedure performed by a human to perform an activity to produce a deliverable. A Technique may employ many Tools.

Answer 140

Threat (or negative risk) is a risk of a loss, whereas Opportunity (or positive risk) is a risk of a gain.

Answer 141

Avoid is to eliminate the threat entirely, whereas Mitigate is to reduce the probability of occurrence or the impact of the threat.

Answer 142

Exploit is to ensure that the opportunity definitely happens, whereas Enhance is to increase the probability of occurrence or the impact of the opportunity.

Answer 143

A Logical Relationship is a dependency between two schedule activities or a schedule activity and a schedule milestone. In Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM), a Logical Relationship is called a Precedence Relationship.

Answer 144

A Master Schedule is a high level schedule that identifies the key deliverables and key milestones. A Milestone Schedule is a high level schedule that only identifies key milestones. So, Milestone Schedule can be considered as a subset of Master Schedule.

Answer 145

Planned Value is the estimated (monetary) value of the work "planned" to be done, whereas Earned Value is the estimated (monetary) value of the work "actually" done.

Answer 146

Earned Value is the "estimated" (monetary) value of the work actually done, whereas Actual Cost is the "actual" cost incurred for the work done.

Answer 147

In both these contracts, the seller is reimbursed for the allowable costs of project work. However, in CPFF, the seller fee is fixed and is not tied to the seller's performance, whereas in CPIF, the seller fee is tied to the seller's performance.

Answer 148

In CPIF, the criteria for determining seller fee is defined in objective terms, whereas in CPAF, the criteria is subjective.

Answer 149

In Single Source procurement, the buyer decides to award the contract to a preferred seller (even though there may be other sellers in the market), without going through the procurement process. In Sole Source procurement, there is only one seller in the market for the item to be procured.

Answer 150

Corrective Action is undertaken "after" a problem (or risk) has occurred, whereas Preventive Action is undertaken to reduce the probability and/or impact of a problem (or risk) "before" it occurs. Former is reactive, whereas latter is proactive.

Answer 151

Project Cost Baseline = Project Cost Estimates + Contingency Reserves Project Cost Budget = Project Cost Baseline + Management Reserves

Answer 152

Weighting systems are used to rank sellers according to the score assigned to them based on various criteria. Screening systems are used to shortlist sellers, i.e. eliminate those who do not meet certain minimum requirements.

Answer 153

Brainstorming is a general data-gathering and creativity technique that elicits input from groups such as team members or subject matter experts. Brain Writing is a refinement of brainstorming that allows individual participants time to consider the question(s) individually before the group creativity session is held.

Answer 154

Procurement SOW is a description of the procurement item in sufficient detail to allow prospective sellers to determine if they are capable of providing the products, services, or results. It includes specifications, quantity desired, quality levels, performance data, period of performance, work location, etc. Terms of Reference (TOR) is similar to SOW, but used when contracting for services.

Answer 155

In Majority, the option that receives more than 50% votes is selected. In Plurality, the option that receives the highest number of votes is selected.

Answer 156

Acknowledgement means that the receiver has received the message, whereas Response means that receiver has decoded, understands and is replying to the message.

Answer 157

Business Risks provide an opportunity of profit or loss, whereas Pure (or Insurable) Risks only provide a chance for a loss.

Answer 158

NPV measures the cash flow of an investment, whereas, ROI measures the efficiency of an investment. NPV is expressed in currency value, whereas ROI is a ratio or percentage.

Answer 159

- Withdraw/Avoid - Smooth/Accommodate - Compromise/Reconcile - Force/Direct - Collaborate/Problem Solve.

Answer 160

Problem Solve

Answer 161

Compromise

Answer 162

Compromise

Answer 163

Force/Direct

Answer 164

A conflict resolution technique that involves solving the root cause of the conflict so that the conflict is permanently resolved. It leads to a win-win situation.

Answer 165

Collaborate/Problem Solve

Answer 166

Problem Solve

Answer 167

Force/Direct

Answer 168

Force/Direct

Answer 169

Conflict should be addressed early and usually in private, using a direct, collaborative approach. The parties involved in the conflict have the initial responsibility of resolving the conflict. Project manager should intervene only if the conflict escalates.

Answer 170

Accommodate

Answer 171

The Critical Path is the longest path to complete the project.

Answer 172

- Applying additional man-power to a critical path activity. - Hiring new machinery to expedite a critical path activity. - Devising a more efficient way to perform a critical path activity.

Answer 173

Critical Path Method

Answer 174

Yes. Any path with low total float is a near critical path. A schedule network may have more than one path with low total float.

Answer 175

Resource leveling usually causes an increase in the original critical path.

Answer 176

The project is behind schedule.

Answer 177

The project is ahead of schedule.

Answer 178

- Apportioned Effort - Discrete Effort - Level of Effort (LOE)

Answer 179

The project is over budget.

Answer 180

The project is under budget.

Answer 181

BAC minus Actual amount spent

Answer 182

The project is behind schedule.

Answer 183

The project is ahead of schedule.

Answer 184

The project is over budget.

Answer 185

The project is under budget.

Answer 186

Estimate At Completion (EAC)

Answer 187

It tells how much over or under budget the project is expected to be at the end.

Answer 188

It tells how much the remaining work on the project is expected to cost.

Answer 189

Cost efficiency of the project

Answer 190

E = ( O + M + P ) / 3 where E is the Three-Point estimate, O the optimistic estimate, M the most likely estimate and P the pessimistic estimate of the activity.

Answer 191

cE = ( cO + 4*cM + cP ) / 6 where cE is the weighted average activity cost estimate, cO the optimistic estimate, cM the most likely estimate and cP the pessimistic estimate of the activity cost.

Answer 192

Total Float = LF - EF or Total Float = LS - ES where LF is Late Finish, EF is Early Finish, LS is Late Start and ES is Early Start. Either formula can be used.

Answer 193

Free Float = ES of successor activity - EF of this activity where ES is Early Start, and EF is Early Finish

Answer 194

No. of communication channels = n * (n - 1) / 2 where 'n' is the number of stakeholders in the project.

Answer 195

Target Price = Target Cost + Target Fee

Answer 196

Target Cost = Target Price - Target Fee

Answer 197

σ = (P - O) / 6 where σ is the standard deviation, P the pessimistic estimate and O the optimistic estimate of the activity.

Answer 198

Variance = σ^2 or ((P - O) / 6) ^ 2 where σ is the standard deviation, P the pessimistic estimate and O the optimistic estimate of the activity.

Answer 199

Range = E ± σ where E is the estimated activity duration, and σ is the activity standard deviation.

Answer 200

The mean of n values (x1, x2, x3, .. , xn) is: (x1 + x2 + x3 + .. + xn) / n

Answer 201

Middle value (for odd number of values) OR Mean of the two middle values (for even number of values)

Answer 202

Mode is the most frequently occurring value in a data set. To get the Mode of a data set, count the frequency of each item, and pick the one with the maximum frequency.

Answer 203

Schedule variance using ES method is ES - AT, where ES is the Earned Schedule and AT is the Actual Time.

Answer 204

Schedule performance index using ES method is ES/AT, where ES is the Earned Schedule and AT is the Actual Time.

Answer 205

EVM measures performance in terms of cost, whereas ES measures in terms of time.

Answer 206

Project Cost Baseline = Project (Work Package) Cost Estimates + Contingency Reserves

Answer 207

Project Cost Budget = Project Cost Baseline + Management Reserves

Answer 208

The Most Likely estimate. It has 4 times more weightage than the Optimistic and Pessimistic estimates using beta distribution. The formula for expected cost using beta distribution is: cE = ( cO + 4*cM + cP ) / 6 where cE is the expected cost, cO the optimistic estimate, cM the most likely estimate and cP the pessimistic estimate of the activity.

Answer 209

CV = EV - AC

Answer 210

CPI = EV / AC

Answer 211

SV = EV - PV

Answer 212

SPI = EV / PV

Answer 213

EAC = AC + Bottom-up ETC

Answer 214

EAC = BAC / CPI

Answer 215

EAC = AC + (BAC - EV)

Answer 216

TCPI = (BAC - EV) / (BAC - AC)

Answer 217

TCPI = (BAC - EV) / (EAC - AC)

Answer 218

ETC = EAC - AC or Reestimate the remaining work from the bottom-up

Answer 219

VAC = BAC - EAC

Answer 220

PTA = ((Ceiling Price - Target Price) / Buyer's Share Ratio) + Target Cost

Answer 221

A set of numeric or alpha-numeric characters that categorize the schedule activity. It allows for filtering and ordering of activities within reports.

Answer 222

The length of time between the actual start date and the data date for in-progress activities, or between the actual start date and the actual finish date for completed activities.

Answer 223

A category of projects that have common elements not present in all projects. It is usually defined in terms of either the product (i.e., by similar technologies or production methods) or the type of customer (i.e., internal versus external, government versus commercial) or industry sector (i.e., utilities, automotive, aerospace, information technologies, etc.). Application areas can overlap.

Answer 224

The right to apply project resources, expend funds, make decisions, or give approvals.

Answer 225

The approved version of a work product that can be changed only through formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results.

Answer 226

The approved (cost) estimate for a project, WBS component or a schedule activity.

Answer 227

The process of identifying, documenting, approving or rejecting changes to project documents, deliverables, or baselines (scope, schedule, cost, etc.).

Answer 228

A formally constituted group of stakeholders responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project, and for recording and communicating the decisions taken.

Answer 229

A request, demand, or assertion of rights by a seller against a buyer, or vice versa, for consideration, compensation, or payment under the terms of a legally binding contract, such as for a disputed change.

Answer 230

A limiting factor that affects the execution of a project, program, portfolio, or process.

Answer 231

An event or occurrence that could affect the execution of the project that may be accounted for with a reserve.

Answer 232

Comparing actual performance with planned performance, analyzing variances, assessing trends to effect process improvements, evaluating possible alternatives, and recommending appropriate corrective action as needed.

Answer 233

The area within three standard deviations on either side of the mean on a control chart that reflects the expected variation in the data.

Answer 234

An intentional activity that realigns the performance of the project work with the project management plan.

Answer 235

It is the term to describe the total prevention and appraisal costs (such as costs associated with quality planning, quality control, and quality assurance activities) on the project.

Answer 236

It is the term to describe the failure costs (such as costs associated with rework, scrap, loss of business, and warranty) on the project.

Answer 237

A type of cost-reimbursable contract where the buyer reimburses the seller for the seller's allowable costs (allowable costs are defined by the contract) plus a fixed amount of profit (fee).

Answer 238

A type of cost-reimbursable contract where the buyer reimburses the seller for the seller's allowable costs (allowable costs are defined by the contract), and the seller earns its profit if it meets defined performance criteria.

Answer 239

A type of contract where the buyer reimburses the seller for the seller's actual costs, plus a fee representing the seller's profit.

Answer 240

A decision support tool that uses a tree-like graph or model of decisions and their possible consequences.

Answer 241

An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component.

Answer 242

Directing, managing, performing, and accomplishing the project work, providing the deliverables, and providing work performance information.

Answer 243

A statistical technique that calculates the profit or loss of an outcome (e.g. a project) based on different scenarios, by taking into consideration the probability of occurrence and the expected profit or loss from each scenario. It is commonly used in Decision Tree Analysis.

Answer 244

The logical relationship where the successor ("to") activity cannot complete until the predecessor ("from") activity completes.

Answer 245

The logical relationship where the successor ("to") activity cannot start until the predecessor ("from") activity completes.

Answer 246

A type of fixed price contract where the buyer pays the seller a set amount (as defined by the contract), regardless of the seller's costs.

Answer 247

A type of contract where the buyer pays the seller a set amount (as defined by the contract), and an additional amount (fee or profit) if the seller meets defined performance criteria.

Answer 248

A Critical Path Method (CPM) technique for calculating the early start and early finish dates by working forward from the project's start date, in the network diagram.

Answer 249

The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying any successor activity or violating a schedule constraint.

Answer 250

A category assigned to a product or a service that has the same functional use but different technical characteristics.

Answer 251

A fixed date imposed on a schedule activity or schedule milestone, usually in the form of a "start no earlier than" and "finish no later than" date.

Answer 252

A type of procurement document used to request a total price to do all the work, from prospective sellers. It is generally used in FP contracts.

Answer 253

A dependency between two activities, or between an activity and a milestone. The four possible types are: Finish-to-Start; Finish-to-Finish; Start-to-Start; and Start-to-Finish.

Answer 254

Collecting performance data, measuring performance, preparing and distributing performance reports.

Answer 255

A sequence of activities connected by logical relationships in a project schedule network diagram.

Answer 256

A point at which dependency lines connect on a schedule network diagram.

Answer 257

An uncertain event (or risk) that will impact the project positively, if it occurs.

Answer 258

A relationship in which a schedule activity has more than one predecessor.

Answer 259

A relationship in which a schedule activity has more than one successor.

Answer 260

An activity that logically comes before a dependent activity in a schedule. In other words, it's the "from" activity of a logical relationship in a schedule network.

Answer 261

The documented narrative description of the product scope.

Answer 262

A Project Management Knowledge Area that includes the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate planning, collection, creation, distribution, storage, retrieval, management, control, monitoring, and the ultimate disposition of project information.

Answer 263

A Project Management Knowledge Area that includes the processes involved in planning, estimating, budgeting, financing, funding, managing, and controlling costs so that the project can be completed within the approved budget.

Answer 264

A Project Management Knowledge Area that includes the processes to identify, acquire, and manage the resources needed for the successful completion of the project.

Answer 265

Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project.

Answer 266

A Project Management Knowledge Area that includes the processes and activities needed to identify, define, combine, unify, and coordinate the various processes and project management activities within the Project Management Process Groups.

Answer 267

The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.

Answer 268

The members of the project team who are directly involved in project management activities.

Answer 269

A logical group of work within a project, usually resulting in a major deliverable. For example, phases for an IT project could be requirements, design, development, testing and implementation. Note: Project phases are NOT the same as Project Management Process Groups.

Answer 270

A Project Management Knowledge Area that includes the processes necessary to purchase or acquire products, services, or results needed from outside the project team.

Answer 271

A Project Management Knowledge Area that includes the processes for incorporating the organization's quality policy regarding planning, managing, and controlling project and product quality requirements, in order to meet stakeholders' expectations.

Answer 272

A Project Management Knowledge Area that includes the processes of conducting risk management planning, identification, analysis, response planning, response implementation, and monitoring risk on a project.

Answer 273

All the "work" that goes in producing project deliverables (products, services or results).

Answer 274

A Project Management Knowledge Area that includes the processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.

Answer 275

A documented list of project team members, their project roles, and communication information.

Answer 276

A Project Management Knowledge Area that includes the processes required to manage the timely completion of a project.

Answer 277

The degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfills requirements.

Answer 278

A type of procurement document used by the buyer to solicit information (about a product or a service or seller's capability) from a prospective seller. It is generally used "before" the actual procurement document (RFP, RFQ or IFB) is sent out.

Answer 279

A type of procurement document used to request detailed proposals from prospective sellers, with information such as how the work will be done, who will do it, where will they do it, and how much will it cost, seller's past experience in this field, etc. It is generally used in CR contracts.

Answer 280

A type of procurement document used to request price quotations from prospective sellers for standard items or services, or price per unit of measure. It is generally used in T&M contracts.

Answer 281

A condition or capability that is required to be present in a product, service, or result to satisfy a business need.

Answer 282

A grid that links product requirements from their origin to the deliverables that satisfy them.

Answer 283

A buffer in the Project Management Plan to account for cost and/or schedule risk.

Answer 284

A risk that remains after risk responses have been implemented.

Answer 285

A hierarchical structure of project resources by resource category and type.

Answer 286

A calendar of working and nonworking days of a particular resource.

Answer 287

A bar chart showing the amount of time that a resource is scheduled to work on a project over a given period of time.

Answer 288

An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on one or more project objectives.

Answer 289

A group of potential causes of risk. Examples include technical, external, organizational, environmental, or project management.

Answer 290

A function that a person is assigned to perform. For example, a project manager's role is to manage a project and achieve its objectives.

Answer 291

The sum of the products, services, and results to be provided as a project.

Answer 292

The approved version of a scope statement, work breakdown structure (WBS), and its associated WBS dictionary, that can be changed using formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results.

Answer 293

The uncontrolled expansion to product or project scope without adjustments to time, cost, and resources.

Answer 294

A graphical display of cumulative costs, labor hours, percentage of work, or other quantities, plotted against time. The S-shape of the curve results from the fact that factors such as cost and work completed are flat (low) at the beginning of a project, increase steadily as the project progresses, and then decline rapidly and become flat toward the end of the project.

Answer 295

A new risk that emerges as a result of applying risk responses.

Answer 296

It translates the uncertainties in activity duration or cost into their potential impact on overall project objectives such as total project duration or cost. Project simulations use computer models and estimates of risk, usually expressed as a probability distribution of possible costs or durations at a detailed work level, and are typically performed using Monte Carlo technique.

Answer 297

A precise statement of the needs to be satisfied and the essential characteristics that are required. Examples are: requirement specification, design specification, product specification, and test specification.

Answer 298

The area on either side of the mean on a control chart that reflects the customer's requirements for a product or service. This area may be greater than or less than the area defined by the control limits.

Answer 299

A component of the resource management plan that describes when and how project team members will be acquired and how long they will be needed.

Answer 300

A person, group, or organization (e.g., customer, sponsor, performing organization, or the public) that is actively involved in a project, or whose interests may be positively or negatively affected by the project.

Answer 301

A document established by an authority, custom, or general consent as a model or example.

Answer 302

A logical relationship in which the predecessor ("from") activity cannot finish until the successor ("to") activity has started.

Answer 303

A logical relationship in which a successor ("to") activity cannot start until a predecessor ("from") activity has started.

Answer 304

A narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by the project.

Answer 305

An information gathering technique used in risk management to increase the breadth of the risks considered, and devise contingency plans, by examining the project's strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.

Answer 306

An uncertain event (or risk) that will negatively impact a project, if it occurs.

Answer 307

The point beyond which an event or risk becomes unacceptable and a response should be triggered.

Answer 308

A type of contract that is a hybrid of cost reimbursable (CR) and fixed price (FP) contracts.

Answer 309

The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project or violating a schedule constraint.

Answer 310

Warning sign or symptom that indicates that a risk is about to occur.

Answer 311

The difference between the actual (measured) value (of scope, schedule, cost, quality, etc.) and the baseline value.

Answer 312

The term to describe the stated and unstated customer needs or requirements.

Answer 313

A process for sanctioning project work to ensure that the work is done by the person or organization, at the right time, and in the proper sequence.

Answer 314

An element at any level of the WBS.

Answer 315

The work defined at the lowest level of the work breakdown structure for which cost and duration are estimated and managed.

Answer 316

A technique used to develop and control project schedule by assessing the feasibility of project schedule under various scenarios. It works by asking questions such as "what if scenario X happens?".

Answer 317

An assessment of correctness.

Answer 318

The skill and capacity required to complete assigned activities within the project constraints.

Answer 319

A general concept of delivering results that fall within the limits that define acceptable variation for a quality requirement.

Answer 320

The work done to compensate for imperfections that prevent organizations from completing planned activities correctly as essential first-time work. It consists of actions that are related to prevention and inspection.

Answer 321

A category of contract that involves payments to the seller for all legitimate actual costs incurred for completed work, plus an award fee representing seller profit.

Answer 322

The person(s) or organization(s) that will pay for the project's product, service, or result.

Answer 323

A state of fulfillment in which the needs of a customer are met or exceeded for the customer's expected experiences as assessed by the customer at the moment of evaluation.

Answer 324

One individual makes the decision for the group.

Answer 325

The ability to identify, assess, and manage the personal emotions of oneself and other people, as well as the collective emotions of groups of people.

Answer 326

Represents profit as a component of compensation to a seller.

Answer 327

A fixed-price contract, but with a special provision allowing for predefined final adjustments to the contract price due to changed conditions, such as inflation changes, or cost increases (or decreases) for specific commodities.

Answer 328

An agreement that sets the fee that will be paid for a defined scope of work regardless of the cost or effort to deliver it.

Answer 329

Techniques used to select a course of action from different alternatives.

Answer 330

An official recommendation or advice that indicates policies, standards, or procedures for how something should be accomplished.

Answer 331

A set of financial incentives related to cost, schedule, or technical performance of the seller.

Answer 332

Support from more than 50 percent of the members of the group.

Answer 333

An estimate of the most probable activity duration that takes into account all of the known variables that could affect performance.

Answer 334

The work done to deal with the consequences of errors and failures in doing activities correctly on the first attempt. In efficient quality management systems, the amount of nonconformance work will approach zero.

Answer 335

An estimate of the shortest activity duration that takes into account all of the known variables that could affect performance.

Answer 336

A technique that is used to measure, compare, and analyze actual performance of work in progress on the project against the baseline.

Answer 337

Estimate of the longest activity duration that takes into account all of the known variables that could affect performance.

Answer 338

Decisions made by the largest block in a group, even if a majority is not achieved.

Answer 339

A structured pattern of actions adopted by an organization such that the organization's policy can be explained as a set of basic principles that govern the organization's conduct.

Answer 340

A measure of exactness.

Answer 341

A sequence of steps that is used to execute a process in order to accomplish a consistent performance or result.

Answer 342

The review of contracts and contracting processes for completeness, accuracy, and effectiveness.

Answer 343

A Project Management Knowledge Area that includes the processes required to identify the people, groups, or organizations that could impact or be impacted by the project, to analyze stakeholder expectations and their impact on the project, and to develop appropriate management strategies for effectively engaging stakeholders in project decisions and execution.

Answer 344

A set of individuals who support the project manager in performing the work of the project to achieve the project's objectives.

Answer 345

The organizational framework whose structure provides the policies, processes, procedures, and resources required to implement the Quality Management Plan. The typical project Quality Management Plan should be compatible to the organization's quality management system.

Answer 346

A policy specific to the Project Quality Management Knowledge Area, it establishes the basic principles that should govern the organization's actions as it implements its system for quality management.

Answer 347

A condition or capability that will be used to assess conformance by validating the acceptability of an attribute for the quality of a result.

Answer 348

An assignment that can be delegated within a Project Management Plan such that the assigned resource incurs a duty to perform the requirements of the assignment.

Answer 349

The degree of uncertainty an organization or individual is willing to accept in anticipation of a reward.

Answer 350

The level of risk exposure above which risks are addressed and below which risks may be accepted.

Answer 351

Another name for Discretionary Dependency.

Answer 352

A component of the project management plan that identifies the strategies and actions required to promote productive involvement of stakeholders in project or program decision making and execution.

Answer 353

The quantified description of acceptable variation for a quality requirement.

Answer 354

Agreement by everyone in the group on a single course of action.

Answer 355

Deliverables that have successfully passed the Control Quality process.

Answer 356

Discrete, unorganized, unprocessed measurements or raw observations.

Answer 357

The method used to create and evolve the product, service, or result during the project life cycle, such as predictive, iterative, incremental, agile, or a hybrid method.

Answer 358

Knowledge that can be codified using symbols such as words, numbers, and pictures. In simple terms, knowledge that can be documented is known as explicit knowledge.

Answer 359

Organized or structured data, processed for a specific purpose to make it meaningful, valuable, and useful in specific contexts.

Answer 360

A mixture of experience, values and beliefs, contextual information, intuition, and insight that people use to make sense of new experiences and information.

Answer 361

A discipline concerned with the way individuals, groups, and organizations develop knowledge.

Answer 362

A review at the end of a phase in which a decision is made to continue to the next phase, to continue with modification, or to end a project or program.

Answer 363

All documents used in signing, executing, and closing an agreement. Procurement documentation may include documents predating the project.

Answer 364

The approach by the buyer to determine the project delivery method and the type of legally binding agreement(s) that should be used to deliver the desired results.

Answer 365

A project document that includes quality management issues, recommendations for corrective actions, and a summary of findings from quality control activities and may include recommendations for process, project, and product improvements.

Answer 366

An individual with management authority over one or more resources.

Answer 367

An aggregate measure of the potential impact of all risks at any given point in time in a project, program, or portfolio.

Answer 368

The person responsible for monitoring the risks and for selecting and implementing an appropriate risk response strategy.

Answer 369

A project document developed progressively throughout the Project Risk Management processes, which summarizes information on individual project risks and the level of overall project risk.

Answer 370

A meeting to examine and document the effectiveness of risk responses in dealing with overall project risk and individual project risks.

Answer 371

A team formation where the team functions with an absence of centralized control.

Answer 372

A contract between a service provider (either internal or external) and the end user that defines the level of service expected from the service provider.

Answer 373

A document that records the team values, agreements, and operating guidelines, as well as establishes clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members.

Answer 374

A modification to any deliverable, project management plan component, or project document that is not under formal change control.

Answer 375

A projection of the amount of budget deficit or surplus, expressed as the difference between the Budget at Completion (BAC) and the Estimate at Completion (EAC).

Answer 376

A document outlining the activities necessary for achieving the planned benefits. It identifies a timeline and the tools and resources necessary to ensure the benefits are fully realized over time.

Answer 377

Determining the appropriate combination of processes, inputs, tools, techniques, outputs, and life cycle phases to manage a project.

Answer 378

Phase-end reviews in which the key stakeholders (such as management, sponsor or customer) decide whether it's worth continuing the project. There may be several reasons for killing or terminating a project. For example, if the project performance is below par, or the need for the project no longer exists, the project may be terminated.

Answer 379

Traditionally, this term referred to project's Scope, Time and Cost. Later it was expanded to include Quality, Risk, and Customer Satisfaction. A change to one of these factors must be evaluated for impact to all the other factors, as part of integrated change control process.

Answer 380

A graphical representation of how much work is done. The total work is tracked on the vertical axis, with time along the horizontal. It allows progress to be tracked independently of scope changes. Though commonly used in Agile software development, these charts can be applied to any project containing measurable progress over time.

Answer 381

A graphical representation of work left to do versus time. The outstanding work (or backlog) is often on the vertical axis, with time along the horizontal. It is useful for predicting when all of the work will be completed. Though commonly used in Agile software development, these charts can be applied to any project containing measurable progress over time.

Answer 382

A technique of analyzing the functions of an item, assigning values to those functions, and providing the functions at the lowest overall cost without loss of performance. In simple words, value analysis is about doing the same work at lesser cost.

Answer 383

A relationship that is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work. Example - Foundation needs to be laid before the building can be erected. It is also known as Hard Logic or Hard Dependency.

Answer 384

A relationship that is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or an aspect of the project where a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences. Example - The building construction should start after the rainy season is over. It is also known as Preferred Logic, Preferential Logic, or Soft Logic.

Answer 385

A relationship between project activities and non-project activities. Such a dependency is usually outside the project team's control. Example - The building construction can start only after the government permit is obtained.

Answer 386

The amount of unreasonable extra time added to the estimate, just to feel confident with the estimate.

Answer 387

A relationship between/among project activities. Such a dependency is usually within the project team's control. Example - Developers need to complete coding the application before testers can test it.

Answer 388

Work expands to fill the time available for its completion.

Answer 389

An agreed-upon amount of variation to be allowed before some action needs to be taken.

Answer 390

Costs that cannot be directly attributed to a specific project, such as management costs and general administration costs.

Answer 391

The cost of a product over its entire life (including cost of development, acquisition, operation, support and disposal), and not just the project cost.

Answer 392

A detailed estimate developed from well defined information. It is in the range of -5% to +10%.

Answer 393

A cost estimate based on high level requirements and expert judgment.

Answer 394

Costs that can be directly attributed to a specific project.

Answer 395

The duration from the beginning of the project to the date on which the PV should have been equal to the current value of EV. On the EVM chart, it is the date on which the horizontal line through the current value of EV intersects the PV curve.

Answer 396

Giving customer extras like extra functionality, high quality, better performance than what is part of the project requirements.

Answer 397

Seven consecutive data points fall on the same side of the mean (either above or below the mean) on a control chart.

Answer 398

A verifiable measure.

Answer 399

A bar chart used to plot the frequency of occurrence of a particular problem or situation. It can show the number of defects per deliverable, a ranking of the cause of defects, the number of times each process is noncompliant, or other representations of project or product defects in graphical form.

Answer 400

A process in which raw materials are delivered just in time for use, thus eliminating costs associated with inventory handling, maintenance and even inspection.

Answer 401

The process of ensuring that the end result will meet the quality expectations of the customer.

Answer 402

Failures found by the project (team).

Answer 403

Failures found by the customer.

Answer 404

Judging a person to be good or bad in a particular area, depending upon his/her performance in another area. For example, if Miriam is a good designer, she would make a good project manager too (which may not necessarily be the case).

Answer 405

It is the acceptance of success or failure.

Answer 406

Communication among peers.

Answer 407

Communicating up and down the levels of the organization.

Answer 408

A stakeholder whose interests are negatively impacted by the project, or who is not interested in the success of the project. Such stakeholders may work to make the project a failure.

Answer 409

The recognition of power relationships, both formal and informal, and also the willingness to operate within these structures.

Answer 410

An understanding of the differences between individuals, groups, and organizations and adapting the project's communication strategy in the context of these differences.

Answer 411

The act of collecting and distributing project information.

Answer 412

A risk that provides an opportunity of profit or loss. The risk may be a threat or an opportunity.

Answer 413

The time and cost reserves that account for "unknown-unknowns" or simply "unknowns".

Answer 414

A plan specifying the actions to be taken when a risk event (positive or negative) occurs.

Answer 415

A plan specifying the alternative set of actions to be taken if the primary plan is not effective in dealing with a risk event.

Answer 416

Known unknowns are things we know that we don't know. These are the risks that are identified in risk management, but have no suitable response strategy. In other words, these are the residual risks on the project. Known unknowns are managed by using Contingency Reserves.

Answer 417

Unknown unknowns are things we do not even know that we don't know. These are risks that are not even identified during risk management. Unknown unknowns are managed by using Management Reserves.

Answer 418

The period of time within which a response to the risk is to be implemented in order to be effective.

Answer 419

The period of time before the risk might have an impact on one or more project objectives.

Answer 420

The period of time that may elapse after a risk has occurred before its impact is discovered.

Answer 421

The ease with which the risk owner (or owning organization) can manage the occurrence or impact of a risk.

Answer 422

The degree to which the risk owner (or owning organization) is able to control the risk's outcome.

Answer 423

The ease with which the results of the risk occurring, or being about to occur, can be detected and recognized.

Answer 424

The extent to which the risk is related to other individual project risks.

Answer 425

The potential for the risk to have a positive or negative effect on the organization's strategic goals.

Answer 426

The degree to which a risk is perceived to matter by one or more stakeholders.

Answer 427

Uncertainty about some key characteristics of a planned event or activity or decision.

Answer 428

Uncertainty arising from lack of knowledge or understanding of certain aspects of the project.

Answer 429

It is the effect of uncertainty on the project as a whole, arising from all sources of uncertainty including individual risks, representing the exposure of stakeholders to the implications of variations in project outcome, both positive and negative.

Answer 430

The maximum price that a buyer is willing to pay. It includes Target Price plus buyer's share of the cost overrun.

Answer 431

The ratio that describes how the buyer and the seller share cost savings or cost overruns. It is usually expressed as X:Y, where X is the percentage share of the buyer, and Y is that of the seller.

Answer 432

It is the "goal" set for the total cost of the project which the seller should aim to keep within. It does not include seller's profit.

Answer 433

A provision in a contract that excuses the parties involved from any liability or contractual obligations because of acts of God, wars, terrorism, or other such events.

Answer 434

Seller's Fee or Profit.

Answer 435

It is one or more sentences in the everyday or business language of the end user or user of a system that captures what a user does or needs to do as part of his or her job function. It is commonly used in Agile-based software development projects to capture requirements.

Answer 436

A prototyping technique showing sequence or navigation through a series of images or illustrations.

Answer 437

Scheduled reviews to record lessons learned.

Answer 438

A chart that tracks the work that remains to be completed in the iteration backlog.

Answer 439

It is a lean manufacturing strategy used to reduce waste in the production process. It creates a workflow where work is pulled only if there is a demand for it.

Answer 440

An ordered list of user-centric requirements that a team maintains for a product.

Answer 441

A tool to visually depict work at various stages of process.

Answer 442

Situations, conditions, and actions that slow down or hinder progress.

Answer 443

Barriers that are movable, avoidable, or able to be overcome with some effort or strategy.

Answer 444

Events or conditions that cause stoppages in the work or any further advancement.

Answer 445

A desired end state, often described as a set of desired objectives and outcomes.

Answer 446

Fictitious characters used to represent the users of a future product.

Answer 447

A unit for estimating product backlog items used on agile projects based on how long an item would take to complete if it were the only work being performed, there were no interruptions, and all resources necessary to complete the work were immediately available. It is also called Ideal Days or Ideal Hours.

Answer 448

The technique of using a fixed duration, short cycle time of development work.

Answer 449

Lean (or Lean thinking) is used to describe the system known as the Toyota Way developed by Toyota. Lean is a broad system that applies to the entire enterprise, including product development, production, sales, service and HR.

Answer 450

A single-team process framework used to manage product development.

Answer 451

Absorbing information subconsciously by overhearing useful discussions of other colocated team members.

Answer 452

An agile practice of experimenting (iterating) freely and often in order to learn from the mistakes and achieve the desired outcomes quickly.

Answer 453

A set metric used to evaluate a team's performance against the project vision and objectives.

Answer 454

A conflict resolution technique that emphasizes agreements rather than differences. It does not solve a problem, but merely brushes it under the carpet. It is also known as Accommodate technique.

Answer 455

A conflict resolution technique that involves finding a "common ground" that brings some degree of satisfaction to all the parties involved in the conflict. It results in a lose-lose situation.

Answer 456

A conflict resolution technique that involves incorporating multiple viewpoints in order to come to a consensus.

Answer 457

A conflict resolution technique that pushes one particular viewpoint at the expense of others. It generates a win-lose situation.

Answer 458

A conflict resolution technique that involves retreating away from or avoiding a conflict. It does not solve the problem and just "postpones" it. It usually isn't the best technique for conflict resolution. It is also known as Avoid technique.

Answer 459

A Critical Path Method (CPM) technique to calculate the late finish dates and late start dates by working backwards through the schedule model from the project end date.

Answer 460

Any activity on a critical path in a project schedule.

Answer 461

In a project schedule network diagram, it is the longest path and corresponds to the shortest duration to complete the project. Its duration determines the duration of the project.

Answer 462

In the critical path method, the earliest possible date on which a schedule activity can finish without violating any schedule constraint.

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