MT

Question 1

Which of the following is true regarding crowding of dentition?
a. Crowding of the primary dentition usually resolves as the permanent teeth erupt.
b. Spacing in the primary dentition usually indicates spacing will be present in the adult.
c. Approximately 15% of adolescents have crowding severe enough to consider extraction of permanent teeth as part of treatment.
d. Lower incisor crowding is more common in African-American that white populations.

Answer 1

c. Approximately 15% of adolescents have crowding severe enough to consider extraction of permanent teeth as part of treatment.

Question 2

According to Scammon’s growth curves, which of the following tissues has a growth increase that can be used to help predict timing of the adolescent growth spurt?
a. Neural tissues c. Reproductive tissues
b. Lymphoid tissues

Answer 2

c. Reproductive tissues

Question 3

An adult patient with Class II molar relationship and cephalometric ANB angle of 2 degrees has which type of malocclusion?
a. Class II dental malocclusion b. Class II skeletal malocclusion c. Class I dental malocclusion
d. Class II skeletal malocclusion

Answer 3

a. Class II dental malocclusion

Question 4

Which of the following reactions is least likely to be observed during orthodontic treatment?
a. Root resorption c. Mobility of teeth that are moved
b. Devitalization of teeth that are moved d. development of occlusal interferences

Answer 4

b. Devitalization of teeth that are moved

Question 5

Class II elastics are used by stretching an elastic between which of the two following points?
a. From the posterior to the anterior within the maxillary arch.
b. From the posterior to the anterior within the mandibular arch.
c. From the posterior of the maxillary arch to the anterior of the mandibular arch.
d. From the posterior of the mandibular arch to the anterior of the maxillary arch.

Answer 5

d. From the posterior of the mandibular arch to the anterior of the maxillary arch.

Question 6

Which of the following depicts the usual order of extraction is chosen as the treatment to alleviate severe crowding?
a. Primary second molars, primary first molars, permanent first premolars, primary canines
b. Primary canines, primary first molars, permanent first premolars.
c. Primary first molars, primary first molars, primary canines
d. Primary canines, permanent canines, primary first molars, permanent first premolars
Answer: b. Primary canines, primary first molars, permanent first premolars.

Answer 6

b. Primary canines, primary first molars, permanent first premolars.

Question 7

Reduction of overbite can be accomplished most readily by which of the following tooth movements?
a. Intruding maxillary incisors
b. Uprighting maxillary and mandibular incisors
c. Using a high-pull headgear to the maxillary molars
d. Using lip bumper

Answer 7

a. Intruding maxillary incisors

Question 8

During an emergency dental visit in which a tooth is to be extracted due to extensive pulpal involvement, a moderately mentally challenged 5-year old child becomes physically combative. The parents are unable to calm the child. What should the dentist do?
a. Discuss the situation with the parents.
b. Force the nitrous oxide nosepiece over the child’s mouth and nose.
c. Use the hand over mouth exercise
d. Use a firm voice control.

Answer 8

a. Discuss the situation with the parents.

Question 9

The enamel rods in the gingival third of primary teeth slope occlusally instead of cervically as in permanent teeth, and the interproximal contacts of primary teeth are broader and wider than permanent teeth.
a. The first statement is true and the second statement is true.
b. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.
c. The first statement is false and the second statement is true.
d. The first statement is false and the second statement is false.

Answer 9

a. The first statement is true and the second statement is true.

Question 10

The mother of a 5-year-old patient is concerned about the child’s thumb-sucking habit. Six months ago, the patient had 5-mm overjet and a 3-mm anterior open bite. Today, the patient has 10% overbite and 3.5-mm overjet. The mother says that the child only sucks his thumb every night when falling to sleep. Of the following which is the best advice?
a. Refer to a speech pathologist.
b. Recommend tongue thrust therapy.
c. Recommend a thumb-sucking appliance.
d. Counsel the parent regarding thumb-sucking, and recall the patient in 3 months.

Answer 10

d. Counsel the parent regarding thumb-sucking, and recall the patient in 3 months.

Question 11

Your patient is 4 years old. Tooth E was traumatically intruded and visible clinically. What is your treatment of choice?
a. Reposition and splint
b. Reposition and splint, and primary endodontics.
c. Reposition and splint, and formocresol pulpotomy.
d. none of the above.

Answer 11

d. none of the above.

Question 12

A young permanent incisor with an open apex has a pinpoint exposure due to a traumatic injury that occurred 24 hours previously. The best treatment is ________.
a. Place calcium hydroxide non the pinpoint exposure.
b. Open the pulp chamber to find healthy pulp tissue and perform a pulpectomy.
c. Iniatiate a calcium hydroxide pulpectomy
d. Initiate conventional root canal treatment with gutta-percha

Answer 12

b. Open the pulp chamber to find healthy pulp tissue and perform a pulpectomy.

Question 13

Which of the following types of malocclusions is most common?
a. Class I malocclusion c. Class III malocclusion
b. Class II malocclusion d. Open bite malocclusion

Answer 13

a. Class I malocclusion

Question 14

Of the following, which is the last reliable way to predict the timing of the peak of the adolescent growth spurt for an individual?
a. plong changes in height over time on a growth curve
b. Following eruption timing of the dentition
c. taking a hand-wrist radiograph to assess skeletal development
d. Observing changes in secondary sex characteristics

Answer 14

b. Following eruption timing of the dentition

Question 15

Children in the primary dentition most often present with _______.
a. increased overbite c. ideal overbite
b. decreased overbite d. significant open bite

Answer 15

b. decreased overbite

Question 16

A patient with the maxillary first permanent molar mesiobuccal cusp sing distal to the buccal groove of the mandibular first molar has which type if malocclusion?
a. Class I c. Class II, division 2
b. Class II, division 1 d. Class III

Answer 16

d. Class III

Question 17

In a patient who displays excessive maxillary incisor at rest, has excessive lower face height, and has a deep overbite, which of the following would be the preferred method of overbite correction?
a. Eruption of posterior teeth to rotate the mandible open
b. Intrusion of maxillary incisors
c. Intrusion of mandibular incisors
d. Flaring of maxillary and mandibular incisors

Answer 17

b. Intrusion of maxillary incisors

Question 18

Which of the following reactions is least likely to be observed during orthodontic treatment?
a. Root resorption
b. Devitalization of teeth that are moved
c. Mobility of teeth that are moved
d. Development of occlusal interferences. rotation, tipping, or torque?
a. Center of rotation c. Center of the bracket tooth without
b. Center of resistance d. Apex of the root

Answer 18

b. Devitalization of teeth that are moved

Question 19

Two equal and opposite forces that are not collinear applied to a tooth are called which of the following?
a. center resistance c. Root movement
b. center of rotation d. A couple

Answer 19

b. Center of resistance

Question 20

A wire extending from the molars to the incisors is activated to intrude the incisors. What is the side effect on the molars?
a. molars will tip forward and intrude b. molars will rotate mesiobucally c. molars will tip distally and extrude
d. molars will rotate distobucally

Answer 20

c. molars will tip distally and extrude

Question 21

20. Two equal and opposite forces that are not collinear applied to a tooth are called which of the following?
    a. center resistance c. Root movement
    b. center of rotation d. A couple

Answer 21

d. A couple

Question 22

Class II elastics are used by stretching elastic between which of the two following points?
a. posterior to the anterior within the maxillary arch
b. posterior of the maxillary arch to the anterior within the mandibular arch
c. posterior of the maxillary arch to the anterior of the mandibular arch
d. posterior of the mandibular arch to the anterior of the maxillary arch

Answer 22

d. posterior of the mandibular arch to the anterior of the maxillary arch

Question 23

What is a second-order bend?
a. A bend to position a tooth buccolingually
b. A bend to provide angulation of a tooth in mesiodistal direction (tip)
c. A bend to provide correct angulation of a tooth in labiolingual direction (torque)
d. A bend to rotate a tooth

Answer 23

a. A bend to position a tooth buccolingually

Question 24

24. When using a cervical-pull headgear, the forces generated on the maxillary first molar cause this tooth to move
    in which of the following ways?
    a. Mesially and to extrude b. Distally and to extrude c. Mesially and to intrude
    d. Distally and to intrude

Answer 24

b. Move mesially and extrude

Question 25

An adolescent patient presents to your oce with a skeletal and dental Class II Which of the following would be a proper treatment plan for this patient? A Low pull head gear, prior to fixed appliance b. Reverse-pull headgear, intrusion arch, and full fixed appliances c. Extraction of maxillary first premolars, extrusion arch, and full fixed appliances d. Extraction of maxillary first premolars, intrusion arch, and full fixed appliances malocclusion and a deep bite.

Answer 25

A Low pull head gear, prior to fixed appliance

Question 26

When using a cervical-pull headgear, the forces generated on the maxillary first molar cause this tooth to move in which of the following ways? a. Mesially and to extrude b. Distally and to extrude c. Mesially and to intrude d. Distally and to intrude

Answer 26

b. Distally and to extrude

Question 27

Which of the following depicts the usual order of extraction of teeth if serial extraction is chosen as the treatment to alleviate severe crowding? a. Primary second molars, primary first molars, permanent first premolars, primary canines b. Primary canines, primary first molars, permanent first premolars c. Primary first molars, primary second molars, primary canines d. Primary canines, permanent canines, primary first molars, permanent first premolars

Answer 27

Primary canines, primary first molars, permanent first premolars

Question 28

All of the following may be indications to consider extraction of permanent teeth in an orthodontic patient except_____. a. Excessive crowding b. Class II interarch relationship c. Flat lip profile d. Anterior open bite.

Answer 28

c. Flat lip profile

Question 29

Advantages of fixed wire retention compared to a removable Hawley-type retainer include which of the following? a. Does not require the patient to remember to wear it. b. Is easier to clean c. The design can be altered to achieve minor tooth movements. d. It can incorporate an acrylic bite plate to avoid relapse of overbite correction.

Answer 29

a. Does not require the patient to remember to wear it.

Question 30

The preferred surgical procedure to correct a Class II malocclusion due to a deficient mandible is which of the following? a. Maxillary impaction b. Maxillary setback c. Mandibular setback d. Mandibular advancement

Answer 30

d. Mandibular advancement

Question 31

Of the following which is considered to be the least stable orthognathic surgical movement? a. Advancement of the mandible b. Advancement of the maxilla c. Superior movement (impaction) of the maxilla d. Inferior movement of the maxilla

Answer 31

a. Advancement of the mandible

Question 32

Why are implants not generally performed on a 12-year-old patient with congenitally missing lateral incisors? a. The patient would likely not be able to tolerate the surgical procedure. b. Waiting for the crowns is too much of an esthetic issue with most children that age. c. The gingival tissue will recede as the child gets older. d. The implants will appear to submerge as the child gets older.

Answer 32

d. The implants will appear to submerge as the child gets older.

Question 33

On the health history form, the mother of a 6-year-old new patient notes that the child is moderately mentally challenged. The dentist should ______. a. Refer to paediatric dentist b. Use a Tell-show-Do technique of behaviour management c. Use conscious sedation d. Use restraints aer obtaining informed consent

Answer 33

b. Use a Tell-show-Do technique of behaviour management

Question 34

Which of the following local anesthetic techniques is recommended for anesthetizing a primary mandibular second molar which will be extracted? a. Buccal and lingual infiltration adjacent to the second primary molar. b. Inferior alveolar nerve block c. Inferior alveolar nerve block and lingual nerve block d. Inferior alveolar, lingual and buccal nerve block

Answer 34

b. Inferior alveolar nerve block

Question 35

In the primary dentition, the mandibular foramen is located where in relation to the plane of occlusion? a. Higher than the plane of occlusion b. Much higher than the plane of occlusion c. Lower than the occlusion d. The same level as the plane of occlusion

Answer 35

c. Lower than the occlusion

Question 36

Following the administration of a local anesthetic, most patients can be maintained in conscious sedation at _______. a. 20%-40% nitrous oxide b. 20%- 40% oxygen c. 50% nitrous oxide d. 10% nitrous oxide

Answer 36

a. 20%-40% nitrous oxide

Question 37

Your patient is 7 years old and has a very large, carious lesion on tooth. What radiological factors should be used in determining the best treatment of choice between pulpotomy and primary endodontics? a. Furcation involvement d. Two of the above b. External root resorption e. All of the above c. Internal root resorption

Answer 37

d. Two of the above

Question 38

Which pulpotomy medicament demonstrates better success rates than formocresol? a. Mineral trioxide aggregate b. Calcium hydroxide c. Resin-modified glass ionomer cement d. Fih-generation bonding agents

Answer 38

a. Mineral trioxide aggregate

Question 39

A 1-year-old patient has first dental examination. The dentist reviews with the parent when to expect the next teeth to erupt, teething, oral hygiene tips for toddlers, and discusses uoride issues with bottled water and toothpaste. The term that describes this proactive approach to dental care is ________. a. Risk assessment c. Anticipatory guidance b. Probability counselling d. Preventive support counselling

Answer 39

d. Preventive support counselling

Question 40

Most natal and neonatal teeth are primary teeth. They should be extracted. a. The first statement is true and the second statement is true b. The first statement is true and the second statement is false c. The first statement is false and the second statement is true d. The first statement is false and the second statement is false

Answer 40

c. The first statement is false and the second statement is true

Question 41

Your patient is 8 years old. Tooth #8 was avulsed and you replanted it within 30 minutes. What is the best splint to use?

Answer 41

b. Rigid fixation for 2 months

Question 42

Your patient is 8 years old. Teeth #8 and #9 have approximately 50% of their crowns erupted. One month ago, the patient fell from a skateboard and hit teeth #8 and #9 on the sidewalk. The radiograph today shows open apices of these teeth, normal PDL, and no apparent periapical radiolucency. The patient has no reaction to electrical pulp tests. What is your treatment of choice? a. Calcium hydroxide pulpotomy b. Formocresol apexification technique c. Calcium hydroxide apexification technique d. Reappoint for exam and radiographs in 6 weeks

Answer 42

d. Reappoint for exam and radiographs in 6 weeks

Question 43

A permanent incisor with a closed apex is traumatically intruded. What is the treatment of choice? a. Gradual orthodontic repositioning and calcium hydroxide pulpectomy. b. Surgical repositioning and calcium hydroxide pulpectomy. c. Gradual orthodontic repositioning and conventional endodontic therapy d. Surgical repositioning and conventional endodontic therapy.

Answer 43

c. Gradual orthodontic repositioning and conventional endodontic therapy

Question 44

The key to producing eective orthodontic tooth movement is the application of a.heavy intermittent force b.light continuous force c.heavy continuous force d.all of the above can be clinically acceptable

Answer 44

b. light continuous force

Question 45

Which of the following statements is true regarding the Nance holding arch? a.palatal buon is incorporated in the design b.it is indicated for bilateral loss of primary mandi molars c.its design will inhibit thumb sucking habit d. can be acvated to distalize the mandi molars

Answer 45

d. palatal button is incorporated in the design

Question 46

Question: 39. Causes of a persistent midline diastema are the following EXCEPT a.supernumerary tooth c.high attachment of labial frenum b.tongue-thrust habit d.all of the above

Answer 46

d.all of the above

Question 47

bilateral space maintainers EXCEPT a. Nance’s holding arch b. Transpalatal arch d. Lingual holding arch e. None of the above c. Band and loop

Answer 47

c. Band and loop

Question 48

Space maintainer which uses a single band w/ a distal extension to guide the eruption of the 6-year molar a. Band and loop c. Crown and loop b. Band and loop with occlusal pad d. Distal shoe

Answer 48

d. Distal shoe

Question 49

Appliance used to correct a lower lip biting habit a. transpalatal c. hay rake b. lip bumper d. inclined bite plane

Answer 49

b. lip bumper

Question 50

The following are procedures included in preventive orthodontics EXCEPT: a. PFS c. frenectomy b. germectomy d. serial extraction

Answer 50

b. germectomy

Question 51

Tissue least likely to be aected by orthodontic tooth movement a. enamel d. pulp b. periodontal ligament e. cementum c. alveolar bone

Answer 51

a. enamel

Question 52

pair of concentrated forces having equal magnitude and opposite direction a. moment c. couple b. stress and strain d. range

Answer 52

c. couple

Question 53

Which of the following has the property to stimulate both osteoblastic and osteoclastic activity? a. prostaglandin E c. prostaglandin A b. steroids d. CAMP

Answer 53

c. prostaglandin A

Question 54

which of the following statements is true regarding the stress-strain diagram a. more horizontal the slope, the stiffer the wire b. more vertical the slope, the springier the wire c.more horizontal the slope, the springier the wire d. none of the above

Answer 54

c.more horizontal the slope, the springier the wire

Question 55

Which of the following is not a factor in determining the type of anchorage? a. Type of teeth being moved c. Bone support b. Number of teeth being moved d. Duration of tooth movement

Answer 55

d. Duration of tooth movement

Question 56

our patient is 9 years old. The mandibular le first primary molar has a large, carious lesion on the distal and on the occlusal and the tooth has greater mobility than what you would normally expect. You should _____. a. Take a radiograph of the area b. Perform a pulpotomy c. Perform pulpectomy d. Extract the tooth and consider space maintenance

Answer 56

a. Take a radiograph of the area

Question 57

Theory of orthodontic tooth movement which relates tooth movement with cellular changes produced by chemical messengers a. Piezoelectric Eect b. Pressure-Tension Theory c. Bioelectric Theory d. None of the above

Answer 57

b. Pressure-Tension Theory

Question 58

Controlled crown tipping is characterized by a. greater movement of crown than the root b. center of rotation at its apex c. minimal movement of the root d. great lingual movement

Answer 58

c. minimal movement of the root

Question 59

Which of the following may be used to correct crossbite? a. intermaxillary elastics b. expansion screws c. inclined plane d. removable appliance with finger spring e. only 3 of the above

Answer 59

e. only 3 of the above

Question 60

A prerequisite of interrupted force is a. forces should be heavy b. fixed appliance c. appliance is removed at least 2 hrs each day d. force applied continuously

Answer 60

c. appliance is removed at least 2 hrs each day

Question 61

wich is not a method to reduce radiation exposure in dental radiography? a.use of a lead diaphragm b.collimation of x-ray beam c.increase the distance between the film and the source d.use of alumination filtration

Answer 61

c.increase the distance between the film and the source

Question 62

”flush terminal plane” refers to the a.primary cuspids c.permanent cuspids b.first permanent molars d.second primary molars

Answer 62

d.second primary molars

Question 63

a comprehensive pedodontic examiniation should begin with a.charing caries b.a clinical impression of physical and mental condition c.an orthodontic evaluation d.determination of dental age

Answer 63

a clinical impression of physical and mental condition

Question 64

.a child with a high caries experience should be best be examined how oen? a.every 6 months b.whenever the parents feel it its necessary c.every 60 days d.it would be advisable to send these patients to a pedodontist

Answer 64

c.every 60 days

Question 65

dilaceration refers to a.so tissue injury resulting from trauma b.traumatic injury to a tooth germ during a critical stage of development c.geminated teeth d.none of the above

Answer 65

a.so tissue injury resulting from trauma

Question 66

in a type of cerebral palsy characterized by sudden violent involuntary contraction of a muscle or group of muscle there is a.spasticity d.rigidity b.ataxia e.tremor c.athetosis

Answer 66

e.tremor

Question 67

scheduling the length of a dental appointment for the deaf or blind child will depend upon which of the following? a.whatever the parents feel is a good working time b.whatever the child feels is a good working time c.the chronological age of the child d.the emotional nature of the child

Answer 67

d.the emotional nature of the child

Question 68

The undesirable side-eect most commonly associated with the use of a buccal coil spring is: a. Pain b. Gingival irritation c. tendency for premolar to rotate d. tendency for the molar to intrude

Answer 68

c. tendency for premolar to rotate

Question 69

In classifying the occlusion in a patient with premature primary molar loss, an additional observation to reinforce the initial evaluation should be: a. Midline relation c. incisor relation b. Canine relation d. profile

Answer 69

b. Canine relation

Question 70

The disadvantage of simple anchorage is that the anchor teeth may: a. Tip c. rotate on the long axis b. Move bodily d. cause root resorption

Answer 70

a. Tip

Question 71

When spacing occurs in the maxillary anterior teeth as a result of the frenum, it is wise to avoid treatment until the eruption of : a. Permanent central incisors c. Permanent canines b. Permanent lateral incisors d. Permanent dentition

Answer 71

Permanent canines

Question 72

Early loss of mandibular primary canine oen leads to lingual collapse of the anterior segment, The best space maintainer for early loss of a mandibular primary canine is a : a. Nance arch c. lingual arch b. Band and loop space maintainer d. lingual arch with coil spring

Answer 72

d. lingual arch with coil spring

Question 73

If an active lingual arch were placed to correct a bilateral crossbite, the type of anchorage used would be: a. Simple c. compound b. Complex d. reciprocal

Answer 73

d. reciprocal

Question 74

A unilateral fracture of the mandibular condyle in a child: a.will not aect future mandibular growth b.Should always be subject to open reduction c. May result in asymmetrical mandibular growth d. Inhibits maxillary molar development

Answer 74

c. May result in asymmetrical mandibular growth

Question 75

The injection technique for a mandibular block in a child places the needle: a.The same as in an adult b. Lower on the ramus than in an adult c. Higher on the ramus than in an adult d. Inhibits maxillary molar development

Answer 75

b. Lower on the ramus than in an adult

Question 76

To help establish rapport with a fearful child, it would be best for the dentist to: a. Sit down to the patient’s level b.Assure the child he will not be hurt d. Remain silent to permit the child to evaluate the situation c. Stand at full height to show that he is in command of the situation

Answer 76

Sit down to the patient’s level

Question 77

When one upright a lower first molar with a loop lingual, particular care must be exercised so as not to: a. Extrude the buccal segments c. over –correct the molar b. Flare the lower incisors d. none of the above

Answer 77

b. Flare the lower incisors

Question 78

Which of the . are directly attributable to teething? a. Diarrhea c. otitis media b. Convulsion d. none

Answer 78

d. none

Question 78

what is the average age of female growth spurt? a. 11 to 13 months old b. 14 to 16 months old c. 11 to 13 years old d. 14 to 16 years old

Answer 78

c. 11 to 13 years old

Question 79

What is the normal movement of maxilla? a. backward, upward b. forward, upward c. downward, backward d. downward, forward

Answer 79

d. downward, forward

Question 80

The downward and forward direction of facial growth results from : a. Upward and backward growth of the max. structures and the mandibular condyle. b. Vertical eruption and mesial dri of the dentitions c. Interstitial growth in the maxilla and the mandible d. Epithelial induction at the growth centers.

Answer 80

a. Upward and backward growth of the max. structures and the mandibular condyle.

Question 81

A 10-year old boy has an Angle Class III molar relationship and an incisor crossbite when his jaws are closed to centric occlusion. When his jaws are guided to a centric relation position, the molar relationship is Class I and the incisors are edge to edge, anteroposteriorly. You should advice that: a. The child has growth problem and the occlusal correction will not be completed until growth is complete. b. The incisor malrelationship should be corrected immediately. c. Future growth, is likely to correct this problem. d. Correction should take place aer growth is completed.

Answer 81

The incisor malrelationship should be corrected immediately.

Question 82

75. A primary 2nd molar in infraocclusion and its occlusal surface is level with the gingival margin of the permanent first molar which is beginning to tip mesially . X-ray indicate a developing permanent 2nd premolar present . The dentist should: a. Extract the primary molar and place a space maintainer b. Extract the primary molar c. Maintain the primary molar since it will not dri. d. Maintain the primary molar since they occasionally reerupt.

Answer 82

a. Extract the primary molar and place a space maintainer

Question 83

The patient maxillary lateral incisors are missing? Sum of the lower incisors is 23.5 mm. tooth number 11 and 21 measures 8.5 and 8.8 respectively. Compute for the individual estimated width of 12 and 21. a. 7.26 mm b. 8.2 mm c. 7.9 mm d. 8.0 mm

Answer 83

a. 7.26 mm

Question 84

Excessive midline diastema of the patient is a possible consequence of: a. Impacted mesiodense b. abnormally low labial frenum c.missing post. Teeth d.all ohese

Answer 84

d.all ohese

Question 85

When primary teeth have been lost prematurely, it is important to hold space for: a. An upper incisor c. lower bicuspid b. Lower incisor d. all of the above

Answer 85

d. all of the above

Question 86

What are the active growth sites of the maxilla? a. Maxillary tuberosity areas b. Frontonasal process c. Midpalatal stuture and transpalatal suture d. All of the above

Answer 86

All of the above

Question 87

The gingival seat cavosurface margin of a class II preparation in: a. Left unbevelled because of the angle of the enamel rods b. Beveled to reduce occurrence of caries c. Beveled to remove unsupported enamel d. Beveled about the same as for permanent tooth.

Answer 87

Beveled to remove unsupported enamel

Question 88

Typical facial profile changes that occur during the transition from childhood to adulthood. a. Remains essentially constant b. Flattening of the profile typically occurs with maturation T c. he face elongates, narrow and thins with time d. As the face enlarges, there is general accentuation of the lips relative to nose and chin structures.

Answer 88

As the face enlarges, there is general accentuation of the lips relative to nose and chin structures.

Question 89

Changes in the pressure side of the alveolar crest when orthodontic forces exceed physiologic limits are called: a. Direct resorption b. Osteoblastic activity c. undermining resorption d. all of the above

Answer 89

undermining resorption

Question 90

Macro-esthetics pertains to a. Facial proportion b. Lip to tooth relationship c. tooth to tooth relationship

Answer 90

a. Facial proportion

Question 91

84. Smile Analysis pertains to a. Macro-esthetics b. Mini Esthetics c. Macro Esthetics

Answer 91

b. Mini Esthetics

Question 92

It’s an analysis that determines the arch length a. Pont’s index b. Korkhous c. MDA d. ton

Answer 92

b. Korkhous

Question 93

An analysis that uses dental cast to determine the broadness or narrowness of the arch a. Pont’s index b. Korkhous c. MDA d. ton

Answer 93

a. Pont’s index

Question 94

A method that helps one to predict if the space available is enough to accommodate the erupting 345. a. Pont’s index b. Korkhous c. MDA d. tonn’s

Answer 94

c. MDA

Question 95

A method how to quantify the ideal total mesiodistal width of maxillary incisors if the maxillary lateral is missing or poorly developed. a. Pont’s index b. Korkhous c. MDA d. tonn’s

Answer 95

d. tonn’s

Question 96

which of the following may cause posterior Crossbite a. Lingual eruption path of maxillary posterior b. Constricted maxillary arch c. Hyperactive buccinators muscle d. All of the above

Answer 96

d. All of the above

Question 96

Three facial landmarks use to determine the facial profile of the patient i. So tissue nasion ii. So tissue glabella iii. Pronasion iv. Subnasale v. Soft tissue pt. B vi. Soft tissue pogonion vii. Soft tissue menton a. i, ii, vii b. ii, iv, vi c. iii, vi, vii d. none of the above

Answer 96

b. ii, iv, vi

Question 97

Horizontal proportion divides the face into 5 vertical components. Which serve as the primary vertical component? a. Right and le lateral 5th b. right and le medial 5th c. central 5th d. all of these

Answer 97

c. central 5th

Question 97

Which of the following may cause lingual tipping of the lower incisors a. Hyperactive lower lips b. Weak tongue c. Both of these d. None of the above

Answer 97

c. Both of these

Question 98

Hyper active masseter muscles may cause a. Infraeruption of the posterior teeth. b. Deepening of the bite c. Shortening of the face d. All of the above

Answer 98

d. All of the above

Question 99

During protraction of the mandible, if lateral pterygoid muscle of one side failed to contract, where will be your midline deviation? a. The midline will deviate to the side where lateral pteryoid failed to contract b. The midline will deviate to the opposite side c. The midline will not move d. None of the above

Answer 99

b. The midline will deviate to the opposite side

Question 100

As a general rule, the face can be divided into 3 vertical parts, which vertical part is not reliable for vertical facial analysis a. Upper 3rd b. lower 3rd c. middle 3rd d. none of these

Answer 100

a. Upper 3rd

Question 101

the most prevailing malocclusion is a. Angle class 1 b. Angle Class 2 c. Angle class 3 d. Angle Class 4

Answer 101

a. Angle class 1

Question 102

The least prevailing Malocclusion is a. Angle class 1 b. Angle Class 2 c. Angle class 3 d. Angle Class 4

Answer 102

c. Angle class 3

Question 103

The palatal cusp of maxillary first permanent molar occlude with central fossa mandibular permanent first molar. a. Angle class 1 b. Angle Class 2 c. Angle class 3 d. Angle Class 4

Answer 103

a. Angle class 1

Question 103

he mesiobuccal cusp of maxillary permanent first molar occludes between mandibular permanent first molar and 2nd premolar with 6 mm over jet. a. Class 1 type 2 b. Class II division 2 c. Class III type 2

Answer 103

b. Class II division 2

Question 104

The mesiobuccal groove of mandibular first permanent molar occlude with the cusp of maxillary 2nd premolar, with an edge to edge incisal relationship. a. Class 1 type 3 b. Class 3 type 3 c. Class 3 type 1 d. none of these

Answer 104

c. Class 3 type 1

Question 105

The classification of malocclusion proposed by Ackerman and Profit a. Venn Diagram b. Triquetra Diagram c. Maslov Diagram d. none of these

Answer 105

a. Venn Diagram

Question 106

Open bite malocclusion is an example of a. Vertical problem b. Sagittal problem c. Transverse problem d. none

Answer 106

a. Vertical problem

Question 107

An Example of Sagittal problem a. Negative overjet b.Cusp to cusp c. Excessive over jet d. all

Answer 107

d. all