MICRO Flashcards by Arriane Cyrel (RMT)

A eukaryotic cell:
a. Is smaller and less complex than a prokaryotic cell
b. Is able to grow only in aerobic conditions
c. Contains membrane-bound organelles
d. Is unable to grow outside of another cell

c. Contains membrane-bound organelles

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The periplasmic space is required for:
a. Nutrient collection in both gram-positive and gram negative bacteria
b. Collection and enzymatic degradation of nutrients in gram-negative bacteria
c. Nutrient detoxification and enzymatic degradation in all bacteria
d. d. None of the above

b. Collection and enzymatic degradation of nutrients in gram-negative bacteria

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Which of the following components is present in gram-negative bacteria but not in gram-positive bacteria?
a. Peptidoglycan
b. Lipid A
c. Capsule
d. Flagella

b. Lipid A

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The growth rate of bacteria during the exponential phase of growth is
a. Zero
b. Increasing
c. Constant
d. Negative

c. Constant

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The formation of a mating pair during the process of conjugation in Escherichia coli requires
a. Lysis of the donor
b. A sex pilus
с. Transfer of both strands of DNA
d. A restriction endonuclease

b. A sex pilus

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Apatieng was seen in the emergency department with fever and symptoms of DIC, sepsis, and shock. Blood cultures taken from the patient grew gram negative bacteria. Which of the following cellular structures might be responsible for this condition?
a. Pili
b. Capsule
c. Endotoxin
d. Spore

c. Endotoxin

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Which of the following best describes an organism that cannot use oxygen but will not be killed by oxygen if exposed to it?
a. Aerotolerant anaerobe
b. Obligate anaerobe
с. Facultative anaerobe
d. Obligate aerobe

a. Aerotolerant anaerobe

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An encapsulated organism is considered to be virulent because it can mediate which of the following?
a. Form spore
b. Inhibit phagocytosis
с. Increase mutation rate
d. Enhance motility

b. Inhibit phagocytosis

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Reservoirs of infection include the following EXCEPT:
a. Humans
b. Environment
с. Vector
d. Animals

с. Vector

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What is the most effective way to break the chain of infection?
a. Handwashing
b. Autoclaving
с. Incineration
d. Disinfection

a. Handwashing

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If there is delay in processing of viral samples, at what temperature is the sample stored?
a. 4 deg. Celsius
b. -4 deg. Celsius
с. 70 deg. Celsius
d. -70 deg. Celsius

a. 4 deg. Celsius

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If there is delay in processing of fungal samples, what should you do?
a. Refrigerate the sample
b. Add NSS to the sample
c. Freeze the sample
d. Wait for the next MT on duty

a. Refrigerate the sample

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When cleansing the skin with alcohol and then iodine for the collection of a blood culture, the iodine (or iodophor) should remain intact on the skin for at least:
A. 10 sec
B. 30 sec
C. 60 sec
D. 5 min

C. 60 sec

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Which of the following is categorized under biosafety level 3?
a. Ebola virus
b. Bacillus subtilis
с. Bacillus anthracis
d. Salmonella

с. Bacillus anthracis

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The risk group classification for infectious agents that can cause serious human disease but for which effective treatments and preventive measures are available is:
a. Risk group 1
b. Risk group 2
c. Risk group 3
d. Risk group 4

c. Risk group 3

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Which type of filter does a class II BSC use to remove infectious agents?
a. Millipore filter
b. HEPA filter
c. Dust filter
d. Charcoal filter

b. HEPA filter

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Removal of resistant bacterial spores can be accomplished using all of the following methods except:
a. Moist heat at 121 deg. C at 15 psi
b. Incineration
c. Moist heat at 132 deg. C for 1 hour
d. UV radiation

d. UV radiation

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Autoclaving must be performed under:
a. 121 °C, 15 psi, 15 minutes
b. 151 °C, 12 psi, 15 minutes
c. 121 °C, 15 psi, 5 minutes
d. 151 °C, 5 psi, 15 minutes

a. 121 °C, 15 psi, 15 minutes

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Which of the following statements is true about specimen collection?
a. CSF should be placed in a sterile tube and can be stored at room temperature for up to 24 hours
b. Stool specimen should be placed in a sterile container and can be refrigerated if there is delay in processing.
c. Calcium alginate swabs can be used for collecting viral specimens
d. Swabs are not acceptable for fungal isolation

d. Swabs are not acceptable for fungal isolation

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All of the following can be refrigerated before testing except:
a. Stool
b. Urine
c. Blood
d. Viral specimen

c. Blood

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A urine specimen was collected at 8:00 a.m. The nurse labeled the sample and placed it next to the tube station to be sent to the laboratory for testing. The specimen was received in the laboratory for culture at 1:00 p.m. on the same day. The microbiologist should:
a. Set up a routine bacteriology culture
b. Set up a routine bacteriology culture and note the time
c. Reject the specimen
d. Call the nurseto explain why the specimen was rejected and request a new sample

d. Call the nurseto explain why the specimen was rejected and request a new sample

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To ensure safety, where should one process fungal samples?
a. Laminar flow
b. Well-ventilated room
c. Near Bunsen burner
d. Biosafety Cabinet

d. Biosafety Cabinet

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Autoclave temperature checking should be done:
a. Daily
b. Weekly
с. Monthly
d. Quarterly

a. Daily

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All of the following are differential media except:
a. Blood agar
b. Chocolate agar
c. MacConkey’s agar
d. Eosin methylene blue agar

b. Chocolate agar

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Selective media: a. May be differential b. Allow growth of all organisms c. Are used for growth of fastidious organisms d. Contain dyes or antibiotics to suppress the growth of some organisms

d. Contain dyes or antibiotics to suppress the growth of some organisms

The step in the Gram stain process that distinguishes between gram-positive and gram-negative organisms is: a. Fixing of the cells to the slide using heat or methanol b. Decolorization using alcohol or acetone c. Counterstain of the Gram stain using safranin d. Application of the mordant, Gram's iodine

b. Decolorization using alcohol or acetone

When examining the Gram stain QC slides, you note that S. aureus and E. coli stained pink. Which of the following is likely? a. The result is correct b. The two smears are under-decolorized c. The S. aureus smear is over decolorized d. The E. coli smear is over-decolorized

c. The S. aureus smear is over decolorized

A CSF sample containing 2 drops of CSF was collected by lumbar puncture and was subject to stat Gram stain and culture. The direct GS is reported as many neutrophils and no microorganisms seen. The remaining drop of CSF should be inoculated to: a. Blood agar b. CNA agar c. Chocolate agar d. Thayer-Martin

c. Chocolate agar

An expectorated sputum is sent to the laboratory for culture from a patient with respiratory distress. The direct specimen Gram stain shows many squamous epithelial cells (>25/lpf) and rare squamous neutrophils. The microscopic appearance of the organisms present include: Moderate gram-positive cocci in chains and diplococci Moderate gram-negative diplococci Moderate palisading gram-positive bacilli all in moderate amounts This gram stain is most indicative of: a. A pneumococcal pneumonia b. An anaerobic infection c. A Haemophilus pneumonia d. Oropharyngeal flora

d. Oropharyngeal flora

Upon review of a sputum Gram stain, the technician notes that all neutrophil nuclei in the smear stained dark blue. The best explanation for this finding is: a. lodine was omitted from the staining procedure b. Slide was inadequately decolorized acetone/alcohol c. Sputum smear was prepared too thin d. Cellular components have stained as expected with

b. Slide was inadequately decolorized acetone/alcohol

The difference between the ZN AFS technique and the Kinyoun AFS technique is the: a. Type of dyes used b. Type of microscope used to interpret stained smears с. Strength of acid decolorizer d. Use of heat to allow the dye to penetrate organism

d. Use of heat to allow the dye to penetrate organism

The stain that binds the nucleic acid of organisms but does not discriminate between gram-positive or gram-negative organisms is called: a. ZN stain b. Auramine-rhodamine stain c. Gram stain d. Acridine orange

d. Acridine orange

A gram-negative bacillus that produces an acid slant and acid butt on TSI can ferment which of the following carbohydrates? a. Glucose only b. Glucose and Lactose or sucrose or both c. Lactose only d. Lactose and sucrose, but not glucose

b. Glucose and Lactose or sucrose or both

Tryptophan broth is inoculated and incubated 24 hours. After incubation, Kovac's reagent is added. A red color develops at the surface of the broth. Which product of metabolism was formed? a. Mixed acids b. H2S с. Phenylpyruvate d. Indole

d. Indole

In citrate utilization test, a positive result is determined by: a. Increase in pH from citrate utilization b. Increases in pH from urease activity c. Decrease in pH from citrate utilization d. Decreases in pH from nitrate reduction

a. Increase in pH from citrate utilization

The Voges-Proskauer (VP) test detects which end product of glucose fermentation? A. Acetoin B. Nitrite С. Acetic acid D. Hydrogen sulfide

A. Acetoin

Putrescine is an alkaline amine product of which bacterial enzyme? A. Arginine decarboxylase B. Phenylalanine deaminase C. Ornithine decarboxylase D. Lysine decarboxylase

C. Ornithine decarboxylase

Which of the following is true about quality control (Qc) testing? a. A laboratory must perform QC every day that patient isolates are tested. b. A laboratory can perform weekly QC if it performs fewer than 10 tests daily. c. A laboratory can perform weekly QC once accurate performance of 20 to 30 days of daily quality control has been documented. d. A laboratory does not have to perform QC if an automated test antimicrobial susceptibility test system is used.

c. A laboratory can perform weekly QC once accurate performance of 20 to 30 days of daily quality control has been documented.

All of the following are considered when standardizing antimicrobial susceptibility testing except: a. Growth medium cation concentration b. Incubation time c. Virulence of organism d. Antimicrobial concentration

c. Virulence of organism

How to validate the result of AST? a. Parallel testing with a new method b. Parallel testing with another personnel c. Testing with a reference reagent d. Testing with a reference organism

d. Testing with a reference organism

Refers to changes that result in observably reduced susceptibility of an organism to a particular antimicrobial agent. a. Clinical resistance b. Biologic resistance с. Intrinsic resistance d. Microorganism-mediated

b. Biologic resistance

Refers to antimicrobial resistance from genetically encoded traits of the microorganism. a. Clinical resistance b. Biologic resistance c. Intrinsic resistance d. Microorganism-mediated

d. Microorganism-mediated

The HACEK group are significant microorganisms causing? a. Gastroenteritis b. Endocarditis с. Meningitis d. UTI

b. Endocarditis

A gram-negative bacillus isolated from a stool specimen produces clear colonies on MAC and yellow colonies on TCBS. Which organism would you suspect? a. Vibrio parahaemolyticus b. Vibrio cholerae c. Plesiomonas d. Aeromonas

b. Vibrio cholerae

Darting motility is a characteristic of which organism? a. Aeromonas b. Campylobacter с. Vibrio cholerae d. Arcobacter

b. Campylobacter

How can Pseudomonas aeruginosa be differentiated from other fluorescent group pseudomonads? a. Ability to grow at 42 degrees Celsius b. Presence of a blue-green pigment diffusing through the medium c. Grape-like odor d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Which nonfermenter is most commonly isolated from patients with cystic fibrosis? a. Burkholderia pseudomallei b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. Acinetobacter baumannii d. Burkholderia multivorans

b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Which of the following organisms causes a glanders-like disease in humans and animals? a. Burkholderia pseudomallei b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. Acinetobacter baumannii d. Burkholderia multivorans

a. Burkholderia pseudomallei

A gram-positive anaerobic bacillus was isolated from a wound specimen and had the following characteristics: Double zone of beta-hemolysis on SBA Lecithinase positive Lipase negative Spot indole negative What is the most likely identification of this organism? a. Clostridium perfringens b. Clostridium ramosum c. Clostridium septicum d. Clostridium tetani

a. Clostridium perfringens

Which of the following organisms is an obligate anaerobic, gram-negative coccus? a. Bacteroides b. Veillonella с. Peptostreptococcus d. Fusobacterium

b. Veillonella

A nonpigmented mycobacterium is isolated that reduces nitrate to nitrite and is niacin positive. Which organism would you expect? a. Mycobacterium kansasii b. Mycobacterium хепорі с. Mycobacterium tuberculosis d. Mycobacterium avium complex

с. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A beta-hemolytic, catalase-negative, gram-positive coccus is found to be resistant to bacitracin and sulfamethoxazole. Which of the following is a likely presumptive identification? a. Group A streptococci b. Group B streptococci c. Group D streptococci d. Enterococci

b. Group B streptococci

Culture from an infected lesion yields catalase positive, gram-positive cocci. The colonies appear beta-hemolytic, smooth, butyrous and when tested, produce a positive tube coagulase test. Which of the following species is involved in this infection? a. S. epidermidis b. S. saprophyticus c. S. haemolyticus d. S. aureus

d. S. aureus

What gene codes for oxacillin resistance in certain staphylococcal species? a. aac b. Cat c. mecA d. vanA

c. mecA

A nonhemolytic, catalase negative, gram-positive coccus is PYR positive. You should also expect the isolate to have which of the following characteristics? A. Bile esculin positive B. Salt (6.5%) Intoterance с. Bile soluble d. Both a and b

A. Bile esculin positive

A CSF sample from a neonate grows gram positive cocci that are beta-hemolytic and catalase negative. Which of the following group of tests would be most helpful in identifying the organism? a. Bacitracin, CAMP, Hippurate hydrolysis b. Optochin, CAMP and bile solubility c. Growth in 6.5% NaCI and bile esculin d. Gram stain and motility

a. Bacitracin, CAMP, Hippurate hydrolysis

You isolated alpha hemolytic colonies from the sputum sample of a 75-year-old patient. When tested, the colonies were found to be catalase negative, optochin resistant, bile solubility test negative and bile esculin test negative. This isolate can be identified as which of the following? a. Streptococcus agalactiae b. Viridans streptococci c. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Enterococcus faecalis

b. Viridans streptococci

SLS and SLO are virulence factors produced by which of the following organism? a. Group B streptococci b. Viridans streptococci с. Group D streptococci d. Streptococcus pyogenes

d. Streptococcus pyogenes

Which characteristics do most Neisseria spp. have? a. Oxidase-positive, gram-positive diplococci b. Oxidase-positive, gram-negative diplococci c. Oxidase-negative, gram-negative diplococci d. Oxidase-negative, gram-positive diplococci

b. Oxidase-positive, gram-negative diplococci

Which opportunistic pathogen is asaccharolytic, tributyrin hydrolysis positive and DNAse positive? a. Kingella dentrificans b. Neisseria mucosa с. Neisseria lactamica d. Moraxella catarrhalis

d. Moraxella catarrhalis

Which test can accurately differentiate N. lactamica from N. meningitidis? a. ONPG b. Catalase с. Acid from maltose d. Acid from sucrose

a. ONPG

A gram-positive branching filamentous organism recovered from a sputum specimen was found to be positive with a modified acid fast stain method. What is the most likely presumptive identification? A. Bacillus spp. B. Nocardia spp. C. Corynebacterium spp. D. Listeria spp.

B. Nocardia spp.

A throat culture was taken from a 6-year-old boy with a gray pseudomembrane covering his oropharynx. A catalase positive organism was isolated on cysteine-tellurite medium and subcultured to Tinsdale medium, where it grew as black colonies with brown halos. A Gram stain was performed on these colonies. Which of the following cellular morphologies was most likely seen? a. Gram-positive branching bacilli b. Gram-positive cocci in short chains c. Gram-positive bacilli in irregular clublike shape d. Gram-positive cocci in grapelike clusters

c. Gram-positive bacilli in irregular clublike shape

A blood culture is positive for gram-positive bacilli that gave the following growth characteristics and biochemical reactions: Catalase: Positive H2S on TSI: negative Growth of blood agar, nonhemolytic Nonmotile No spores These reactions are consistent with which of the following organisms? a. Listeria spp. b. Group B Streptococcus c. Erysipelothrix spp. d. Corynebacterium spp

d. Corynebacterium spp

The ortho-nitropheny!-ß-galactopyranoside (ONPG) test is most useful when differentiating: A. Salmonella spp. from Pseudomonas spp. B. E. coli from Shigella spp. C. Klebsiella spp. From Enterobacter spp. D. Proteus vulgaris from Salmonella spp.

B. E. coli from Shigella spp.

Which single test best separates Klebsiella oxytoca from K. pneumoniae? A. Urease B. Sucrose C. Citrate D. Indole

D. Indole

Which genera are positive for phenylalanine deaminase? A. Enterobacter, Escherichia, and Salmonella B. Morganella, Providencia, and Proteus C. Klebsiella and Enterobacter D. Proteus, Escherichia, and Shigella

B. Morganella, Providencia, and Proteus

Which genera of Enterobacteriaceae are usually nonmotile at 37°C? A. Shigella, Klebsiella, and Yersinia B. Escherichia, Edwardsiella, and Enterobacter C. Proteus, Providencia, and Salmonella D. Serratia, Morganella, and Hafnia

A. Shigella, Klebsiella, and Yersinia

A gram-negative rod is recovered from a catheterized urine sample from a nursing home patient. The lactose-negative isolate tested positive for indole, urease, ornithine decarboxylase, and phenylalanine deaminase and negative for H2S. The most probable identification is: A. Edwardsiella spp. B. Morganella spp. C. Ewingella spp. D. Shigella spp.

B. Morganella spp.

A bloody stool cultured from a 26-year-old woman after 3 days of severe diarrhea showed the following results at 48 hours after being plated on the following media: MacConkey agar: little normal flora with many non-lactose-fermenting colonies Hektoen enteric agar: many blue-green colonies Campylobacter blood agar and C. difficile agar: no growth Clear colonies (from MacConkey agar) tested negative for oxidase, indole, urease, motility, and H2S The most likely identification is: A. Shigella spp. B. Salmonella spp. C. Proteus spp. D. E. colil

A. Shigella spp.

A leg culture from a nursing home patient grew gram-negative rods on MacConkey agar as pink to dark pink oxidase-negative colonies. Given the following results, which is the most likely organism? TSI = A/A Indole = Neg VP = + Citrate = + MR = Neg HS = Neg Urease = + Motility = Neg Antibiotic susceptibility: resistant to carbenicillin and ampicillin A. Serratia marcescens B. Proteus vulgaris C. Enterobacter cloacae D. Klebsiella pneumoniae

D. Klebsiella pneumoniae

A leg-wound culture from a hospitalized 70-year-old diabetic man grew motile, lactose-negative colonies on MacConkey agar. Given the following biochemical reactions at 24 hours, what is the most probable organism? HS (TSI) = Neg Indole = Neg MR = Neg VP = + DNase = + Citrate = + Urease = Neg Phenylalanine deaminase = Neg Ornithine and lysine decarboxylase = + Arginine decarboxylase = Neg Gelatin hydrolysis = + A. Proteus vulgaris B. Serratia marcescens C. Proteus mirabilis D. Enterobacter cloacae

B. Serratia marcescens

Four blood cultures were taken over a 24-hour period from a 20-year-old woman with severe diarrhea. The cultures grew motile (room temperature), gram-negative rods. A urine specimen obtained by catheterization also showed gram-negative rods, 100,000 col/mL. Given the following results, which is the most likely organism? TSI = A/A gas VP = Neg HS = Neg Urease = Neg Indole = + MR = + Citrate = Neg Lysine decarboxylase = + Phenylalanine deaminase = Neg A. Proteus vulgaris B. Salmonella typhi C. Yersinia enterocolitica D. E. coli

D. E. coli

Three consecutive stool cultures from a 25-year-old male patient produced scant normal fecal flora on MacConkey and Hektoen agars. However, colonies on CIN agar (cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin) displayed "bulls-eye" colonies after 48 hours incubation. The patient had been suffering from enterocolitis with fever, diarrhea, and abdominal pain for 2 days. What is the most likely identification of this gram-negative rod? A. E. coli B. Proteus mirabilis C. Yersinia enterocolitica D. Klebsiella pneumoniae

C. Yersinia enterocolitica

Which tickborne spirochete is associated with a bull's eye rash or skin lesion? a. Borrelia burgdorferi b. Treponema pallidum c. Leptospira d. Burkholderia spp.

a. Borrelia burgdorferi

Which of the following is/are treponemal antigen serologic test for syphilis? a. VDRL b. RPR c. FTA-ABS d. Both a and b

c. FTA-ABS

Which Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes are associated with lymphogranuloma venereum? a. A, B and C b. A to K c. D to K d. L1, 12 and L3

d. L1, 12 and L3

A male patient presents to his primary care provider complaining of headache, malaise and myalgia. He is also found to have fever but no rash is present. A CBC revealed leukopenia and clumps of blue inclusions within neutrophils. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Ehrlichiosis b. Human granulocytic anaplasmosis с. Fleaborne typhus d. Q fever

b. Human granulocytic anaplasmosis

Which of the following serves as a preservative in the Lactophenol blue stain? A. Sodium hydroxide B. Lactic acid C. Phenol d. Cotton blue

B. Lactic acid

The major features by which molds are routinely identified are: a. Macroscopic growth characteristics and microscopic morphology b. Biochemical reactions and microscopic morphology c. Macroscopic characteristics and selective media d. Specialized sexual reproductive cells and phialides

a. Macroscopic growth characteristics and microscopic morphology

A sputum sample from a patient with a known Klebsiella pneumoniae infection is received in the laboratory for fungus culture. The proper procedure for handling this specimen is to: a. Reject the current specimen a request a repeat culture when the bacterial organism is no longer present b. Incubate culture tubes at room temperature in order to inhibit the bacterial organism c. Include media that have cycloheximide and chloramphenicol added to inhibit bacterial organisms and saprophytic fungi d. Perform a direct PAS stain; if no fungal organisms are seen, reject the specimen

c. Include media that have cycloheximide and chloramphenicol added to inhibit bacterial organisms and saprophytic fungi

Many fungal infections are transmitted to man via inhalation of infectious structures. Which of the following is usually contracted in this manner? a. Sporothrix schenckii b. Trichophyton rubrum c. Malassezia furfur d. Histoplasma capsulatum

d. Histoplasma capsulatum

The one characteristic by which an unknown Cryptococcus spp. can be identified as Cryptococcus neoformans is: a. Appearance of yellow colonies b. Positive urease test c. Presence of a capsule d. Positive phenol oxidase test

d. Positive phenol oxidase test

A neonatal blood culture collected through a catheter grows a small yest. Microscopically, the yeast appears round at one end, with a bud-like structure on a broad base at the other end. Growth is enhanced around olive-oil saturated discs. The organism isolated is: a. Candida tropicalis b. Malassezia furfur c. Candida lipolytica d. Cryptococcus gatti

b. Malassezia furfur

The most sensitive test for the initial diagnosis of cryptococcal disease is: a. India ink b. Gram stain с. Cryptococcal antigen d. Giemsa stain

с. Cryptococcal antigen

The microscopic structures that are most useful in the identification of dermatophytes are: a. Septate and branching hyphae b. Racquet and pectinate hyphae с. Chlamydospores and microconidia d. Macroconidia and microconidia

d. Macroconidia and microconidia

Structure/s important in the microscopic ID of Coccidioides immitis are: a. Barrel-shaped arthrospores b. Tuberculate, thick-walled conidia c. Spherule d. Ship's wheel appearance

a. Barrel-shaped arthrospores c. Spherule

Crust from a cauliflower-like lesion on the hand exhibited brown spherical bodies 6-12 um in diameter when examined microscopically. A slow growing black mold grew on DBA. Microscopic examination revealed Cladosporium, phialophora and fonsecaea types of sporulation. The probable ID of this organism is: a. Fonsecaea pedrosoi b. Pseudallescheria boydii с. Phialophora verrucosa d. Cladosporium carrionii

a. Fonsecaea pedrosoi

What is the causative agent of Tinea versicolor? a. Piedraia hortae b. Hortea werneckii c. Malassezia furfur complex d. Trichosporon spp.

c. Malassezia furfur complex

Which one of the following provides a presumptive identification of a viral infection? a. cytopathic effect on cell cultures b. Intracellular inclusions in RBCs c. Cell lysis of sheep red blood cells d. Presence of mononuclear inflammatory cells

a. cytopathic effect on cell cultures

What specimen is used for VZV? a. Nasal swab b. Rectal swab c. Vesicle fluid d. Skin scraping

c. Vesicle fluid

The EBV is associated with which of the following? a. Chickenpox b. Hodgkin lymphoma с. Burkitt lymphoma d. Smallpox

с. Burkitt lymphoma

Which of the following agents is the most common cause of pediatric viral gastroenteritis? a. adenovirus, serotypes 40 and 41 b. Norwalk virus c. Corona virus d. Rotavirus

d. Rotavirus

Which of the following statements regarding antigenic shift or drift in influenza is correct? a. Antigenic drift is due to point mutations in the H and N genes b. Antigenic drift is responsible for pandemics of influenza c. Antigenic shift is responsible for seasonable epidemics of influenza d. Local annual outbreaks of influenza are often due to antigenic shift

a. Antigenic drift is due to point mutations in the H and N genes

Which of the following HIV tests is the assay for determining response to antiretrovirals? a. Serum ELISA b. Quantitative HIV RNA c. CD4 count d. P24 antigen detection

b. Quantitative HIV RNA

In a person vaccinated against hepatitis B virus several years prior, which serological marker would be expected? a. HBsAg b. HBeAg с. Anti-HBs d. Anti-HBc

с. Anti-HBs

All of the following are spiral-shaped, EXCEPT: a. Clostridium botulinum b. Campylobacter jejuni с. Treponema pallidum d. Vibrio cholerae

a. Clostridium botulinum

Which organism exhibits swimming, swarming and twitching motility? a. Proteus spp. b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa с. Spirochetes d. Vibrio spp.

b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Which of the following is NOT a type of bacterial motility? a. Swimming b. Swarming c. Darting d. Brownian movement

d. Brownian movement

Whcih of the folowing si not true about PROKARYOTES?

With histones

Which of the following produces EXOTOXIN?

Pseudomonas

Which of the following bacterial cell parts is the target of STERILIZATION?

Endospores

Which of the following phases of bacterial cell growth where the bacterium is most - to antibiotics?

Log phas

Color of G (+)?

Purple

Which of the following phases of bacterial cell growth where the bacterium is most - to antibiotics?

Log

What is the percentage requirement of obligate or strict AEROBES?

21%

Which of the following requires for 6.5% NaCl growth?

Enterococcus

Green metallic sheen on BAP

P. aeruginosa

Dry, rough, irregular, cauli-flower like on solid media

M. tuberculosis

Transport media for Vibrio

Cary-Blair

Cpt of MSA making it Selective

RBC

Useful for surface growth of Anaerobes

PRAS (prereduced anaerobic sterilized)

Not used as a transport medium for Vibrio

Buffered glycerol saline

Non fastidious media aka

Basal media

Type of growth in broth EXCEPT:

Spreding - slant

Quebec colony counter uses:

Dark background

Stain for metachromatic granules

Neisser Tyler, Hiss - Capsular Levaditi - Spirochetes

MAC indicator

Neutral red

MSA indicator

Phenol red

Added to CM to make it Differential

Dyes

A green or brownish discoloration around colonies on BAP Held from light source:

Alpha zone hemolysis BEHIND

Malonate test (+) result

Blue

E. coli vs. Shigella

Acetate Acetamide - Pseudomonas

Which of the following class of BSC is self-contained and 70% of the air is RECIRCULATED A. Class I B. Class IIA C. Class lIB D. Class III

B. Class IIA

Mesophile temp range

20-45oC

Which of the following is under BSL 2? A. Hantavirus В. S. aureus c.E. coli D. MTB ?

A. Hantavirus - 3 or 4 В. S. aureus ✅ c.E. coli - 123 D. MTB - 3

Which of the following is the most common blood bag contaminant at temperature REFRIGERATOR? A. B. cereus B. S. epidermidis C. Pseudomonas D. Y. enterocolitica

A. B. cereus -#2 RT B. S. epidermidis - #1 RT C. Pseudomonas -#2 REF D. Y. enterocolitica✅

Which is NOT considered a panic value in a Microbiology laboratory? Positive acid-fast stain S. pyogenes in a surgical wound Positive blood cultures Negative blood smear for malaria

Negative blood smear for malaria

In the following pairs of organisms, which two are EASIEST TO DISTINGUISH from each other by Gram stain? a. Listeria and Proteus b. Salmonella and Shigella c. Corynebacterium and Lactobacillus d. Bacillus and Clostridium

a. Listeria and Proteus - GPB, GNB

Why do we have to invert agar plates in the incubator?

Prevents accumulation of water condensation

What to do to avoid the accumulation of water and moisture in an agar plate?

Invert the medium

Depth of Agar for AST

3-5 mm

Composition of McFarland Standard a. Sulfuric Acid and Barium Chloride b. Hydrochloric Acid and Barium Chloride c. Hydrochloric Acid and Barium Sulfate d. Sulfuric Acid and Barium Sulfate

a. Sulfuric Acid and Barium Chloride

What will be the McFarland standard of an inoculum between 1.0 x 108 CFU/mL to 2.0 x 108 CFU/mL? A. 0.05 B. 0.5 C. 1.0 D. 1.5

D. 1.5

In thioglycolate broth medium, where do you find obligate anaerobe

Bottom

Increased Ca and Mg will lead to resistance of this bacteria to Aminoglycosides

P. aeruginosa

S. aureus vs. Other Staph

Coagulase test

Negative control for Optochin test

S. pyogenes

Beta hemolytoc strep with (+) Hippurate test

S. agalactiae

Gamma hemolytic Strep that blackens bile esculin agar and graws in NaCl

Enterococcus

Most common throat pathogen

S. pyogenes

Otitis media test

Optochin

Fermente glucose and maltose only

N. meningitidis

Martin Lewis medium contains the ff, EXCEPT:

Nystatin

Metabolizes Lactose

N. lactamica

Neisseria vs. Acinetobacter

Oxidase

Which of the following culture media is used to induce capsule formation of B. anthracis?

Bicarbonate agar

Which of the following can be used as a sample for C. difficile toxin?

Stool

Which of the following does NOT produce spores A. B. anthracis B. B. subtilis C. B. cereus D. B. fragilis

D. B. fragilis

Clostridium vs. Nonsporeforming anaerobic bacilli (Bacteroides)

ETHANOL SHOCK or HEAT SHOCK

E. rhusio distinct charac

H2s(+)

All these aerobes have cell walls containing MYCOLIC ACID acid, EXCEPT: a. Nocardia b. Rhodococcus с. Corynebacterium d. Streptomyces

d. Streptomyces

Actinomyces are: Gram (+) bacilli, aerobe Gram (+) bacilli, facultative anaerobe Gram (-) bacilli, aerobe Gram (-) bacilli, facultative anaerobe

Gram (+) bacilli, facultative anaerobe

Nontuberculous colonies that DEVELOP PIGMENT IN THE DARK OR LIGHT, and take longer than 7 days to appear on solid media are known as

Scrotochromogen

What type of mycobacteria produces only pigment when exposed to light?

Photochromogens

Mycobacterium that does not routinely need AST

M. marinum

Acid fast, non-spore forming gram positive bacilli under MTB complex that is niacin and nitrate positive a. M. tuberculosis b. M. fortuitum c. M. intracellulare d. M.bovis

a. M. tuberculosis

Method that uses heat to facilitate better staining of bacterial cell walls a. Gram stain b. Kinyoun c. Ziehl-Neelsen d. Acid fast stain

c. Ziehl-Neelsen

Biochemically, the Enterobacteriaceae are gram-negative rods that: a. Ferment glucose, reduce nitrate to nitrite, and are oxidase negative b. Ferment glucose, produce indophenol oxidase, and form gas c. Ferment lactose and reduce nitrite to nitrogen gas d. Ferment lactose and produce indophenol oxidase

a. Ferment glucose, reduce nitrate to nitrite, and are oxidase negative

Identify: Pink colonies on MAC TSI: A/A +G Methyl Red: + Citrate: - VP: - Indole: + H2S: - Motility: Motile CHOICES: A. E. coli B. S. typhi C. K. pneumoniae D. E. tarda

Most Enterobacteriaceae give (?) MR and VP reaction

Opposite

Which of the following is not part of the IMVIC test?

Virulence

What test is employed in the differentiation of the Enterobacteriaciae family? a. Indole b. IMViC c. Glucose fermentation d. Capsule

b. IMViC

LF (+)

Pink

Which of the following serotypes of E. coli produces watery stool with mucus and WBC? A. ETEC B. EIEC С. EPEC D. EAEC

B. EIEC

Burnt chocolate odor

Proteus

Mushroom-like odor

P. multocida

Identify the bacteria given the following results: H2S: (+) PAD: (+) Indole (+) and ODC (-) A. P. mirabilis B. Providencia C. M. morganii D. P. vulgaris

D. P. vulgaris

Identify the bacteria given the following results: TSI: A/A with gas; VP: (-); H2S: (-) Indole: (+); Urease: (-) MR: (+); LDC: (+) Citrate: (-); PAD: (-) A. E. coli B. E. aerogenes C. P. vulgaris D. S. typhi

Identify the bacteria given the following results: TSI: A/A XLD: colorless with black centers MAC: colorless BAP: grayish, swarming A. Citrobacter B. Salmonella C. Proteus D. Klebsiella

C. Proteus

Vibrio, sucrose nonfermenter

Vibrio mimicus

TCBS for

Vibrio

Small, curved, motile, gram-negative bacilli except Campylobacter Arcobacter Enterobacter Helicobacter

Enterobacter

Which of group of tests best differentiate Helicobacter pylori from Campylobacter jejuni? A. Catalase, oxidase and Gram stain B. Catalase, oxidase and nalidixic acid sensitivity C. Catalase, oxidase and cephalothin sensitivity D. Urease, nitrate and Hippurate hydrolysis

D. Urease, nitrate and Hippurate hydrolysis

C. jejuni optimal incubation temp

42oC

A gram negative bacilli that produces EXOTOXIN. It is also associated with CYSTIC FIBROSIS patients. A. P. aeruginosa В. В. серасіа C. B. pseudomallei D. B. mallei

A. P. aeruginosa✅ В. В. серасіа -#2 C. B. pseudomallei D. B. mallei

A zoonotic infection primarily affecting HORSES and causes severe local supportive or acute pulmonary infections in humans. A. B. pseudomallei В. В. серасіа C. B. mallei D. P. aeroginosa

C. B. mallei

Alcaligenes faecalis (formerly A. odorans) is distinguished from Bordetella bronchiseptica with which test? A. Urease (rapid) B. Oxidase C. Growth on MacConkey agar D. Motility

A. Urease (rapid)

Hemophilus that is Catalase (+), Lactose (-) and Xylose (+) A. H. ducrevi B. H. influenzae C. H. haemolyticus D. H. aegypticus

B. H. influenzae

An organism that causes chancroid and which appears as small gram-negative coccobacilli is H. ducreyi

H. ducreyi

STD; corkscrew motlity

T. pallidum

Human bite infection

E. corrodens

Standard procedure for the identification of Leptospira. A. Microscopic agglutination test B. ELISA C. PCR D. Enzyme immune assay

A. Microscopic agglutination test

How to prevent Lyme dse? Vaccination Limit exposure to ticks Treatment Safe sex

Limit exposure to ticks

Identify the bacteria being described: round shape, with elementary bodies and glycogen inclusion A. C. pneumoniae B. C. trachomatis C. C. psittasi D. Rickettsia

B. C. trachomatis

What is the most sensitive test for Chlamydia? a. NAAT b. Cell culture c. EIA d. Microscopy

a. NAAT✅ - most sensitive b. Cell culture - best medium (McCoy) c. EIA d. Microscopy - least sensitive

Useful for detection of Chlamydia A. Microscopy B. Culture C. Serology D. Biochemical methods

B. Culture

Best way to prevent the spread of epidemic_ Vaccination Bathing Treatment Avoid contact with the vector

Avoid contact with the vector

Which of the following match is CORRECT? A. Leptospirosis - acquired through kissing B. R. prowazekii - Transmitted by lice C. R. akari - transmitted via tick D. B. burdorgferi - acquired via ingestion

A. Leptospirosis - acquired through kissing B. R. prowazekii - Transmitted by lice✅ C. R. akari - transmitted via tick - mites D. B. burdorgferi - acquired via ingestion

Specimen of choice for Ricketssia a. Stool b. Urine с. Blood d. Tissue

d. Tissue

Hay bacteria that exerts proteolytic action on coagulated milk a. Streptococcus lactis b. P. aeruginosa с. P. syncyanea d. B. subtilis

Which of the following tests is presumptive test for the confirmatory test in water testing? A. BGBL B. Endo Agar C. EMB Agar D. Lactose broth _for the

Confirmed tests for bacteria, EXCEPT: a. Lactose Broth b. BGBL Broth c. EMB d. ENDO Agar

The presence of residual in drinking water means: a. A sufficient amount of chlorine was added initially to the water b. Water is unsafe for drinking c. Additional treatment is required to remove chlorine d. Water is contaminated with coliform

Microfilaria that can be found anytime of the A. Non periodic B. Nocturnal C. Diurnal D. Nocturnal Subperiodic

Which of the following enteric parasite resembles neutrophil in stool sample? a. E. histolytica cyst b. E. histolytica trophozoite c. Yeast d. Pollen grains

a. E. histolytica cyst - neutrophil ✅ b. E. histolytica trophozoite c. Yeast d. Pollen grains - Taenia

Which protozoa should be to the clinicians? a. Endolimax nana b. Entamoeba coli c. Entamoeba dispar d. Dientamoeba fragilis

Protozoan that has more than 4 nuclei A. E. histolytica B. E. nana C. E. coli D. E. hartmanni

D, fragilis best technique

Trichrome stained smear

60-80% percent of the trophozoite form of D. fragilis have: a. 2 nuclei b. 3 nuclei c. 1 nucleus d. No nuclei

a. 2 nuclei - 60-80% b. 3 nuclei c. 1 nucleus-20-40% d. No nuclei

SCHIZONT is found in A. Definitive Host B. Intermediate Host

Crescent shaped/Sausage

P. falciparum

A female anopheles mosquito imgests a. Sporozoite b. Gametocyte c. Schizonts d. Oocvsts

b. Gametocyte*

When performing thick and thin blood films for malaria, fixation is done on:

Thin only

How many fields should be counted before reporting a smear for malaria?

300

Which stage is included not in the quantification of malarial parasites? A. Sporozoites B. Merozoite C. Trophozoite D. Gametocyte

A. Sporozoites

Plasmodium spp with the longest incubation period A. P. malariae B. P. vivax C. P. ovale D. P. falciparum

Main stay drug for malaria

Chloramphenicol

Direct skin penetration MOT

S. stercoralis

MOT ingestion and inhalation

E. vermicularis

Eggs are not routinely used to diagnose infection with which parasite? A. Necator americanus B. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Trichuris trichiura

All of the following are correct matches of parasites and their infective stages EXCEPT: A. S. stercoralis: Rhabditiform larva B. A. lumbricoides: Embryonated egg C. A. duodenale: Filariform larva D. T. trichuria: Embryonated egg

O. volvulus vector

Simulium

Prelarva of filarial worms

Microfilaria

Sheathed except

M. oozardi

Namatode with bipolar plugs

T. trichiura

In pinworm infections, after how many consecutive scotch tape procedures is done to be considered NEGATIVE?

Pseudophyllidean Cestode

D. latum (also Spirometra)

Only cestode with operculum

D. latum

Cestode with rosette gravid proglottids

D. latum

D. latum definitive diagnosis

Ova

Which of the following is the actively reproducing part of cestodes?

Proglottid

The first larval stage of a trematode which is hatched from an egg often ciliated and free-swimming is Redia Cercaria Miracidium Metacercaria

Miracidium

Leaf-like unsegmented and mostly monoecious Trematode Cestode Nematode Cyst

Trematode

The second intermediate host of P. westermani is

Crabs or cray fishes

How a person can acquired Paragonimus westermanii?

Eating undercookee crab

Egg is operculated with shoulders, opposite end knob, yellow-brown, and adult is elongated and thin: A. Paragonimus westermani B. Fasciolopsis buski С. Echinostoma ilocanum D. Clonorchis sinensis

Large terminal spine

S. haematobium

Small lateral spine

S. japonicum

Katayama fever

Schistosoma

Bile duct cancer (cholangiocarcinoma)

Stool to preservative ratio

1:3

Percentage of formalin used in preserving protozoan А. 0.03 В. 0.10 c. 0.05 D. 0.20

c. 0.05

What type of specimen where both trophozoites and cyst can be found?

Soft

Which of the following is not used for the direct stool examination? A. Buffered Methylene blue B. Potassium Hydroxide C. lodine D. Saline

A. Buffered Methylene blue -troph B. Potassium Hydroxide✅ -fungus (dissolves keratin) C. lodine - cyst D. Saline - troph

Spx O. volvulus

Skin snips

All of the following can be seen on a. except: A. Plasmodium spp. B. Filarial worms C. S. stercoralis D. Leishmania

C. S. stercoralis

What is detected in specimen that is refrigerated preservatives? A. Antigen B. Antibody C. Ova and parasite D. Trophozoites

A. Antigen

Most ideal to be used for mass fecal examination?

Kato-Katz

What is the most commonly used permanent stain for stool smear?

Wheatley trichrome

Scabies MOT

Direct contact

Which of the following refers to a disease CONSTANTLY PRESENT at some rate of occurrence in a particular location? A. Endemic B. Epidemic С. Pandemic D. Outbreak

A. Endemic

FECT arrangement from top to bottom

ETHER DEBRIS FORMALIN SEDIMENT

Which one of the following provides a presumptive identification of a viral infection A. Intranuclear inclusions in RBCS B. Cell lysis of sheep RBCS C. Cytopathic effect on cell cultures D. Presence of mononuclear inflammatory cells.

Specimen of choice for: Rotavirus, Norovirus VZV

Stool vesicular lesion

Anticoagulant for viral sample

Heparin

Most common cause of intrauterine infection

CMV

SDA -Carbon source -Nitrogen source

Dextrose Peptone

Which is not used to describe FUNGAL topography? Verrucose Rugose Glabrous Umbonate

Glabrous- texture

VF for aspergillis

Aflatoxin

Dead end host is usually the

Humans

Herpes MOT

Skin to skin

A 2-month-old infant in good health was scheduled for a checkup at the pediatrician's office. After arriving for the appointment, the mother noted white patches on the baby's tongue and in his mouth. The baby constantly used a pacifier. What is the most likely organism causing the white patches? A. Cryptococcus neoformans B. Candida albicans C. Aspergillus fumigatus D. None of these options

What is the concern when a patient is isolated in a room with negative air pressure? A. Contact B. Droplet C. Airborne D. Ingestion

Storage temperature for fungal CSF -4°С 15 - 22°С 4°С 37 - 42°

15 - 22°С

If fungal meningitis was suspected which of the following must be done? A. India ink в. Gram stain C. GS + India ink D. AFS + India ink

C. GS + India ink

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